CUET PG Psychology Mock Test - 3 - CUET PG MCQ

The correct answer is 'Narcolepsy'

Key Points

• Narcolepsy:
  • Narcolepsy is a chronic neurological disorder that affects the brain's ability to regulate sleep-wake cycles.
  • People with narcolepsy experience excessive daytime sleepiness and uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep during the day, often at inappropriate times.
  • These sleep attacks can occur during any type of activity at any time of day.
  • Other symptoms may include cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone), sleep paralysis, and hallucinations.

Additional Information

• Insomnia:
  • Insomnia is a sleep disorder where individuals have trouble falling asleep or staying asleep.
  • This condition leads to daytime sleepiness, lack of energy, and can affect mood and work performance.
• Sleep Apnea:
  • Sleep apnea is a disorder in which breathing repeatedly stops and starts during sleep.
  • The two main types are obstructive sleep apnea (caused by blocked airways) and central sleep apnea (caused by the brain not sending proper signals to the muscles that control breathing).
• Hypersomnia:
  • Hypersomnia is characterized by excessive sleepiness during the day or prolonged nighttime sleep.
  • It can be caused by other sleep disorders, medical conditions, or medications.

The correct answer is 'Teratogen'

Key Points

• Teratogen:
  • Teratogens are environmental agents that can cause harm to a developing fetus during the prenatal period.
  • These agents include drugs, chemicals, infections, or even certain health conditions of the mother.
  • Exposure to teratogens during critical periods of development can result in birth defects, developmental delays, or even miscarriage.
  • The severity of the damage caused by teratogens depends on the timing of exposure, the dose, and the genetic susceptibility of the fetus.

Additional Information

• Allele:
  • An allele is a variant form of a gene. Alleles are responsible for the diversity in traits observed within a population.
  • They do not cause damage during the prenatal period but can be involved in inherited genetic disorders.
• Marasmus:
  • Marasmus is a form of severe malnutrition characterized by energy deficiency. It primarily affects infants and young children.
  • While serious, marasmus is related to postnatal nutrition and does not specifically cause damage during the prenatal period.
• Growth faltering:
  • Growth faltering refers to a slower than expected growth rate in infants and young children, often due to inadequate nutrition or health problems.
  • It is generally a postnatal condition and not an environmental agent causing prenatal damage.

The correct answer is 'Sigmund Freud'

Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory of personality suggests that personality is largely shaped by early childhood experiences and is relatively fixed by the end of the phallic stage (around age 5 or 6). Freud believed that unconscious drives, formed during these early years, play a significant role in determining an individual’s personality. While later experiences can influence behavior to some extent, Freud emphasized the enduring impact of early development on personality.

In contrast:

• B.F. Skinner (a behaviorist) believed that personality is shaped by environmental factors and reinforcement throughout life.
• Ivan Pavlov (known for classical conditioning) focused on how learned associations develop through experience, implying that personality could be altered by new experiences.
• John B. Watson (a radical behaviorist) also argued that personality is entirely shaped by environmental stimuli and learning experiences over time.

Thus, Freud’s perspective contrasts most sharply with Ravi’s belief in continual personality change due to ongoing life experiences.

The correct answer is 'Deception'

Key Points

• Deception:
  • Deception in research occurs when an experimenter provides false information to participants about the true nature of an experiment or creates a false impression through their actions or the setting.
  • It is sometimes used to prevent participants' behavior from being influenced by their knowledge of the experiment's purpose, ensuring more natural responses.
  • Ethical guidelines require that deception be minimized and that participants are thoroughly debriefed after the experiment.

Additional Information

• Experimental design:
  • Experimental design refers to the overall structure and strategy of an experiment, including how participants are allocated to different conditions and how variables are measured and controlled.
  • It ensures that the experiment can test hypotheses effectively and can include designs such as randomized controlled trials.
• Quasi-experimental design:
  • Quasi-experimental design resembles experimental design but lacks random assignment of participants to conditions.
  • It is often used in situations where random assignment is impractical or unethical but still aims to establish causal relationships between variables.
• Classical experimental design:
  • Classical experimental design is a type of experimental design that typically involves random assignment, control groups, and manipulation of an independent variable to determine its effect on a dependent variable.
  • It is considered the gold standard for establishing causal relationships in research.

