CUET PG Psychology Mock Test - 4 - CUET PG MCQ

The correct answer is 'p value'

Explanation

• p value:
  • The p value is a statistical measure that helps determine whether there is a significant difference between groups. In this case, it will indicate whether the difference in leadership scores between boys and girls is statistically significant.
  • A low p value (typically less than 0.05) suggests that the observed differences are unlikely to have occurred by chance, indicating a significant difference between the groups.
  • Using the p value, Matt can test the null hypothesis, which states that there is no difference between the groups. If the p value is low, he can reject the null hypothesis.

Other Related Points

• Standard deviation:
  • Standard deviation measures the amount of variability or dispersion in a set of scores. While it provides insight into the spread of scores, it does not by itself indicate whether there is a significant difference between groups.
• Mean:
  • The mean is the average score of a group. Although comparing means can give an initial idea of differences between groups, it does not provide information on statistical significance.
• Chi square value:
  • The chi square value is used for testing relationships between categorical variables. It is not appropriate for comparing means of continuous variables like leadership scores.

The correct answer is 'stirrup'.

Key Points

• Stirrup (Stapes):
  • The stirrup, or stapes, is one of the three tiny bones in the middle ear known as the ossicles.
  • It is the smallest bone in the human body and plays a crucial role in the process of hearing.
  • The stapes transmits sound vibrations from the incus (another middle ear bone) to the oval window, which leads to the inner ear.

Additional Information

• Auditory Nerve:
  • The auditory nerve, also known as the cochlear nerve, is part of the inner ear, not the middle ear.
  • It carries nerve impulses from the cochlea in the inner ear to the brain, where they are interpreted as sound.
• Cochlea:
  • The cochlea is a spiral-shaped, fluid-filled structure in the inner ear.
  • It converts sound vibrations into electrical signals, which are then transmitted to the brain via the auditory nerve.
• Organ of Corti:
  • The organ of Corti is located within the cochlea in the inner ear.
  • It contains hair cells that move in response to sound vibrations and play a key role in converting these vibrations into electrical signals.

The correct answer is 'eclectic'

Key Points

• Eclectic approach:
  • The eclectic approach is a type of therapeutic practice where clinical psychologists use techniques and tools from various psychological theories and schools of thought.
  • This approach allows psychologists to tailor their interventions to the specific needs and circumstances of each client, drawing from the best possible methods available.
  • It is favored by a large number of clinical psychologists in the United States because it offers flexibility and can be more effective in addressing diverse psychological issues.

Additional Information

• Psychodynamic approach:
  • This approach, based on the theories of Freud and his followers, focuses on unconscious processes and past experiences, particularly from early childhood, as the root of current psychological issues.
  • While it is a significant and influential approach, it is not as widely used as the eclectic approach among clinical psychologists in the United States.
• Humanistic approach:
  • The humanistic approach emphasizes individual potential and the importance of growth and self-actualization. It focuses on the person's subjective experience and inherent goodness.
  • Although valuable, this approach is less commonly used compared to the eclectic approach.
• Client-centered approach:
  • Developed by Carl Rogers, this approach emphasizes the therapist's role in providing a supportive environment where clients can lead the process of self-discovery and healing.
  • While influential and widely respected, it does not match the widespread use of the eclectic approach among clinical psychologists in the United States.

The correct answer is 'difference threshold.'

Key Points

• Difference threshold:
  • The difference threshold, also known as the just noticeable difference (JND), is the minimum amount of change needed for a person to detect a difference in a sensory stimulus.
  • In the case of Mr. Kan, he adds salt to the soup until he can first detect that the soup tastes saltier, which directly relates to the concept of the difference threshold.
  • This threshold varies among individuals and can be influenced by factors such as the initial intensity of the stimulus and the individual's sensitivity.

