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VITEEE PCBE Mock Test - 2

125 Questions MCQ Test VITEEE: Subject Wise and Full Length MOCK Tests | VITEEE PCBE Mock Test - 2

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This mock test of VITEEE PCBE Mock Test - 2 for JEE helps you for every JEE entrance exam. This contains 125 Multiple Choice Questions for JEE VITEEE PCBE Mock Test - 2 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this VITEEE PCBE Mock Test - 2 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. JEE students definitely take this VITEEE PCBE Mock Test - 2 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other VITEEE PCBE Mock Test - 2 extra questions, long questions & short questions for JEE on EduRev as well by searching above.

QUESTION: 1

Tyloses are thickenings seen in

A.
Ray parenchyma
B.
Collenchyma
C.
Phloem cells
D.
Ray parenchyma and xylem cells

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

The part of cockroach having both exoskeleton and endoskeleton (tentorium and apodemes) is

A.
head
B.
thorax
C.
abdomen
D.
both a and b

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

Drug belladona is got from

A.
Papaver
B.
Atropa
C.
Acacia
D.
Phoenix

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

80 S ribosomes are made up of

A.
40 S and 40 S
B.
60 S and 40 S
C.
60 S and 50 S
D.
50 S and 30 S

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

Which of the following blood vessels has a thin elastic layer?

A.
Aorta
B.
Pulmonary artery
C.
Posterior vena cava
D.
Mesenteric capillary

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

Conversion of green tomatoes into red form involves

A.
Formation of chromoplasts from chloroplasts
B.
Destruction of chloroplasts and development of chromoplasts from leucoplasts
C.
Formation of chromoplasts from proplastids
D.
All the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

The decreasing order of mineral concentration in a cell is

A.
K, Na, Ca
B.
Ca, K, Na
C.
Na, K, Ca
D.
K, Ca, Na

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

Middle lamella is

A.
optically active
B.
optically inactive
C.
colloidal in nature
D.
both B and C

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

An ecosystem has two components such as

A.
frogs and men
B.
biotic and abiotic
C.
plants and animals
D.
weeds and trees

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

Analogous organs are

A.
Different origin but similar functions
B.
Common origin and common functions
C.
Different origin and different functions
D.
Common origin but different functions

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

Angiosperms flourished during

A.
Mesozoic
B.
Coenozoic
C.
Palaeozoic
D.
Precambrian

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

Homologous organs are

A.
Gills of fish and wings of rabbit
B.
Wings of insects and bat
C.
Wings of grasshopper and crow
D.
Pectoral fins of fish and fore limbs of horse

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

Enzyme required for removing RNA primer during DNA replication is

A.
Primase
B.
Ligase
C.
DNA polymerase I
D.
DNA polymerase III

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

Intron is part of DNA which

A.
Codes for protein synthesis
B.
Helps in joining pieces of DNA
C.
Does not code for protein synthesis
D.
Initiates transcription

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

According to Chargaff rule

A.
A + T = G + C
B.
A + C = G + T
C.
A + G = C + T
D.
A + U = G + C

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

Epistasis in which dihybrid ratio of 9:3:3:1 between AaBb X AaBb is modified is

A.
Dominance of one allele on another allele at the same locus
B.
Dominance of one allele on another allele at both its loci
C.
Interaction of two alleles at different loci
D.
Interaction between two alleles at different locus

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

In Red-White flowered cross of Mirabilis jalapa, F generation has red, pink and white flowered plants in the ratio of

A.
1:2:1
B.
1:0:1
C.
2:1:1
D.
1:1:2

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

Recessive trait disorders are characterised by

A.
Occurrence in parents
B.
Occurence in atleast one parents
C.
Presence in siblings but not in parents
D.
Sudden appearence due to mutations

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

In sex-linked traits the males are

A.
Less prone to defect because Y-chromosome is dominant
B.
Less prone to defect because there is only one allele
C.
More prone to defect because they are hemizygous
D.
Less prone to defect because they are hemizygous

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

T-lymphocytes recognise

A.
Polysaccharides
B.
Nucleic acid
C.
Peptides
D.
Recurring molecular groups

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

HIV has a protein coat and a genetic material which is

A.
ss DNA
B.
ds DNA
C.
ss RNA
D.
ds RNA

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

Surgical removal of thymus of a new born shall result in failure to produce

A.
Monocytes
B.
B-lymphocytes
C.
T-lymphocytes
D.
Basophils

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following is incorrect matched pair?