The correct answer is 'Express self'

Collectivistic cultures emphasize the importance of the group over the individual. In these cultures, the self is often defined in terms of relationships with others and one's role within the group. Key aspects of a collectivistic view of the self include:

• Belong: Fitting into the group and maintaining harmony.
• Occupy one’s proper place: Understanding and fulfilling one’s role within the social structure.
• Promote other’s goals: Prioritizing the needs and goals of the group over personal desires.

In contrast, "Express self" aligns more with an individualistic view of the self, which emphasizes personal autonomy, independence, and self-expression. This focus on expressing one’s unique identity is not typically associated with collectivism, where conformity to group norms and interdependence are prioritized.

The correct answer is 'Functionalism'

Key Points

• Functionalism:
  • Functionalism is a school of thought in psychology that emphasizes the purpose of consciousness and behavior in helping individuals adapt to their environment.
  • It was developed as a reaction to structuralism and is concerned with how the mind functions rather than the structure of the mind.
  • Charles Darwin's theory of evolution had a significant impact on functionalism, as it focused on how mental and behavioral processes evolved to help an organism survive and reproduce.
  • Darwin's approach to studying the adaptive functions of behavior and mental processes aligns closely with the principles of functionalism.

Additional Information

• Structuralism:
  • Structuralism is an early school of psychology that aimed to break down mental processes into their most basic components.
  • It was founded by Wilhelm Wundt and Edward Titchener and used methods such as introspection to analyze the inner processes of the human mind.
  • Unlike functionalism, structuralism focuses on the structure of the mind rather than its functions.
• Associationism:
  • Associationism is a theory in psychology that emphasizes the association between ideas and experiences as the primary basis of learning and mental processes.
  • It is more concerned with how ideas connect and form complex thoughts rather than the functions of mental processes.
• Behaviorism:
  • Behaviorism is a school of thought that focuses on observable behaviors rather than internal mental processes.
  • It was founded by John B. Watson and later expanded by B.F. Skinner, emphasizing the role of environmental factors in shaping behavior through conditioning.
  • Behaviorism does not consider the adaptive functions of mental processes, which is a key aspect of functionalism and Darwin's approach.

The correct answer is 'Social-loafing'

Key Points

• Social-loafing:
  • Social-loafing refers to the phenomenon where individuals put in less effort when working in a group compared to when they work alone.
  • This reduction in effort is often due to the perception that individual contributions are less identifiable within a group setting.
  • Social-loafing can occur in various settings, including academic, workplace, and social environments.

Additional Information

• Hooliganism:
  • Hooliganism refers to violent or rowdy behavior often associated with sports fans, particularly in football (soccer).
  • This term does not relate to the reduction of effort in group work settings.
• De-individuation:
  • De-individuation is a psychological state where individuals in a group lose self-awareness and feel less accountable for their actions.
  • This can lead to behavior that is uncharacteristic and often antisocial, but it is not specifically about reduced effort in group work.
• Social facilitation:
  • Social facilitation refers to the tendency for people to perform better on simple tasks when in the presence of others.
  • This concept is the opposite of social-loafing, as it focuses on increased effort and performance due to group presence.

The correct answer is 'Halo effect.'

Key Points

• Halo effect:
  • The halo effect is a cognitive bias where the perception of one positive trait influences the perception of other traits.
  • This means that if a person is perceived as physically attractive, it can lead to assumptions that they possess other positive qualities, such as intelligence or kindness.
  • The term was first introduced by psychologist Edward Thorndike in the early 20th century.
  • The halo effect can significantly impact various judgments and decisions, ranging from hiring practices to personal relationships.

Additional Information

• Primacy effect:
  • The primacy effect refers to the tendency to better remember and give more importance to information that is presented first.
  • This effect is often seen in various contexts, such as learning and decision-making processes.
• Pygmalion effect:
  • The Pygmalion effect, also known as the Rosenthal effect, is the phenomenon where higher expectations lead to an increase in performance.
  • This effect highlights the impact of teacher expectations on student performance in educational settings.
• Non-common effect:
  • The non-common effect is a concept in attribution theory, where people make inferences about others' behaviors by identifying the unique factors that distinguish one action from another.
  • This concept is used to understand the reasons behind an individual's specific actions.

