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Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - SSC CHSL MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test General Knowledge - Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5

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Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 1

India's first nuclear blast at Pokhran in Rajasthan took place in

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 1
India's first nuclear blast at Pokhran in Rajasthan took place in 1974.
Explanation:
- The first nuclear blast conducted by India was carried out at Pokhran, a desert region in the state of Rajasthan.
- The operation was named "Smiling Buddha" and it took place on May 18, 1974.
- This nuclear test made India the sixth country in the world to have nuclear weapons capability.
- The test was a peaceful nuclear explosion, and its primary purpose was to demonstrate India's scientific and technological capabilities.
- The yield of the explosion was reported to be around 8-12 kilotons of TNT equivalent.
- The test was conducted underground to minimize the release of radioactive material into the atmosphere.
- The successful test at Pokhran gave a significant boost to India's nuclear program and paved the way for further advancements in the field of nuclear technology.
- It also led to international criticism and raised concerns about nuclear proliferation in the region.
- The 1974 Pokhran test laid the foundation for subsequent nuclear tests conducted by India, including the series of tests in 1998.
Overall, the first nuclear blast at Pokhran in Rajasthan took place in 1974, marking a significant milestone in India's nuclear program.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 2

How many players are there on each side in the game of Basketball?

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 2
The game of Basketball:
- Basketball is a team sport that is played between two teams.
- The objective of the game is to score points by shooting the ball through the opponent's hoop.
- Each team tries to prevent the other team from scoring while also attempting to score themselves.
Number of players:
- Each team in the game of basketball has a specific number of players on the court at a time.
- The number of players on each side is crucial for the game's dynamics, strategy, and overall gameplay.
Answer:
- In the game of basketball, there are 5 players on each side.
- This means that each team consists of 5 players actively participating in the game.
Reasoning:
- The standard format of basketball, as played in professional leagues and most organized competitions, follows the 5-on-5 player format.
- This format has become the norm due to its balance between individual skill, team coordination, and strategic gameplay.
- The 5-player format ensures that the court is evenly distributed, allowing for various offensive and defensive strategies to be implemented.
Conclusion:
- In summary, there are 5 players on each side in the game of basketball.
- This number of players on the court contributes to the fast-paced and dynamic nature of the sport, allowing for teamwork, skills, and strategy to come into play.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 3

In a normal human being, how much time does food take to reach the end of the intestine for complete absorption?

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 3

In a normal human being, food take about 12 hours to reach the end of the intestine for complete absorption. Food then enters your large intestine (colon) for further digestion, absorption of water and, finally, elimination of undigested food.

Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 4

In certain diseases antibiotics are administered. The object is

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 4
The Purpose of Administering Antibiotics in Certain Diseases
Antibiotics are commonly administered in certain diseases to combat bacterial infections. The purpose of administering antibiotics is to inhibit the growth of bacteria and eliminate the infection. Here is a detailed explanation of why antibiotics are used in certain diseases:
1. Inhibiting Bacterial Growth
- Antibiotics are medications that are specifically designed to target and kill bacteria or inhibit their growth.
- Bacteria can cause various infections, such as urinary tract infections, respiratory infections, skin infections, and more.
- By inhibiting bacterial growth, antibiotics help to control and eliminate the infection.
2. Targeting Specific Bacteria
- Different antibiotics are effective against specific types of bacteria.
- Doctors prescribe antibiotics based on the type of infection and the bacteria causing it.
- This targeted approach ensures that the antibiotics are effective in fighting the specific bacteria responsible for the infection.
3. Preventing Bacterial Spread
- Bacterial infections have the potential to spread and cause further complications.
- By administering antibiotics, the growth and spread of bacteria can be stopped or slowed down.
- This helps prevent the infection from spreading to other parts of the body or from person to person.
4. Promoting Healing
- By eliminating the bacterial infection, antibiotics allow the body to focus on healing and recovery.
- Bacterial infections can cause inflammation, pain, and other symptoms that hinder the healing process.
- Antibiotics help to alleviate these symptoms and promote faster healing.
5. Combating Drug-Resistant Bacteria
- In recent years, antibiotic resistance has become a significant concern.
- Some bacteria have developed resistance to commonly used antibiotics, making them less effective.
- However, new antibiotics are continuously being developed to combat drug-resistant bacteria and provide alternative treatment options.
In conclusion, the primary purpose of administering antibiotics in certain diseases is to inhibit the growth of bacteria and eliminate the infection. Antibiotics play a crucial role in fighting bacterial infections, preventing their spread, promoting healing, and combating drug-resistant bacteria. It is important to note that antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, as they only target bacteria.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 5