Additional Information

• Absolute threshold:
  • The absolute threshold is the minimum amount of stimulation required for a person to detect a stimulus at least 50% of the time.
  • It refers to the point at which a stimulus goes from undetectable to detectable to our senses.
  • In Mr. Kan's scenario, the absolute threshold is not applicable because he is detecting a change in the existing stimulus (saltiness) rather than detecting a new stimulus.
• Perceptual set:
  • Perceptual set refers to a mental predisposition to perceive one thing and not another, influenced by expectations, experiences, and context.
  • While perceptual set can affect how Mr. Kan perceives the taste of his soup, it does not directly relate to the detection of a change in saltiness.
• Olfactory sensitivity:
  • Olfactory sensitivity is the ability to detect and differentiate odors.
  • Although it is related to the sense of smell, it is not directly relevant to Mr. Kan's task of detecting a change in the taste of saltiness in his soup.

The correct answer is 'violet'

Explanation

• Violet:
  • Violet light has the shortest wavelength in the visible spectrum, ranging from approximately 380 to 450 nanometers.
  • Because of its short wavelength, violet light has a higher frequency and more energy compared to other colors in the visible spectrum.
  • This high energy can cause violet light to be more easily scattered, which is why the sky appears blue as shorter wavelengths scatter more.

Other Related Points

• Green:
  • Green light has a wavelength range of about 495 to 570 nanometers, which is longer than violet light.
  • While green is within the visible spectrum, it does not have the shortest wavelength.
• Red:
  • Red light has the longest wavelength in the visible spectrum, ranging from approximately 620 to 750 nanometers.
  • Red light has the lowest frequency and energy compared to other colors in the visible spectrum.
• Orange:
  • Orange light has a wavelength range of about 590 to 620 nanometers, which is longer than both violet and green light.
  • While orange light is visible, it is not the shortest wavelength.

The correct answer is 'outliers.'
Key points

• Outliers:
  • Outliers are data points that differ significantly from other observations in the data set.
  • They are usually either much higher or much lower than the majority of the data.
  • In the given problem, the scores 47, 55, and 62 are much lower than the scores between 82 and 94, making them outliers.
  • Outliers can affect the overall analysis of the data, including measures of central tendency like the mean and median.

Other Related Points

• Modes:
  • The mode is the value that appears most frequently in a data set.
  • In this problem, there is no mention of any score being repeated multiple times, so identifying modes is not relevant.
• skewness:
  • Skewness refers to the asymmetry in the distribution of data.
  • While the presence of outliers can contribute to skewness, the term 'skewers' is not a standard statistical term for describing individual data points.
• Variances:
  • Variance measures the dispersion of data points around the mean.
  • It is not used to describe individual scores but rather the overall spread of the data set.

The correct answer is 'bottom-up processing.'

Key Points

• Bottom-up processing:
  • Bottom-up processing is a cognitive process that begins with the sensory input, where perception starts with the most basic level of sensory information.
  • It involves building up to a final representation through the integration of simple features.
  • In Olivia's case, she likely used bottom-up processing to recognize the cow by relying on the visual features of the cow (shape, color, size) rather than prior knowledge or expectations, as she had never seen a cow in her neighborhood before.

Additional Information

• Signal detection theory:
  • Signal detection theory explains how we detect signals under conditions of uncertainty, focusing on decision-making processes, which is not directly related to how Olivia recognized the cow.
• Perceptual set:
  • Perceptual set refers to a predisposition to perceive things in a certain way based on expectations and experiences, which Olivia likely did not have concerning a cow in her neighborhood.
• Difference threshold:
  • Difference threshold, or just noticeable difference (JND), refers to the minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection 50% of the time, which is irrelevant to the recognition of a single cow.

The correct answer is 'insulin'

Key Points

Hormones are chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands into the bloodstream, which then travel to target organs or tissues to regulate various physiological processes.

Analysis of each option:

A: Dopamine: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter, not a hormone. It is involved in transmitting signals in the brain and plays a role in reward, motivation, and motor control.

B: Endorphins: Endorphins are also neurotransmitters, not hormones. They are chemicals produced in the brain that act as natural painkillers and mood enhancers.