The correct answer is 'Nativist'

Key Points

• Nativist Perspective:
  • The nativist perspective asserts that most human perceptual capabilities are innate, meaning they are inborn and present at birth.
  • This perspective suggests that perceptual abilities are hard-wired into the brain and require little to no learning or experience to develop.
  • Nativists believe that certain perceptual skills, such as recognizing faces or understanding basic spatial relationships, are pre-programmed in humans.
  • This viewpoint is often contrasted with the empiricist perspective, which emphasizes learning and experience.

Additional Information

• Interactionist Perspective:
  • The interactionist perspective suggests that perceptual capabilities develop through a combination of inborn abilities and environmental influences.
  • It emphasizes the interaction between innate biological factors and learning experiences.
• Behaviorist Perspective:
  • The behaviorist perspective focuses on learning and experience as the primary determinants of behavior and perceptual abilities.
  • Behaviorists argue that perceptual capabilities are acquired through conditioning and interaction with the environment.
• Empiricist Perspective:
  • The empiricist perspective posits that all perceptual abilities are learned from sensory experiences.
  • Empiricists believe that the mind starts as a blank slate, and knowledge is built through interaction with the environment.

The correct answer is 'Dissociative Fugue'

Key Points

• Dissociative Fugue:
  • Dissociative Fugue is a rare psychological disorder characterized by sudden, unexpected travel away from one's home or place of work, with an inability to recall one's past.
  • Individuals in a fugue state often adopt a new identity and may seem completely unaware of their previous life.
  • This condition is often triggered by severe stress or trauma and is classified under dissociative disorders in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
  • The fugue state can last for hours, days, or even longer, and recovery usually involves regaining memories of the past.

Additional Information

• Retrograde amnesia:
  • Retrograde amnesia involves the loss of pre-existing memories to conscious recollection, beyond ordinary forgetfulness.
  • It typically affects memories from a specific period before the event that caused the amnesia, such as a traumatic brain injury.
  • Unlike Dissociative Fugue, it does not involve wandering off or adopting a new identity.
• Dissociative amnesia:
  • Dissociative amnesia involves an inability to recall important personal information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature, that is too extensive to be explained by ordinary forgetfulness.
  • While it shares some similarities with Dissociative Fugue, it does not typically involve travel or the assumption of a new identity.
• Dissociative identity disorder:
  • Dissociative identity disorder (formerly known as multiple personality disorder) is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identities within a single individual.
  • These distinct identities may have their own names, ages, histories, and characteristics.
  • It is different from Dissociative Fugue, which involves a single alternate identity assumed during the fugue state.

The correct answer is 'Frustration Aggression Theory'

Key Points

• Frustration Aggression Theory:
  • This theory posits that frustration, which occurs when an individual's goal-directed behavior is blocked, increases the likelihood of an aggressive response.
  • The theory was initially proposed by John Dollard and his colleagues in 1939, and it suggests a direct relationship between frustration and aggression.
  • According to the theory, when people perceive that they are being prevented from achieving a desired goal, their frustration can lead to aggression as a way to release the pent-up energy and emotions.

Additional Information

• Instrumental Aggression:
  • This type of aggression is goal-oriented and used as a means to achieve a particular end, such as gaining power or resources.
  • It is different from frustration aggression, as it is not necessarily caused by frustration but is a calculated action to achieve a specific objective.
• Fundamental Attribution Error:
  • This concept refers to the tendency of people to overemphasize personal characteristics and ignore situational factors when judging others' behavior.
  • It is related to social psychology and has no direct connection to aggression resulting from frustration.
• Misattribution of Arousal:
  • This phenomenon occurs when people incorrectly identify the source of their emotional arousal, attributing it to the wrong cause.
  • While it can influence aggressive behavior, it is not the same as the direct link between frustration and aggression described in the Frustration Aggression Theory.

The correct answer is 'Existentialism'
Existentialism:

• Existentialism is a philosophical theory that emphasizes individual existence, freedom, and choice.
• It posits that humans define their own meaning in life, and they make rational decisions despite existing in an irrational universe.
• The statement "Since both pain and pleasure are the wealth of man, they are his good teachers" aligns with Existentialist thought, which often suggests that individuals learn and grow through their experiences, including suffering and joy.
• Existentialists believe that life's challenges and pleasures are opportunities for self-discovery and personal growth.