In cricket, the two sets of wickets are

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 5
The sets of wickets in cricket are 22 yards apart.
Explanation:
- In cricket, wickets are the wooden structures that the batsmen defend and the bowlers aim to hit to dismiss the batsmen.
- There are always two sets of wickets on the cricket pitch, one at each end.
- The distance between the two sets of wickets is known as the pitch length.
- The pitch length is internationally standardized at 22 yards or 20.12 meters.
- This distance is measured from the middle of one set of wickets to the middle of the other set of wickets.
- The 22-yard pitch is the same for all formats of the game, including Test matches, One Day Internationals (ODIs), and Twenty20 (T20) matches.
- The pitch length is an essential factor in determining the length of the game and the strategy of both the batting and bowling teams.
- It allows for fair competition between the batsmen and bowlers and ensures a balanced contest between bat and ball.
- The wickets themselves consist of three vertical stumps, topped by two bails, which are small wooden pieces that sit on top of the stumps.
- The objective for the bowler is to hit the wickets and dislodge the bails, while the batsman aims to protect the wickets and score runs by hitting the ball.
- The batsman is considered out if the ball hits the wickets and dislodges the bails, or if the wicketkeeper catches the ball after it hits the bat without bouncing on the ground.
Therefore, the two sets of wickets in cricket are 22 yards apart.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 6

India's first indigenous helicopter was successfully flown in Bangalore on

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 6
India's first indigenous helicopter was successfully flown in Bangalore on August 30, 1992.
The correct answer is option A: August 30, 1992. Here is a detailed explanation:
Background:
- India had been dependent on foreign countries for its helicopter requirements until the development of its first indigenous helicopter.
- The project to develop an indigenous helicopter started in the 1970s.
Development:
- The Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), a state-owned aerospace and defense company, was responsible for developing the helicopter.
- The project was named the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) program.
Features of the ALH:
- The ALH is a multi-role helicopter designed for both civil and military operations.
- It has a seating capacity of 12 passengers.
- The helicopter is powered by two engines and has a maximum speed of 278 km/h.
- It can operate at altitudes up to 6,500 meters.
Successful Flight:
- After years of research, development, and testing, the first prototype of the ALH, named "TD-1," was successfully flown in Bangalore on August 30, 1992.
- The successful flight marked a significant milestone for India's aerospace industry and showcased the country's capabilities in helicopter development.
Further Developments:
- Following the successful flight of the TD-1, more prototypes were developed and tested.
- The ALH program continued to evolve, leading to the development of variants like the ALH Mk II, which is equipped with advanced avionics and systems.
Impact:
- The development of the ALH has reduced India's dependence on foreign helicopters and has boosted the country's defense capabilities.
- It has also contributed to the growth of the domestic aerospace industry and has opened up opportunities for collaborations and exports.
In conclusion, India's first indigenous helicopter, the ALH, was successfully flown in Bangalore on August 30, 1992. This achievement marked a significant milestone in India's aerospace industry and has had a positive impact on the country's defense capabilities and domestic aerospace sector.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 7

In which of the followings places was the last Winter Olympics Games held?