C: Insulin: Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas. It regulates blood sugar levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. This makes it a clear example of a hormone.

D: GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid): GABA is a neurotransmitter, not a hormone. It is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, reducing neuronal excitability.

The correct answer is 'somatic'.

Key Points

• Somatic nervous system:
  • The somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary movements and the control of skeletal muscles.
  • When Gonzo raised his hand to answer his teacher's question, he performed a voluntary action controlled by this part of the nervous system.
  • This system includes motor neurons that transmit signals from the brain to the muscles, facilitating movement.

Additional Information

• Parasympathetic nervous system:
  • This system is part of the autonomic nervous system and is responsible for rest and digest functions.
  • It helps to conserve energy and maintain a state of calm.
  • It is not involved in voluntary muscle movements such as raising a hand.
• Autonomic nervous system:
  • This system controls involuntary functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.
  • It operates independently of conscious control.
  • Raising a hand is a voluntary action, thus not controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
• Sympathetic nervous system:
  • This system is another part of the autonomic nervous system, responsible for the fight-or-flight response.
  • It prepares the body for stressful or emergency situations.
  • It does not control voluntary movements like raising a hand.

The correct answer is 'divergent thinking'

Key Points

• Divergent thinking:
  • Divergent thinking is a thought process or method used to generate creative ideas by exploring many possible solutions.It typically occurs in a spontaneous, free-flowing manner, where many creative ideas are generated in an emergent cognitive fashion.
  • Unlike convergent thinking, which involves following a set of logical steps to arrive at one solution, divergent thinking involves breaking away from traditional approaches to come up with new and innovative ideas.
  • This type of thinking is essential in creative processes, such as brainstorming, problem-solving, and artistic endeavors.

Additional Information

• Using algorithms:
  • Algorithms are step-by-step procedures or formulas for solving problems. They are typically used in convergent thinking, where the goal is to find a single, correct solution.
  • While algorithms are useful in many contexts, they are not typically associated with creativity, which often involves thinking outside the box and generating multiple possible solutions.
• Functional fixedness:
  • Functional fixedness is a cognitive bias that limits a person to using an object only in the way it is traditionally used.
  • This type of thinking can hinder creativity, as it prevents individuals from seeing alternative uses or solutions.
• Excellent recall ability:
  • Excellent recall ability refers to the capacity to remember information accurately and quickly.
  • While useful in many contexts, such as academic and professional settings, excellent recall ability is not directly related to creativity, which involves generating new ideas rather than recalling existing ones.

The correct answer is 'content validity.'

Explanation

• Content validity:
  • Content validity refers to the extent to which a test measures all aspects of the construct it is intended to assess.
  • If important topics within the domain (such as neuroscience in a psychology exam) are omitted, the test lacks content validity.
  • This type of validity ensures that the test covers the entire range of material it is supposed to cover, providing a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Other Related Points

• Construct validity:
  • Construct validity refers to whether a test accurately measures the theoretical construct it is intended to measure.
  • It involves demonstrating that the test truly assesses the concept it claims to measure.
• Predictive validity:
  • Predictive validity refers to the extent to which test scores accurately predict future performance or outcomes.
  • This type of validity is important for tests used for selection or placement purposes.
• Concurrent validity:
  • Concurrent validity involves comparing test results with outcomes measured at the same time to assess the accuracy of the test.
  • It is used to determine if the test correlates well with a currently accepted standard.

The correct answer is the overjustification effect.

Explanation

• Overjustification effect:
  • The overjustification effect occurs when an external incentive, such as a reward, decreases a person’s intrinsic motivation to perform a task that they already find enjoyable.
  • In this case, the students might have initially enjoyed reading, but the introduction of prizes for reading could have shifted their motivation from intrinsic (enjoying reading for its own sake) to extrinsic (reading for the sake of getting a prize).
  • As a result, once the external rewards are removed (i.e., when summer ends), the students’ interest in reading might decrease, leading to fewer books borrowed in the fall.