Useful Information:
Naturalism:

• Naturalism advocates that everything arises from natural properties and causes, and supernatural or spiritual explanations are excluded or discounted.
• It focuses on the physical world and its laws, often emphasizing scientific methods.
• Naturalism would not necessarily frame pain and pleasure as 'teachers' but rather as natural phenomena subject to scientific study.

Idealism:

• Idealism posits that reality is mentally constructed or immaterial.
• It emphasizes the importance of the mind and spiritual values over material objects.
• Idealists might interpret pain and pleasure in terms of moral or spiritual lessons, but this statement aligns more closely with Existentialist themes of personal growth through lived experience.

Pragmatism:

• Pragmatism is a philosophical tradition that considers the practical implications of ideas as their essential component.
• It focuses on the outcomes and effects of concepts to determine their truth.
• Pragmatists would likely focus on how pain and pleasure contribute to practical, beneficial outcomes rather than viewing them as inherent 'teachers' of life.

The correct answer is (B), (D), (C), (A)

Key Points

• Receptor Cells:
  • Receptor cells are specialized cells located in the sense organs (such as the eyes, ears, skin, etc.).
  • These cells detect sensory stimuli (like light, sound, touch) and convert them into neural signals.
• Bipolar Cells:
  • In the retina of the eye, bipolar cells serve as intermediaries between the receptor cells (photoreceptors) and the ganglion cells.
  • They receive signals from the receptor cells and transmit them to the ganglion cells.
• Ganglion Cells:
  • Ganglion cells are located in the retina and receive input from the bipolar cells.
  • Their axons bundle together to form the optic nerve.
• Optic Nerve:
  • The optic nerve carries the neural impulses from the ganglion cells to the brain.
  • It transmits visual information from the retina to the brain for processing.

Additional Information

• Other Options:
  • Option 1: Optic Nerve, Receptor Cells, Ganglion Cells, Bipolar Cells - Incorrect because the optic nerve is the last step in the pathway.
  • Option 2: Optic Nerve, Receptor Cells, Bipolar Cells, Ganglion Cells - Incorrect because the optic nerve should be at the end of the pathway.
  • Option 4: Ganglion Cells, Receptor Cells, Bipolar Cells, Optic Nerve - Incorrect because the order of receptor cells, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells is not maintained.

The correct answer is 'Debriefing'

Key Points

• Debriefing:
  • Debriefing is a critical process in experimental research where participants are informed about the true nature of the experiment after its conclusion.
  • This process is especially important if deception was used during the experiment to ensure participants understand the actual objectives and procedures.
  • It helps in addressing any ethical concerns and ensures that participants leave the study without any confusion or distress.
  • Debriefing also provides an opportunity for researchers to gather feedback from participants regarding their perceptions and experiences during the experiment.

Additional Information

• Probing:
  • Probing refers to the technique of asking follow-up questions to gather more detailed information from participants.
  • It is used during data collection to ensure clarity and completeness of responses, but it is not related to explaining the experiment after its conclusion.
• Interaction effect:
  • An interaction effect occurs when the effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable changes depending on the level of another independent variable.
  • This is a statistical concept used in the analysis of experiments, not related to post-experiment explanations.
• Rapport formation:
  • Rapport formation involves building a trusting and positive relationship between the researcher and participants.
  • While important for the success of data collection, it is not the process of explaining the experiment after it has ended.

The correct answer is 'Coccygeal'

Key Points

• Spinal Nerves:
  • Spinal nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system and arise from the spinal cord.
  • They are responsible for transmitting sensory and motor information between the spinal cord and the rest of the body.
  • There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves, categorized into cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal regions.
  • The coccygeal nerve is the 31st pair and is located in the coccyx (tailbone) area.