A.
Cuscuta - Total stem parasite
B.
Smallest parasite - Arceuthobium
C.
Total root parasite - Balanophora
D.
Partial root parasite - Santalum

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

Tunica Corpus theory was proposed by

A.
Schmidt
B.
Nageli
C.
Strasburger
D.
Hofmeister

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

Censer mechanism of fruit dispersal is found in

A.
Rosaceae
B.
Liliaceae
C.
Papaveraceae(Poppy)
D.
Leguminosae

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

Which one dies first when a ring of bark is removed

A.
Shoot
B.
Root
C.
None
D.
Both shoot and root die simultaneously

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

Which one of the following substances plays an important role in biochemical defence of host plants?

A.
Mycotoxin
B.
Phytoalexin
C.
Pathotoxin
D.
Vivotoxin

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

For the manufacture of wines and beers the microorganism that is employed is

A.
Bacillus subtilis
B.
Saccharomyces carsbergenesis
C.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D.
Mucor species

Solution:

QUESTION: 29

Bordered pits are more common in

A.
Monocots
B.
Dicots
C.
Gymnosperms
D.
All the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was

A.
Methyl isocyanate
B.
Potassium isothiocyanate
C.
Sodium isothiocyanate
D.
Ethyl isothiocyanate

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

The two great industrial tragedies namely, MIC and chernobyl, respectively occured where and when?

A.
Bhopal 1980, Ukrain 1990
B.
Bhopal 1986, Ukrain 1988
C.
Bhopal 1984, Ukrain 1986
D.
Bhopal 1986, Russia 1988

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

Increase in the concentration of pollutants in higher trophic levels is called

A.
recycling
B.
eutrophication
C.
biodegradation
D.
bio-magnification

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

Kala-azar is a disease caused by :

A.
Sandfly
B.
Housefly
C.
Bedbug
D.
Lice

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

Pseudopregnancy is due to

A.
Polyembryony
B.
Absence of fertilization after ovulation
C.
Hormonal disturbances
D.
All of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

Mammalia is a

A.
Category
B.
Taxon
C.
Both above
D.
None above

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

Select the correct statement

A.
Organs with different origin and structure but with similar functions are analogous organs
B.
Organs with different origin and structure but with dissimilar function are analogous organs
C.
Organs with similar origin and basic structure but different function are analogous organs
D.
None of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

Protophytes were dominant during - period

A.
archaezoic
B.
proterozoic
C.
paleozoic
D.
mesozoic

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

Fossils of organisms found in South America resemble most of the fossils in

A.
North America
B.
Australia
C.
South Africa
D.
Both B and C

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

Which substance would normally be found in higher concentration in urine than in blood?

A.
Urea
B.
Protein
C.
Oxygen
D.
Glucose.

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

Which substance is found in the glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule and efferent arteriole but is not normally found in the collecting duct?

A.
Urea
B.
Glucose
C.
penicillin
D.
sodium ions

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

Voltage and current in an A.C. circuit are given by V = 5 sin(100πt - π/6) and I = 4sin(100πt + π/6)

A.
Voltage leads the current by 30^o
B.
Current leads the voltage by 30^o
C.
Current leads the voltage by 60^o
D.
Voltage leads the current by 60^o

Solution:

QUESTION: 42

Continuous emission spectrum is produced by

A.
incandescent electric lamp
B.
mercury vapour lamp
C.
sodium vapour lamp
D.
the sun

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

Δ λ is the difference between the wavelength of K_α line and the minimum wavelength of a continuous X - ray spectrum when the X - ray tube is operated at a voltage V. If the operating voltage is changed to V/3 , then the above difference is Δλ¹ . Then