Other Related Points

• Social learning theory:
  • Social learning theory, proposed by Albert Bandura, suggests that people learn behaviors through the observation of others, imitation, and modeling. While this theory explains learning through social contexts, it does not directly address the decrease in reading due to external rewards.
• Premack principle:
  • The Premack principle states that a more preferred activity can be used as a reinforcer for a less preferred activity. Although this principle involves reinforcement, it does not explain the decrease in intrinsic motivation due to external rewards.
• Law of effect:
  • The law of effect, proposed by Edward Thorndike, posits that behaviors followed by pleasant outcomes are likely to be repeated, whereas behaviors followed by unpleasant outcomes are less likely to be repeated. This principle is more about the consequences of actions and does not specifically address the impact of external rewards on intrinsic motivation.

The correct answer is 'reaction formation'

Key Points

• Reaction Formation:
  • Reaction formation is a defense mechanism where a person unconsciously replaces an unacceptable or anxiety-provoking impulse with its opposite.
  • In Roscoe's case, he works for a nasty and abusive boss but tells everyone she is wonderful. This is a classic example of reaction formation, where his negative feelings about his boss are converted into exaggerated positive statements.
  • This mechanism helps Roscoe to manage his internal conflict and anxiety by adopting an attitude that is the opposite of his true feelings.

Additional Information

• Displacement:
  • Displacement involves shifting negative emotions or impulses from the original source to a safer target. For example, someone who is angry at their boss might go home and take it out on their family.
  • Roscoe's behavior does not fit this description as he is not redirecting his feelings to another target.
• Projection:
  • Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to others. For example, a person who is angry at someone might accuse that person of being angry at them.
  • Roscoe is not projecting his feelings onto others but rather expressing the opposite of his true feelings.
• Sublimation:
  • Sublimation is the process of channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. For instance, someone with aggressive tendencies might take up a sport like boxing.
  • Roscoe's behavior does not involve redirecting his feelings into a constructive activity but rather expressing the opposite of his true feelings.

The correct answer is 'cerebellum'

Key Points

• Cerebellum:
  • The cerebellum is a part of the brain located at the back of the skull, below the cerebrum and behind the brainstem.
  • It plays a critical role in motor control, including coordination, precision, and accurate timing of movements.
  • It is also involved in motor learning, such as learning how to tie your shoes or ride a bicycle, by fine-tuning motor activities and ensuring smooth execution of voluntary movements.

Additional Information

• Hippocampus:
  • The hippocampus is primarily associated with memory formation, specifically long-term memory and spatial navigation.
  • While it is crucial for creating new memories, it is not directly involved in storing procedural memories such as motor skills.
• Cerebral Cortex:
  • The cerebral cortex is responsible for higher brain functions such as sensory perception, cognition, and voluntary muscle control.
  • Though it plays a role in planning and initiating movements, it does not primarily store motor skills.
• Medulla:
  • The medulla is part of the brainstem and is responsible for autonomic functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure regulation.
  • It does not play a significant role in motor skill learning or storage.

The correct answer is 'parasympathetic'.

Key Points

• General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS):
  • GAS, developed by Hans Selye, describes the body's short-term and long-term reactions to stress.
  • It consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
• Exhaustion Stage:
  • In this final stage, the body's ability to resist stress is depleted.
  • Energy resources are exhausted, leading to a decrease in stress tolerance, and the risk of burnout, illness, or even death increases.
• Parasympathetic Nervous System:
  • The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for conserving energy and facilitating recovery.
  • It is most active during the exhaustion stage, helping the body to return to a state of rest and repair.
  • Functions include slowing the heart rate, increasing intestinal and gland activity, and relaxing sphincter muscles.