Additional Information

• Optic Nerve:
  • The optic nerve is not a spinal nerve; it is a cranial nerve (Cranial Nerve II).
  • It is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain.
• Olfactory Nerve:
  • The olfactory nerve is also not a spinal nerve; it is a cranial nerve (Cranial Nerve I).
  • It is involved in the sense of smell by transmitting sensory information from the nose to the brain.
• Vagus Nerve:
  • The vagus nerve is another cranial nerve (Cranial Nerve X) and not a spinal nerve.
  • It plays a key role in the parasympathetic nervous system, affecting heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.

The correct answer is 'Extreme distractibility'

Key Points

• Extreme distractibility:
  • Schizophrenic thought disorder often involves a significant degree of distractibility.
  • This distractibility leads to the person being overwhelmed by various stimuli, making it difficult to focus and process information correctly.
  • The individual’s attention is easily diverted by irrelevant stimuli, contributing to the disorganized thought processes characteristic of schizophrenia.

Additional Information

• Auditory impairments:
  • While auditory hallucinations are common in schizophrenia, auditory impairments are not the primary cause of thought disorder in schizophrenia.
  • Thought disorder is more related to cognitive processing issues rather than sensory impairments.
• Hyperactivity:
  • Hyperactivity can be a symptom of other mental health disorders, such as ADHD, but it is not directly linked to the thought disorder seen in schizophrenia.
  • Thought disorder in schizophrenia is more about the disorganization of thoughts rather than an increase in activity level.
• An absence of sensory information:
  • Schizophrenia does not typically involve an absence of sensory information; rather, it often involves abnormal processing of sensory inputs.
  • The thought disorder is more associated with how information is processed and integrated rather than a lack of sensory input.

The correct answer is 'Hue.'

Key Points

• Hue:
  • Hue refers to the attribute of color that allows us to classify it as red, blue, green, etc.
  • It is associated with the wavelength of light, with different wavelengths corresponding to different hues.
  • The concept of hue is crucial in understanding how we perceive color, as it directly relates to the color's position in the spectrum of visible light.

Additional Information

• Saturation:
  • Saturation refers to the intensity or purity of a color.
  • A fully saturated color contains no gray and appears vivid and bold.
  • Lower saturation means the color appears more washed out or pale.
• Lightness:
  • Lightness, also known as value or brightness, describes how light or dark a color appears.
  • It is influenced by the amount of light that a color reflects; higher lightness means the color appears lighter.
  • Lightness is an important aspect of color perception, affecting how we distinguish and interpret colors under different lighting conditions.
• None of these:
  • This option is incorrect as the correct attribute that relates to different wavelengths of light producing sensations of different colors is 'Hue.'
  • Understanding the concept of hue is essential in color theory and applications such as art, design, and visual technologies.

The correct answer is 'Wernicke’s area'

Key Points

• Wernicke’s area:
  • Wernicke’s area is a region in the left temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
  • It is primarily responsible for the comprehension of speech and the processing of word meaning.
  • Damage to this area can result in Wernicke's aphasia, characterized by difficulties in understanding language and producing meaningful speech.

Additional Information

• Agrammatism:
  • Agrammatism is a type of aphasia where individuals have difficulty with grammar and constructing sentences.
  • It is not a specific brain region but rather a symptom that can arise from damage to various areas involved in language processing.
• Broca’s area:
  • Broca’s area is located in the frontal lobe and is crucial for speech production and articulation.
  • Damage to Broca’s area can lead to Broca's aphasia, characterized by slow, laborious speech and difficulty in forming complete sentences.
• Nucleus Cingulate:
  • The nucleus cingulate is part of the cingulate cortex and is involved in emotional regulation and cognitive functions.
  • It is not directly involved in language comprehension or production.

The correct answer is 'Humanistic'Humanistic Psychology:

• Humanistic psychology emphasizes the unique potential of each individual for psychological growth and self-directedness.
• It focuses on the inherent goodness of people and their ability to achieve personal growth and fulfillment.
• Key figures in humanistic psychology include Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow, who introduced concepts such as self-actualization and the hierarchy of needs.
• This approach is often considered more holistic and positive compared to other psychological perspectives.

The correct answer is 'Eudaimonic Well-being'

Key Points

• Eudaimonic Well-being:
  • Eudaimonic well-being is a concept derived from Aristotelian philosophy, emphasizing living in accordance with one's true self and values, and achieving personal growth and self-actualization.
  • It focuses on the pursuit of virtue and excellence, suggesting that true happiness comes from leading a life of purpose, meaning, and self-improvement.
  • This form of well-being involves fulfilling one's potential and is associated with feelings of fulfillment and satisfaction derived from meaningful activities.