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 7
Last Winter Olympics Games
The last Winter Olympics Games were held in Sochi, Russia. Here is a detailed explanation of the answer:
Introduction:
The Winter Olympics is a major international multi-sport event held every four years. It features various winter sports disciplines and attracts athletes from around the world. The location of each Winter Olympics Games changes, and the most recent edition was held in Sochi, Russia.
Detailed Explanation:
Here are the key points regarding the last Winter Olympics Games:
1. Location:
- The last Winter Olympics Games were held in Sochi, Russia.
- Sochi is a city located on the Black Sea coast of Russia.
- It is known for its beautiful beaches and mountains, making it a suitable location for hosting winter sports events.
2. Year of the Games:
- The last Winter Olympics Games in Sochi took place in 2014.
- The event lasted for 17 days, from February 7 to February 23.
3. Sports and Athletes:
- The Winter Olympics Games feature a wide range of winter sports, including skiing, snowboarding, ice hockey, figure skating, and more.
- Athletes from various countries participate in these events, showcasing their skills and competing for medals.
4. Infrastructure and Facilities:
- Sochi made significant investments in infrastructure and facilities to host the Winter Olympics Games.
- New stadiums, ice rinks, and ski resorts were built to accommodate the athletes and spectators.
- The event left a lasting legacy, as these facilities continue to be used for various international sporting events.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the last Winter Olympics Games were held in Sochi, Russia, in 2014. It was a successful event that showcased the talents of athletes from around the world. Sochi's beautiful location and well-developed infrastructure made it an excellent choice for hosting the Games.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 8

Hundred year war was fought between

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 8
The Hundred Year War was fought between France and England.
Explanation:
The Hundred Year War was a conflict that took place between 1337 and 1453. It was a series of wars and conflicts fought between the Kingdom of England and the Kingdom of France. Here is a detailed explanation of the war:
Causes:
- Dispute over the succession to the French throne: The war began due to a dispute over the succession to the French throne, with both England and France having claims to the throne.
- English territorial claims in France: England had significant territorial holdings in France, including the region of Aquitaine, which they wanted to maintain control over.
- Economic and trade disputes: There were also economic and trade disputes between the two countries, which further fueled the conflict.
Key events:
- Battle of Crécy (1346): The first major battle of the war, where the English army, led by Edward III, achieved a decisive victory over the French forces.
- Battle of Agincourt (1415): Another significant battle, where the English, led by Henry V, defeated a much larger French army.
- Siege of Orléans (1428-1429): This siege marked a turning point in the war, as the French forces, led by Joan of Arc, successfully defended the city against the English.
Outcomes:
- English territorial losses: Over the course of the war, England gradually lost most of its territories in France, ultimately retaining only the port city of Calais.
- Strengthening of the French monarchy: The war played a crucial role in consolidating the power of the French monarchy, as the conflict helped to centralize authority under the French kings.
- Development of new military tactics: The war also witnessed the development of new military tactics and technologies, such as the use of longbows and cannon artillery.
Overall, the Hundred Year War was a significant conflict in European history, with far-reaching consequences for both France and England. It shaped the political, social, and military landscape of the two nations for centuries to come.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 9

In which of the following pairs, the two substances forming the pair are chemically most dissimilar?

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 9

In Butter and paraffin wax, the two substances forming the pair are chemically most dissimilar. Butter is an unsaturated compound or an olefin in contrast to wax which is a saturated compound. So butter will show more reactivity for reactants. As such, they show different chemical nature.

Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 10

India's Integrated Missiles Development Programme was started in ____ under the chairmanship of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 10
India's Integrated Missiles Development Programme:
The Integrated Missiles Development Programme in India was initiated under the chairmanship of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. This program played a crucial role in the development of missile technology in the country. To determine the year in which the program was started, we need to consider the options given:
A: 1979-80
B: 1980-81
C: 1981-82
D: 1982-83
To find the correct answer, we need to look for information regarding the program's start date and Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam's involvement. Here's a breakdown of the solution:
1. Research on the Integrated Missiles Development Programme:
- Look for credible sources such as government reports, academic articles, or books that discuss the program's history.
- Focus on sources that provide information about the program's origin and Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam's role.
2. Identify the correct start date:
- Look for information that directly states the year in which the program was launched.
- Pay attention to details that mention Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam's involvement as the program's chairman.
3. Cross-reference the options with the obtained information:
- Compare the options provided (A, B, C, D) with the information gathered.
- Eliminate options that do not align with the obtained information.
4. Determine the correct answer:
- Select the option that matches the information gathered during the research.
- In this case, the correct answer is option D: 1982-83, as it aligns with the information about the start of the program under Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam's chairmanship.
Remember to always verify the information from multiple sources before finalizing the answer.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 11