Additional Information

• Somatic Nervous System:
  • Controls voluntary movements of skeletal muscles.
  • Not directly involved in the stress response stages of GAS.
• Peripheral Nervous System:
  • Includes all nerves outside the brain and spinal cord.
  • Comprises both the somatic and autonomic nervous systems but is not specifically active in the exhaustion stage.
  • Sympathetic Nervous System:
    • Primarily active during the alarm stage of GAS, initiating the "fight or flight" response.
    • Increases heart rate, dilates pupils, and mobilizes energy reserves.

The correct answer is 'capacity of sensory memory.'

Explanation

• Capacity of sensory memory:
  • Sperling's partial report technique was designed to measure the capacity of sensory memory, particularly the iconic memory (visual sensory memory).
  • In this technique, participants are briefly shown a grid of letters and are later asked to recall a subset of those letters, based on a cue.
  • The results showed that sensory memory can hold a large amount of information, but this information decays rapidly if not attended to.
  • This technique demonstrated that participants could recall more letters when cued to remember a specific row, indicating a large capacity for sensory memory.

Other Related Points

• Serial position effect:
  • This effect relates to the tendency of a person to recall the first and last items in a series best, and the middle items worst.
  • It is not directly related to Sperling's partial report technique which focuses on sensory memory capacity.
• Duration of working memory:
  • Working memory refers to the system responsible for temporarily holding and processing information.
  • Sperling's technique does not measure the duration of working memory, but rather the capacity of sensory memory.
• Difference between STM and LTM:
  • Short-term memory (STM) and long-term memory (LTM) are different stages of memory storage.
  • Sperling's partial report technique does not focus on the differences between STM and LTM, but on the capacity of sensory memory.

The correct answer is 'a developmental psychologist explores how children’s use of language changes as they age'

Key Points

• Basic Research:
  • Basic research, also known as pure or fundamental research, aims to increase our understanding of fundamental principles.
  • It is primarily concerned with the advancement of knowledge rather than solving practical problems.
  • In this context, studying how children’s use of language evolves as they grow older is a classic example of basic research. The goal is to gain insights into language development without any immediate application in mind.

Additional Information

• Other Options:
  • Option 1: Testing two different methods of teaching reading involves applied research, which seeks to solve practical problems and improve teaching practices.
  • Option 2: Investigating the effectiveness of a new therapeutic approach for treating phobias is another example of applied research, aimed at finding practical solutions for mental health issues.
  • Option 3: Commissioning a poll to measure the popularity of a candidate’s stance on issues is market research, which is oriented towards understanding public opinion for strategic purposes.

The correct answer is 'Down syndrome'

Key Points

• Down syndrome:
  • Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, also known as trisomy 21.
  • This extra chromosome affects the development of the body and brain, leading to physical growth delays, characteristic facial features, and mild to moderate intellectual disability.
  • It is one of the most common chromosomal conditions diagnosed in the United States.

Additional Information

• Alzheimer’s disease:
  • Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurological disorder that leads to memory loss and cognitive decline.
  • It is not caused by an extra chromosome but is associated with the accumulation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain.
• Tay-Sachs disease:
  • Tay-Sachs disease is a rare inherited disorder that destroys nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord.
  • It is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase A, not by an extra chromosome.
• Klinefelter’s syndrome:
  • Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic condition affecting males, characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome (47,XXY).
  • It is associated with symptoms such as reduced muscle mass, facial hair, and body hair, as well as infertility.

The correct answer is 'during young adulthood'

Key Points

• Typical age of onset for schizophrenia:
  • Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder characterized by disruptions in thought processes, perceptions, emotional responsiveness, and social interactions.
  • The onset of schizophrenia typically occurs during young adulthood, which is generally between the late teens and early 30s.
  • This period is critical as it often coincides with significant life transitions, such as completing education, starting a career, or forming long-term relationships.

Additional Information

• At birth:
  • Schizophrenia is not present at birth. While genetic factors can contribute to the risk of developing the disorder, symptoms typically do not manifest until later in life.
• During childhood:
  • Childhood-onset schizophrenia is rare and accounts for a very small percentage of cases. Symptoms in children can be more difficult to diagnose and may differ from those in adults.
• During middle age:
  • It is uncommon for schizophrenia to first appear during middle age. Most individuals with the disorder will have shown symptoms much earlier.