Additional Information

• Hedonic Well-being:
  • Hedonic well-being is centered on the pursuit of pleasure and avoidance of pain. It is associated with immediate gratification, enjoyment, and comfort.
  • While it involves positive emotions and life satisfaction, it does not necessarily lead to long-term fulfillment or personal growth.
• Happiness:
  • Happiness is a broad term that can encompass both eudaimonic and hedonic aspects of well-being. It generally refers to a state of contentment and joy.
  • However, happiness alone does not specifically capture the depth of living a virtuous life in pursuit of human excellence as eudaimonic well-being does.
• Peace:
  • Peace typically refers to a state of tranquility and absence of conflict. While it is an important aspect of well-being, it does not specifically address the pursuit of virtue or human excellence.
  • Peace can be a result of both eudaimonic and hedonic well-being, but it is not a comprehensive concept that includes the pursuit of virtue and excellence.

The correct answer is 'Id'

Key Points

• Id:
  • The Id is a component of personality as proposed by Sigmund Freud in his psychoanalytic theory of personality.
  • It is the most primitive part of the personality and consists of basic biological urges and drives, such as hunger, thirst, and sexual desires.
  • The Id operates based on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of these urges without considering reality or social appropriateness.

Additional Information

• Libido:
  • Libido is a term used by Freud to describe the energy derived from sexual drives, which is part of the Id but not the entire Id itself.
  • It is a key driving force behind human behavior, but it is not synonymous with the Id, which encompasses a broader range of basic urges.
• Ego:
  • The Ego is another component of Freud's personality theory that operates based on the reality principle.
  • It mediates between the unrealistic demands of the Id and the external real world, attempting to satisfy the Id's desires in socially appropriate ways.
  • Unlike the Id, the Ego considers the consequences of actions and operates in both the conscious and unconscious mind.
• Superego:
  • The Superego is the third component of personality in Freud's theory, representing internalized societal and parental standards of conduct.
  • It strives for perfection, aiming to control the Id's impulses through guilt and moralistic goals.
  • The Superego functions as a counterbalance to the Id, imposing a sense of right and wrong.

The correct answer is 'Physiological measures'

Key Points

• Physiological measures:
  • EEG (Electroencephalography) and GSR (Galvanic Skin Response) are types of physiological measures that record electrical activity in the brain and skin conductance, respectively.
  • These measures are used to assess physiological states and responses, providing objective data on how the body reacts to various stimuli.
  • EEG is commonly used in neuroscience and psychology to study brain function, while GSR is often used in psychophysiology to measure emotional arousal.

Additional Information

• Self Report:
  • Self-report measures involve individuals reporting their own thoughts, feelings, and behaviors, typically through questionnaires or interviews.
  • These measures rely on subjective data and can be influenced by personal biases and inaccuracies in self-perception.
• Behavioral:
  • Behavioral measures involve observing and recording actions or behaviors of individuals in various settings.
  • These measures provide objective data on how individuals act and react but do not directly assess internal states or physiological responses.
• Projective:
  • Projective measures involve presenting ambiguous stimuli to individuals and interpreting their responses to uncover underlying thoughts, feelings, or motivations.
  • Examples include the Rorschach Inkblot Test and the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).
  • These measures are often used in clinical psychology to explore the unconscious aspects of personality.

The correct answer is B and D only.

Key Points
(B) Regarded as the 3rd force.

• True. Humanist psychology is often referred to as the "third force" in psychology, following the first force (psychoanalysis) and the second force (behaviorism).
• It emerged as a reaction to the perceived limitations of these earlier approaches, emphasizing personal growth, self-actualization, and free will.

(D) Talks about deficiency needs.

• True. Humanist psychology, particularly through the work of Abraham Maslow and his hierarchy of needs, addresses "deficiency needs" (or "D-needs"), which include basic physiological and safety needs, as well as social and esteem needs.
• These are contrasted with "growth needs" related to self-actualization.

Additional Information
(A) Focuses on personology.