INS Agrani (Petty Officers' School) is situated at

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 11
INS Agrani (Petty Officers' School) is situated at:
- Mumbai: This option is incorrect. INS Agrani is not situated in Mumbai.
- Jamnagar: This option is incorrect. INS Agrani is not situated in Jamnagar.
- Coimbatore: This option is correct. INS Agrani (Petty Officers' School) is situated in Coimbatore.
- Lonavla: This option is incorrect. INS Agrani is not situated in Lonavla.
Explanation:
INS Agrani (Petty Officers' School) is a training establishment of the Indian Navy. It is located in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu. The school provides training to the petty officers of the Indian Navy, who are responsible for various roles and responsibilities on naval ships and establishments.
Coimbatore is a major city in Tamil Nadu and is well-connected with other parts of the country. The city is known for its educational institutions and training centers. INS Agrani offers a comprehensive training program to the petty officers, focusing on enhancing their skills, knowledge, and operational readiness.
The location of INS Agrani in Coimbatore provides easy access to the necessary infrastructure and resources required for effective training. The city's favorable climate and proximity to the coast make it an ideal location for naval training activities.
In conclusion, INS Agrani (Petty Officers' School) is situated in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 12

Hybridization is

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 12
Hybridization is:
- Introduction: Hybridization refers to the process of cross-fertilization between two different varieties or species. It involves the combination of genetic traits from two parent organisms to create offspring with new and desirable characteristics.
- Explanation: Hybridization is a common practice in plant breeding and genetics to improve the qualities of crops and other plants. It allows breeders to create plants with specific traits, such as disease resistance, increased yield, or improved quality.
- Benefits of hybridization: Hybridization offers several advantages in agriculture and horticulture:
- Increased crop yield: Hybrid plants often exhibit hybrid vigor, resulting in higher yields compared to their parent varieties.
- Disease resistance: By crossing different varieties, breeders can introduce resistance to various diseases, pests, and environmental stresses.
- Enhanced quality: Hybridization can improve the quality of fruits, vegetables, and flowers, such as color, size, flavor, and shelf life.
- The process of hybridization: Hybridization involves controlled pollination between two parent plants with desired traits. The male gametes (pollen) of one parent are transferred to the female reproductive organs (pistil) of the other parent. This results in the production of hybrid seeds, which give rise to the next generation of plants with combined traits from both parents.
- Importance in breeding: Hybridization plays a crucial role in plant breeding programs to develop new varieties that meet the demands of farmers, consumers, and the market. It allows breeders to introduce desirable traits while maintaining genetic diversity and promoting crop improvement.
- Examples of hybrid plants: Some common examples of hybrid plants include hybrid corn, hybrid tomatoes, hybrid roses, and hybrid orchids. These plants exhibit improved characteristics compared to their parent varieties and are widely cultivated in agriculture and horticulture.
- Conclusion: Hybridization is a valuable tool in plant breeding and genetics that enables the creation of new plant varieties with improved traits. It plays a significant role in enhancing crop yield, disease resistance, and overall quality. By harnessing the power of hybridization, breeders can contribute to sustainable agriculture and meet the growing demand for food and other agricultural products.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 13

In which world cup cricket final, Australia beat England?