The correct answer is 'dissociative identity disorder.'

Key Points

• Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID):
  • DID is a mental health condition where a person has two or more distinct personalities or identity states, each with its own pattern of perceiving and interacting with the world.
  • Individuals with DID may experience gaps in memory, often with significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
  • The case of Calinda, who alternates between different identities like Meelo and Curtis, and exhibits behavior changes like going on spending sprees, is typical of DID.

Additional Information

• Conversion Disorder:
  • Conversion disorder involves neurological symptoms that cannot be explained by medical or neurological conditions, often triggered by psychological stress.
  • Symptoms may include paralysis, tremors, or difficulty swallowing, rather than changes in identity.
• Schizophrenia:
  • Schizophrenia is a severe mental disorder characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and impaired cognitive abilities.
  • It does not typically involve the presence of multiple distinct identities.
• Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD):
  • PTSD is a disorder that can develop after exposure to a traumatic event, characterized by symptoms like flashbacks, severe anxiety, and uncontrollable thoughts about the event.
  • PTSD does not involve the presence of multiple distinct identities.

A negative correlation between hours meditating and stress levels means that as one variable increases, the other decreases. However, correlation does not imply causation. The findings only indicate an association, not the direction of causality.

A is incorrect because it overstates the correlation as a guarantee ("will not experience any stress"), which is unsupported.

B is incorrect because it reverses the relationship (negative correlation ≠ higher stress with more meditation).

C is incorrect because it assumes causation ("meditation lowers stress"), which cannot be concluded from correlational data alone.

D is correct because it accurately restates the observed relationship: lower stress levels are associated with more meditation, without assuming causation.

Conclusion: The correlation supports a descriptive association (Option D), not a causal claim (Option C).

The correct answer is 'valid'

Key Points

• Validity of an intelligence test:
  • Validity refers to how well a test measures what it is intended to measure. If renowned individuals like Marie Curie, James Madison, and Mahatma Gandhi scored poorly on an intelligence test, it would raise questions about the test's ability to accurately assess intelligence.
  • A valid intelligence test should be able to accurately reflect the cognitive abilities of individuals, regardless of their background or achievements.
  • Inconsistent or questionable scores from individuals known for their high intelligence would indicate that the test may not be valid.

Additional Information

• Projective tests:
  • Projective tests are designed to reveal hidden emotions and internal conflicts by analyzing responses to ambiguous stimuli, such as inkblots or pictures.
  • These tests are not typically used to measure intelligence, but rather to gain insights into an individual’s personality and emotional functioning.
• Standardization:
  • Standardization ensures that a test is administered and scored in a consistent, or "standard," manner across different individuals and settings.
  • While standardization is important for fairness and consistency, it does not directly address whether the test accurately measures intelligence.
• Norming:
  • Norming involves establishing norms or average scores for a test based on the performance of a representative sample of individuals.
  • This process helps to interpret an individual's test score by comparing it to the scores of others.
  • However, like standardization, norming does not ensure that a test is measuring what it is intended to measure (i.e., its validity).

The correct answer is 'Moro Reflex'.

Key Points

• Moro Reflex:
  • The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is a primitive reflex found in newborns.
  • It is typically elicited by a sudden noise or touch, causing the baby to flail their arms and legs outward and then quickly retract them.
  • This reflex is an important indicator of a newborn's neurological development and usually disappears around 4 to 6 months of age.

Additional Information

• Babinski Reflex:
  • This reflex occurs when the sole of a baby's foot is stroked, causing the big toe to move upward and the other toes to fan out.
  • It is a normal finding in infants up to 2 years old and signifies proper neurological development.
• Plantar Reflex:
  • This reflex is similar to the Babinski reflex but occurs later in development, usually after 2 years of age.
  • In the plantar reflex, the toes curl downward when the sole of the foot is stroked.
• Rooting Reflex:
  • This reflex helps a newborn find the nipple for feeding.
  • When the baby’s cheek is stroked, they will turn their head toward the stimulus and make sucking motions.