• False. While humanist psychology does emphasize individual experiences and the holistic development of the person, the term "personology" is more specifically associated with Henry Murray's personality theory, which is not exclusively aligned with humanist psychology.
• Humanist psychology broadly emphasizes the whole person but may not specifically use the term "personology."

(C) Is not a school of thought.

• False. Humanist psychology is indeed considered a school of thought within psychology.
• It constitutes a distinct perspective with theoretical foundations and influential proponents such as Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow.

The correct answer is 'Absolute Threshold'

Key Points

• Absolute Threshold:
  • The absolute threshold is the minimum amount of stimulus energy that an individual can detect 50% of the time.
  • In the context of vision, it refers to the smallest amount of light energy that must be present for vision to occur.
  • This threshold varies among individuals and can be influenced by factors such as age, sensitivity, and environmental conditions.

Additional Information

• Sensory Ratio:
  • Sensory ratio is not a standard term in the context of sensory perception. It might be confused with the concept of 'just noticeable difference' (JND), which refers to the minimum change in a stimulus that can be detected.
• Lumens:
  • Lumens is a measure of the total quantity of visible light emitted by a source. It is related to the brightness of a light source but does not directly describe the threshold for vision.
• Critical Ratio:
  • Critical ratio is a term used in various contexts, including signal detection theory, but it does not specifically refer to the minimum amount of light energy needed for vision.

The correct answer is 'No hypothesis will be formulated'

Key Points

• Research question such as ascertaining what percentage of voters prefer a particular candidate:
  • When conducting research to determine the percentage of voters who prefer a particular candidate, the primary goal is to collect and analyze data to provide a descriptive statistic.
  • In this context, there is no need to formulate a hypothesis because the research is not testing a relationship or effect but simply measuring a characteristic of a population.
  • Descriptive statistics summarize and describe the features of a dataset, providing a snapshot of the data without making predictions or testing theories.

Additional Information

• Research Hypothesis:
  • A research hypothesis is a specific, clear, and testable proposition or predictive statement about the possible outcome of a scientific research study based on a particular property of a population, such as a relationship between variables.
  • In the context of determining voter preference percentages, a research hypothesis is not applicable because we are not testing a cause-effect relationship or predicting an outcome.
• Null Hypothesis:
  • The null hypothesis typically states that there is no effect or no relationship between variables and is used in inferential statistics to test for significance.
  • For ascertaining voter preference percentages, a null hypothesis is unnecessary because the study's aim is not to infer or test a hypothesis but merely to describe a population characteristic.
• Alternative Hypothesis:
  • The alternative hypothesis is a statement that contradicts the null hypothesis, suggesting that there is an effect or a relationship between variables.
  • In voter preference studies where the goal is to describe data, an alternative hypothesis is not formulated because there is no comparison or relationship being tested.

The correct answer is 'Terror Management Theory'

Key Points

• Terror Management Theory:
  • This theory posits that self-esteem serves as a psychological buffer that protects individuals from the existential fear of their own mortality.
  • It suggests that cultural worldviews and self-esteem help individuals manage the terror associated with the awareness of death.
  • The theory was developed by Jeff Greenberg, Sheldon Solomon, and Tom Pyszczynski and is based on the ideas of anthropologist Ernest Becker.

Additional Information

• Story Model:
  • The Story Model is used in legal psychology to explain how jurors create a coherent story from the evidence presented in a trial.
  • It is not related to self-esteem or mortality; instead, it focuses on the cognitive processes involved in decision-making during trials.
• Two Factor Theory of Emotion:
  • This theory, developed by Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer, posits that emotion is based on two factors: physiological arousal and cognitive label.
  • It explains how emotions are experienced and is not directly related to self-esteem or thoughts about mortality.
• Upward Social Comparison:
  • Upward Social Comparison involves comparing oneself to others who are perceived to be better in some way, often to improve self-evaluation or aspiration.
  • While it can affect self-esteem, it does not specifically address the role of self-esteem in managing thoughts about mortality.