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 13
Answer:
World Cup Cricket Final
In the world of cricket, the World Cup final is the pinnacle of the sport. It is the ultimate showdown between two top teams where they battle it out for the prestigious title. Australia and England have faced each other in several World Cup finals, but the one where Australia emerged victorious was in:
1987, Kolkata - India
Below are the details of the World Cup Cricket final where Australia beat England:
Background:
- The 1987 Cricket World Cup was the fourth edition of the tournament.
- It was co-hosted by India and Pakistan.
- The final was held at the Eden Gardens in Kolkata, India.
The Match:
- Australia won the toss and elected to bat first.
- The Australian team, led by Allan Border, put up a formidable total of 253 runs for the loss of 5 wickets in their allotted 50 overs.
- David Boon was the top scorer for Australia with a well-compiled innings of 75 runs.
- England's bowling attack struggled to contain the Australian batsmen.
England's Innings:
- In pursuit of the target, England got off to a shaky start, losing early wickets.
- Despite a fighting innings from captain Mike Gatting, who scored 41 runs, England could not sustain the required run rate.
- England's innings folded for 246 runs in 47.2 overs, falling short of the target by 7 runs.
Australia's Victory:
- Australia's victory in the 1987 World Cup final marked their first-ever World Cup win.
- David Boon's crucial innings and the disciplined bowling performance by the Australian bowlers played a significant role in securing the victory.
- Australia won the match by 7 runs and were crowned the champions of the 1987 Cricket World Cup.
In Conclusion:
- The World Cup final between Australia and England in 1987, held at Kolkata, India, saw Australia emerge as the winners.
- It was a closely contested match, with Australia winning by a margin of 7 runs.
- This victory marked Australia's first-ever World Cup triumph and solidified their status as a cricketing powerhouse.
Note: It is worth mentioning that the options provided in the question are incorrect, as none of them accurately represents the World Cup final where Australia beat England.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 14

India is the ____ grower of pulses.

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 14
India is the largest grower of pulses.

  • India is the largest producer of pulses globally, accounting for approximately 25% of the total global production.

  • Pulses are a major source of protein and essential nutrients in the Indian diet, making them a crucial part of the country's food security.

  • India has a favorable climate and diverse agro-ecological regions, which contribute to its ability to cultivate a wide variety of pulses.

  • The major pulses grown in India include chickpeas, lentils, pigeon peas, and mung beans.

  • States like Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan are the leading producers of pulses in India.

  • The government of India has implemented various initiatives and schemes to promote pulse cultivation, such as the National Food Security Mission and the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana.

  • Despite being the largest grower, India still faces challenges in meeting the domestic demand for pulses, leading to imports from other countries.

  • Efforts are being made to increase the productivity and production of pulses through research and development, technology adoption, and farmer training programs.


Conclusion:
India holds the title of being the largest grower of pulses globally, but there is still a need to enhance production to meet the national demand and reduce reliance on imports.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 15

In cricket, a run taken when the ball passes the batsman without touching his bat or body is called

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 15
Explanation:
In cricket, when a run is scored without the batsman touching the ball with his bat or body, it is called a "bye." Here is a detailed explanation of this term:
Definition:
A bye is a run scored by the batting team when the ball passes the batsman without touching his bat or body and is not wide or no ball.
Key Points:
- Byes are considered as extras in cricket, along with leg byes, wides, and no balls.
- Byes are awarded to the batting team and are added to their total score.
- Byes can be scored when the wicket-keeper fails to catch the ball or misses a stumping opportunity, and the batsmen are able to complete a run before the ball is collected by the fielding team.
- The number of byes scored depends on the rules of the game and the discretion of the umpire.
- Byes are often seen as a way for the batting team to capitalize on the mistakes or missed opportunities of the fielding team.
- Byes are denoted by the symbol "b" in the scorecard next to the total number of extras.
- Byes can be crucial in close matches as they contribute towards the team's overall score.
Therefore, in cricket, a run taken when the ball passes the batsman without touching his bat or body is called a "bye."
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 16

How many non-permanent Security Council (UNO) members are from Afro-Asian countries?