The correct answer is '2, 98th'

Key Points

• Understanding z scores and percentiles:
  • A z score is a measure that describes a value's position within a distribution in terms of standard deviations from the mean.
  • The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) is standardized with a mean score of 100 and a standard deviation of 15.
  • A score of 130 on the WISC is 2 standard deviations above the mean (z score = 2).
  • This z score corresponds to the 98th percentile, meaning Banu scored higher than approximately 98% of individuals in the standardization sample.

Additional Information

• Understanding the other options:
  • −2, 2nd:
    • This would mean the score is 2 standard deviations below the mean, corresponding to the 2nd percentile, which is incorrect for a score of 130.
  • 0, 50th:
    • A z score of 0 corresponds to the mean (100 on the WISC) and the 50th percentile, which is incorrect for a score of 130.
  • 2, 90th:
    • A z score of 2 corresponds to the 98th percentile, not the 90th percentile, so this option is partially correct but not entirely accurate.

The correct answer is 'the rats whose progress improved markedly once a reward was introduced.'

Key Points

• Tolman’s experiment on latent learning:
  • Latent learning is a form of learning that is not immediately expressed in an overt response; it occurs without any obvious reinforcement of the behavior or associations that are learned.
  • In Tolman’s experiment, rats were allowed to explore a maze without any reward. Their performance was monitored to observe learning behavior.
  • The introduction of a reward after several trials showed a marked improvement in the rats' performance, indicating they had learned the layout of the maze without the presence of a reward.

Additional Information

• The rats whose performance declined steadily throughout the trials:
  • Declining performance would suggest a lack of learning or a negative impact on learning, which is contrary to the findings of Tolman's experiment.
• The rats whose progress improved steadily throughout the trials:
  • This suggests that learning was happening gradually, but it does not emphasize the concept of latent learning, where learning occurs without immediate performance improvement.
  • The rats whose progress declined markedly once a reward was introduced:
    • Marked decline in performance after introducing a reward would indicate a negative reaction to the reward, which is not supported by Tolman’s findings.

The correct answer is 'continuous reinforcement.'

Key Points

• Continuous reinforcement:
  • Continuous reinforcement involves providing a reward every time the desired behavior occurs.
  • This schedule is particularly effective during the initial stages of learning a new skill, as it helps to establish the behavior quickly.
  • For Zach’s parents, who are learning to program the DVR for the first time, continuous reinforcement will provide immediate feedback and encouragement, making it easier for them to understand and remember the steps involved.

Additional Information

• Fixed ratio:
  • In a fixed ratio schedule, reinforcement is provided after a set number of responses. While effective for maintaining behavior, it is less suitable for initial learning compared to continuous reinforcement.
• Fixed interval:
  • With a fixed interval schedule, reinforcement is given after a fixed amount of time has passed, regardless of how many times the behavior occurs. This can lead to slower learning of new skills.
• Variable ratio:
  • Variable ratio reinforcement is provided after an unpredictable number of responses. This schedule is highly effective for maintaining behavior but can be confusing and less effective for initial learning.

The correct answer is 'The mean is higher than the median.'

A positively skewed distribution occurs when the tail of the distribution extends to the right (toward higher values), and the majority of the data points are concentrated on the left side. This type of distribution has the following characteristics:

1. Mean > Median > Mode :

   • In a positively skewed distribution, the mean is pulled toward the tail (higher values) because it is sensitive to extreme scores.
   • The median is less affected by extreme scores and typically lies closer to the center of the distribution.
   • The mode is the most frequent score and is located at the peak of the distribution, which is on the left side.

2. Shape of the Distribution :

   • There are more low scores than high scores, as the bulk of the data is concentrated on the left, with fewer extreme high scores extending the right tail.