The correct answer is ‘(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)’

Key Points

• Content Validity:
  • Definition: Content validity refers to the extent to which a test measures a representative sample of the subject matter or behavior it is intended to measure.
  • Key Point: It involves a systematic examination of the test content to ensure it covers the relevant topics and skills comprehensively.
• Concurrent Validity:
  • Definition: Concurrent validity refers to the degree to which the results of a particular test correspond to those of a previously established measurement for the same construct.
  • Key Point: It assesses the validity of a test by comparing it with another measure that is known to be valid for the same behavior.
• Predictive Validity:
  • Definition: Predictive validity refers to the extent to which a test accurately predicts future performance or behavior.
  • Key Point: It evaluates the effectiveness of the test in forecasting an individual's future performance in a specific area.
• Face Validity:
  • Definition: Face validity pertains to the extent to which a test appears effective in terms of its stated aims to those taking it.
  • Key Point: It is a subjective assessment of how suitable the test seems to the examinees and other stakeholders.

Additional Information

• Option 2:
  • Incorrect because it mismatches content validity with predictive validity and concurrent validity with content validity.
• Option 3:
  • Incorrect because it mismatches content validity with face validity and predictive validity with concurrent validity.
• Option 4:
  • Incorrect because it mismatches content validity with concurrent validity and predictive validity with face validity.

The correct answer is 'Cognitive'

Key Points

• Cognitive Approach:
  • The cognitive approach in psychology focuses on understanding mental processes such as perception, memory, reasoning, and problem-solving.
  • Artificial Intelligence (AI) is closely related to the cognitive approach as it aims to replicate human mental processes through computational models.
  • AI systems are designed to perform tasks that typically require human intelligence, such as learning, decision-making, and language understanding.
  • The development of AI involves creating algorithms that mimic cognitive processes, making the cognitive approach the most relevant psychological perspective.

Additional Information

• Psychoanalytic Approach:
  • The psychoanalytic approach, founded by Freud, focuses on unconscious motivations and early childhood experiences.
  • While this approach provides valuable insights into human behavior, it does not directly relate to the computational and algorithmic focus of AI.
• Behavioral Approach:
  • The behavioral approach emphasizes observable behaviors and the responses to environmental stimuli.
  • Although AI can incorporate behavioral principles, its primary focus is on replicating cognitive processes rather than just observable behaviors.
• Social Approach:
  • The social approach examines how social interactions and cultural contexts influence behavior.
  • While social dynamics can be modeled in AI, the core of AI development remains in understanding and mimicking cognitive processes.

The correct answer is 'Avoidance'

Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is a motivational theory in psychology that organizes human needs into a pyramid with five levels, ranging from basic physiological needs to higher-level psychological growth. The hierarchy includes the following needs (from bottom to top):

1. Physiological needs: Basic survival needs like food, water, shelter, and rest.
2. Safety needs: Security, stability, and protection from harm.
3. Love and belonging needs: Relationships, affection, and a sense of connection with others.
4. Esteem needs: Self-respect, recognition, and a sense of accomplishment.
5. Self-actualization: Achieving one's full potential, personal growth, and self-fulfillment.

The concept of "Avoidance" is not part of Maslow's hierarchy. It refers to behaviors aimed at evading unpleasant situations or emotions, which is unrelated to Maslow's framework of human motivation and needs.

The correct answer is EEG recording of the REM sleep is characterized by Alpha and Beta waves

During REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep , the EEG recording shows a unique combination of brain wave activity. REM sleep is characterized by:

• Theta waves : These are slower-frequency waves (4–7 Hz) commonly associated with light sleep and dreaming.
• Beta waves : These are faster-frequency waves (13–30 Hz) that are typically associated with wakefulness and active thinking. During REM sleep, beta waves appear due to the high level of brain activity, which resembles that of being awake.

This combination of theta and beta waves reflects the paradoxical nature of REM sleep: while the body is deeply relaxed (even paralyzed), the brain is highly active, often producing vivid dreams.

Why not the other options?

• A: Theta waves only : While theta waves are present during REM sleep, they do not occur alone. Beta waves are also prominent.
• C: Alpha and Beta waves : Alpha waves (8–12 Hz) are typically associated with relaxed wakefulness or the transition to sleep (e.g., in stage 1 non-REM sleep), not REM sleep.
• D: Delta waves only : Delta waves (0.5–4 Hz) are characteristic of deep, slow-wave sleep (stages 3 and 4 of non-REM sleep), not REM sleep.