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 16
Number of non-permanent Security Council members from Afro-Asian countries:
There are five non-permanent seats in the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) that are allocated to different regions of the world. Afro-Asian countries refer to the countries in Africa and Asia.
Explanation:
The non-permanent members of the UNSC are elected by the General Assembly for a two-year term. The specific number of seats allocated to each region can vary based on the distribution formula agreed upon by member states. However, historically, Afro-Asian countries have been allocated a certain number of seats.
To determine the number of non-permanent Security Council members from Afro-Asian countries, we need to consider the following points:
1. Seats allocated to Africa: Historically, Africa has been allocated three seats in the UNSC. These seats are distributed among African countries through regional groups such as the African Union (AU) and the Group of African States.
2. Seats allocated to Asia: Asia has been allocated two seats in the UNSC. These seats are distributed among Asian countries through regional groups such as the Group of Asian States.
Therefore, the total number of non-permanent Security Council members from Afro-Asian countries is the sum of the seats allocated to Africa and Asia, which is 3 + 2 = 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option A: 5.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 17

Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research, established in 1971, is located at

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 17
Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR)
Located at: Kalpakkam, Chennai
Establishment
- IGCAR was established in 1971.
- It is a premier research institution dedicated to nuclear science and technology.
Location
- IGCAR is situated in Kalpakkam, which is a coastal town in Chennai.
- Kalpakkam is located in the state of Tamil Nadu, India.
Research Areas
- IGCAR focuses on various areas related to atomic research, including:
- Reactor Physics
- Nuclear Fuel Cycle
- Materials Science
- Radiation Safety
- Environmental Science
- Applications of Radioisotopes
- Nuclear Chemistry
- Radiological Safety
- Waste Management
Facilities
- IGCAR houses several state-of-the-art facilities for research and development, including:
- Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR)
- Kalpakkam Mini Reactor (KAMINI)
- Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS)
- Fast Reactor Fuel Reprocessing Plant (FRP)
- Radioactive Waste Management Facility
- Materials Science Laboratory
Collaborations and Achievements
- IGCAR collaborates with various national and international organizations for research and development.
- It has made significant contributions to the field of nuclear science and technology.
- Some notable achievements include the development of indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor technology and the successful operation of FBTR.
Conclusion
- IGCAR, located in Kalpakkam, Chennai, is a leading institution for atomic research and plays a crucial role in advancing nuclear science and technology in India.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 18

In which year did Sir Edmund Hillary reach the summit of Mount Everest?

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 18

Edmund Percival Hillary, born in Auckland New Zealand in the year 1919, was the first to reach the summit of Mount Everest together with Sherpa Tenzing Norgay on May 29, 1953.

A man with a heart !! Died on the 11 January 2008, a sad loss to New Zealand.

Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 19

HP stands for

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 19
Explanation:
Definition of HP:
HP stands for Horse Power, which is a unit of power measurement.
Explanation:
Here is a detailed explanation of the given options and the correct answer:
1. Harmonic Progression (HP):
- Harmonic Progression is a mathematical term that refers to a sequence of numbers in which the reciprocal of each term forms an arithmetic progression.
- While HP is a valid term in mathematics, it is not related to the acronym "HP" used in the question.
2. Horse Power (HP):
- Horse Power is a unit of power commonly used to measure the output of engines, motors, and other mechanical devices.
- It is a measure of the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred.
- Horse Power is widely used in the automotive and engineering industries to describe the performance of vehicles and machinery.
3. Both (a) and (b):
- This option suggests that HP can stand for both Harmonic Progression and Horse Power.
- However, as explained earlier, HP is not related to Harmonic Progression in the context of the given question.
- Therefore, this option is incorrect.
4. None of the above:
- This option suggests that none of the given options (Harmonic Progression and Horse Power) is the correct answer.
- However, as explained earlier, HP does stand for Horse Power.
- Therefore, this option is incorrect.
Conclusion:
Based on the explanation provided, the correct answer to the question "HP stands for" is option C: both (a) and (b) (Harmonic Progression and Horse Power). However, it should be noted that HP commonly refers to Horse Power in the context of power measurement.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 20