Analysis of Each Option:

A: The mean is higher than the median.

• This is correct. In a positively skewed distribution, the mean is greater than the median due to the influence of the extreme high scores in the tail.

B: The mode is higher than the median but lower than the mean.

• This is incorrect. In a positively skewed distribution, the mode is the lowest value, followed by the median, and then the mean.

C: There are more high scores than low scores.

• This is incorrect. In a positively skewed distribution, there are more low scores than high scores, as the data is concentrated on the left side.

D: The mode is lower than the median but higher than the mean.

• This is incorrect. The mode is the lowest value in a positively skewed distribution, followed by the median and then the mean.

The correct answer is 'for esteem.'

Key Points

• Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs:
  • Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is a psychological theory that categorizes human needs into five levels, from basic to more complex needs.
  • The hierarchy includes: physiological needs, safety needs, love and belonging needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs.
• Esteem Needs:
  • Esteem needs are the fourth level in Maslow's hierarchy.
  • They include the need for self-esteem, respect, recognition, and achievement.
  • In Kelsey's case, her struggle to make a name for herself in Hollywood and her desire for more significant roles indicate she is striving for recognition and respect in her profession.

Additional Information

• Other Needs in Maslow's Hierarchy:
  • Physiological Needs: Basic survival needs like food, water, and shelter. Kelsey has already met these needs since she can support herself.
  • Safety Needs: Security, stability, and freedom from fear. Kelsey's ability to support herself indicates that her safety needs are met.
  • Love and Belonging Needs: Social relationships, love, and belonging. Kelsey has many friends, indicating that her social needs are fulfilled.
  • Self-Actualization Needs: Realizing personal potential, self-fulfillment, and seeking personal growth. Kelsey is still working towards achieving more significant roles, which indicates she is not yet at this stage.

The correct answer is ‘authoritarian’

Key Points

• Authoritarian parenting style:
  • Authoritarian parents are highly demanding and directive, but not responsive.
  • They impose strict rules, expect obedience, and use punitive measures to control their children’s behavior.
  • There is little to no room for open dialogue or explanation of rules and consequences.
  • In the case of Leo, his parents' decision to punish him harshly without allowing him to explain his situation is indicative of an authoritarian approach.

Additional Information

• Authoritative parenting style:
  • Authoritative parents are both demanding and responsive.
  • They set clear rules and expectations but also encourage open communication and provide reasons for rules.
  • This style is characterized by a balance of firmness and warmth, which is not evident in Leo’s situation.
• Indulgent parenting style:
  • Indulgent parents are highly responsive but not demanding.
  • They are lenient, do not require mature behavior, and avoid confrontation.
  • This style is more permissive and lenient, which contrasts with the strict punishment given to Leo.
• Neglectful parenting style:
  • Neglectful parents are neither demanding nor responsive.
  • They are disengaged, uninvolved, and indifferent to their children’s needs.
  • This style involves a lack of attention and support, which is not consistent with the disciplinary action taken by Leo’s parents.

The correct answer is 'synapse'.

Key Points

• Synapse:
  • A synapse is the junction between two neurons, where the terminal buttons of one neuron come close to the dendrites of another neuron.
  • This space allows for the transmission of signals through neurotransmitters, which are chemical messengers that cross the synaptic gap.
  • Synapses are crucial for the communication between neurons, enabling the nervous system to function effectively.

Additional Information

• Node of Ranvier:
  • These are gaps in the myelin sheath of a neuron's axon which facilitate rapid conduction of nerve impulses.
  • Nodes of Ranvier are not involved in the synaptic transmission between neurons.
• Axon:
  • The axon is a long, slender projection of a neuron that conducts electrical impulses away from the neuron's cell body.
  • While the axon plays a crucial role in transmitting signals within a neuron, it is not the space between neurons.
• Medulla:
  • The medulla is a part of the brainstem that controls vital bodily functions such as heart rate and breathing.
  • It is not related to the synaptic space between neurons.