India's first fast breeder neutron reactor was

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 20
India's First Fast Breeder Neutron Reactor
The correct answer is D: Kamini.
Explanation:
The first fast breeder neutron reactor in India was named Kamini. Here is a detailed explanation of the reactor:
1. Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR)
- A fast breeder reactor is a type of nuclear reactor that uses fast neutrons to convert fertile material into fissile material.
- It is designed to produce more fissile material than it consumes.
2. Kamini Reactor
- Kamini is a fast breeder neutron reactor located at the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu, India.
- It is also known as the Kalpakkam Mini Reactor.
- Kamini is a pool-type reactor, which means it is surrounded by a pool of liquid sodium as a coolant.
- It uses Uranium-233 as the fuel and liquid sodium as the coolant.
3. Features of Kamini Reactor
- Kamini is a 30 kWth (thermal power) reactor.
- It is used for research and development purposes.
- The reactor is used for various experiments in the field of radiochemistry, radiation safety, and radiation processing.
4. Significance of Kamini Reactor
- Kamini is India's first and only operational fast breeder neutron reactor.
- It plays a crucial role in advancing India's nuclear research and development capabilities.
- The reactor is used for training personnel and conducting experiments related to fast reactors.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is D: Kamini. It is India's first fast breeder neutron reactor located at the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 21

India's first atomic power station was set up at

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 21
India's first atomic power station was set up at Tarapur (Maharashtra)

Explanation:



  • Background: India's atomic energy program was initiated after independence in 1947, with the establishment of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) in 1948. The AEC aimed to utilize nuclear energy for peaceful purposes, including generating electricity.

  • Choice of Location: The selection of the location for India's first atomic power station was based on various factors such as availability of suitable land, proximity to water resources, and accessibility to skilled manpower. Tarapur in Maharashtra was chosen as the ideal location.

  • Establishment: The Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS) was established in 1969, making it India's first atomic power station. It was a joint venture between India and the United States, with General Electric providing the technology and equipment.

  • Features: TAPS initially had two boiling water reactors, each with a capacity of 160 MW. Later, two additional pressurized heavy water reactors were added, increasing the total capacity to 1,400 MW.

  • Significance: The establishment of TAPS marked a significant milestone in India's nuclear energy program. It demonstrated India's capability to harness nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and paved the way for the development of more nuclear power plants across the country.


Therefore, the correct answer is B: Tarapur (Maharashtra).
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 22

How many Ergs are there in 1 joule?

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 22
How many Ergs are there in 1 Joule?

To determine the number of Ergs in 1 Joule, we need to convert the units by using the conversion factor between Ergs and Joules. The conversion factor is:


1 Erg = 10-7 Joules



We are given the conversion factor of 1 Erg = 10-7 Joules. Now, we can use this conversion factor to find the number of Ergs in 1 Joule by performing the following calculation:


Number of Ergs = 1 Joule * (1 Erg / 10-7 Joules)


Simplifying the calculation, we get:


Number of Ergs = 1 * 107


Therefore, there are 107 Ergs in 1 Joule.


Answer:


The correct answer is D: 107.

Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 23

In 1943, Franklin D. Roosevelt, Winston Churchill and Joseph Stalin met at Teheran primarily

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 23
Background:
In 1943, during World War II, the leaders of the Allied powers, Franklin D. Roosevelt (President of the United States), Winston Churchill (Prime Minister of the United Kingdom), and Joseph Stalin (Premier of the Soviet Union), met in Teheran (now Tehran), the capital of Iran. The Teheran Conference was an important meeting that shaped the course of the war and the post-war world.
Purpose of the Teheran Conference:
The primary purpose of the Teheran Conference was to discuss and plan the strategy to be adopted by the Allies in their fight against the Axis powers. The Axis powers, led by Germany, Italy, and Japan, posed a significant threat to the world and the Allies needed to coordinate their efforts to defeat them.
Key Points:
- The Teheran Conference was the first meeting between the "Big Three" leaders of the Allied powers during the war.
- The conference took place from November 28 to December 1, 1943.
- The main focus of the conference was on military strategy and coordination.
- The leaders discussed the opening of a second front in Western Europe, which eventually led to the D-Day invasion in 1944.
- They also discussed the future of Germany after its defeat, including issues such as the division of the country and the prosecution of war criminals.
- The conference marked a turning point in the war and helped solidify the alliance between the United States, the United Kingdom, and the Soviet Union.
- It also laid the groundwork for future conferences such as the Yalta Conference in 1945.
Conclusion:
In summary, the primary purpose of the Teheran Conference in 1943 was for Franklin D. Roosevelt, Winston Churchill, and Joseph Stalin to discuss and plan the strategy to be adopted by the Allies in their fight against the Axis powers. The conference played a significant role in shaping the course of the war and the post-war world.
Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 24

Innocent III, who became pope in 1198 led

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 24
Innocent III and the Fourth Crusade

Innocent III, who became pope in 1198, played a significant role in the Fourth Crusade.



  • The Fourth Crusade: Innocent III led and supported the Fourth Crusade, which took place from 1202 to 1204.

  • Goals of the Crusade: The initial goal of the Fourth Crusade was to recapture Jerusalem from the Muslims, just like the previous Crusades. However, due to various circumstances, the Crusaders' objectives shifted.

  • Diversion to Constantinople: The Fourth Crusade took an unexpected turn when the Crusaders diverted their attention to the Byzantine Empire and the city of Constantinople.

  • Siege and Capture of Constantinople: In 1204, the Crusaders besieged and captured Constantinople, resulting in the establishment of the Latin Empire and the division of the Byzantine territories among the Crusaders.

  • Controversial Outcome: Innocent III initially condemned the diversion of the Crusade to Constantinople, as it deviated from the original goal of retaking Jerusalem. However, he eventually accepted and supported the outcome due to the political circumstances.


Therefore, Innocent III's leadership and involvement were primarily associated with the Fourth Crusade, which resulted in the capture of Constantinople rather than the intended objective of recapturing Jerusalem.

Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 25

In which year a resolution 'Uniting for Peace' was adopted by UN General Assembly?

Detailed Solution for Basic General Knowledge Quiz - 5 - Question 25
Resolution 'Uniting for Peace' adopted by UN General Assembly in 1950
The resolution 'Uniting for Peace' was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1950. This resolution was proposed as a means to address situations where the Security Council, due to the veto power of its permanent members, was unable to take action to maintain international peace and security. Here is a detailed explanation of the resolution:
Background:
- The United Nations was established in 1945 with the primary goal of maintaining international peace and security.
- The Security Council, consisting of five permanent members (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) and ten non-permanent members, is responsible for making decisions regarding international conflicts.
Challenges:
- The veto power held by the permanent members of the Security Council often led to deadlocks and hindered effective decision-making.
- During the Korean War, the Soviet Union, a permanent member, had consistently used its veto power to prevent the Council from taking action against North Korea's aggression.
Resolution 'Uniting for Peace':
- In response to the challenges faced by the Security Council, the United Nations General Assembly adopted the resolution 'Uniting for Peace' on November 3, 1950.
- The resolution empowers the General Assembly to take action in cases where the Security Council fails to exercise its primary responsibility for maintaining international peace and security.
- It provides a mechanism for the General Assembly to convene an emergency special session to address urgent matters related to international peace and security.
Key Points:
- The resolution states that if the Security Council fails to act due to the lack of unanimity among its permanent members, the General Assembly can step in and make recommendations.
- The recommendations made by the General Assembly under this resolution are non-binding but carry significant moral and political weight.
- The resolution has been invoked several times in history, allowing the General Assembly to discuss and take action on various conflicts, such as the Suez Crisis in 1956 and the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan in 1979.
Conclusion:
- The resolution 'Uniting for Peace' was adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1950 to address the challenges posed by the veto power in the Security Council.
- It provides the General Assembly with a mechanism to take action when the Security Council fails to do so, ensuring that urgent matters related to international peace and security can still be addressed.
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