A.
Δλ¹ = 5 Δ λ
B.
Δλ¹ = 4 Δ λ
C.
Δλ¹ = 3 Δ λ
D.
Δλ¹ < 3 Δ λ

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

A parallel plate capacitor is filled by copper plate of thickness b. The new capacity will be

A.
∈₀A/2d - b
B.
∈₀A/d - b
C.
∈₀A/d - b/2
D.
∈₀A/d

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

A steady current of 1.5 A flows through a copper voltameter for 10 min. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 x 10^-5 g C^-1 , the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be

A.
0.40g
B.
0.50g
C.
0.67g
D.
0.27g

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Optical fibres uses the phenomenon of

A.
total internal reflection
B.
refraction
C.
dispersion
D.
scattering

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

A car battery has e.m.f. 12 volt and internal resistance 5 x 10^-2ohm. If it draws 60 ampere current, the terminal voltage of the battery will be

A.
3 volt
B.
5 volt
C.
9 volt
D.
15 volt

Solution:

QUESTION: 48

Two cells with the same e.m.f 'E' and different internal resistances r₁ and r₂ are connected in series to an external resistance R. The value of R so that the potential difference across the first cell be zero is

A.
√r₁r₂
B.
r₁ + r₂
C.
r₁ - r₂
D.
r₁ + r₂/2

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

Four resistances 10 Ω , 5 Ω , 7 Ω and 3 Ω are connected so that they form the sides of a rectangle AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Another resistance of 10 Ω is connected across the diagonal AC. The equivalent resistance between a A and B is

A.
2 Ω
B.
5 Ω
C.
7 Ω
D.
10 Ω

Solution:

QUESTION: 50

The net resistance of a voltmeter should be large to ensure that

A.
It does not get overheated
B.
It does not draw excessive current
C.
It can measure large potential difference
D.
It does not appreciably change the potential difference to be measured

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

In Thomson's experiment of finding e/m for electrons, beam of electron is replaced by that of muons (particle with same charge as that of electrons but of mass 208 times that of electron). No deflection condition in this case is satisfied if

A.
B is increased 208 times
B.
E is increased 208 times
C.
B is increased 14.4 times
D.
None of these

Solution:

In the condition of no deflection e/m = E²/2VB²
⇒ If m is increased by 208 times then B should be increased 208 = 14.4 times

QUESTION: 52

The working of a dynamo is based on principle of

A.
Conversion of energy into electricity
B.
Magnetic effects of current
C.
Electromagnetic induction
D.
Heat effects of current

Solution:

QUESTION: 53

The unit of inductance is equivalent to

A.
Volt X ampere/Second
B.
Ampere/Volt X second
C.
Volt/Ampere X second
D.
Volt X second/Ampere

Solution:

QUESTION: 54

The wing span of an aeroplane is 36 m. If the plane is flying at 400 km/h, the e.m.f. induced between the wings tips is (assume V=4X10)

A.
16 V
B.
1.6 V
C.
0.16 V
D.
0.016 V

Solution:

QUESTION: 55

Which radiation in sunlight, cause heating effect?

A.
ultra violet
B.
infra-red
C.
visible light
D.
all of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is φ₁ and φ₂ , the electric charge inside the surface will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

Potential energy of two equal positive charges 1 μ C each held 1 m apart in air is

A.
9 x 10^-3 J
B.
zero
C.
9 x 10^-3 eV
D.
1 J

Solution:

QUESTION: 58

Two equal charges q of opposite sign separated by a distance 2a constitute an electric dipole of dipole moment p. If P is a point at a distance r from the centre of the dipole and the line joining centre to this point makes an angle θ with the axis of the dipole, then potential at the point P is given by

A.
V = p cos θ/4 π ∈₀ r²
B.
V = p cos θ/4 π ∈₀ r
C.
V = p sn θ/4 π ∈₀ r
D.
V = p cos θ/4 π ∈₀ r²

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

Minimum no. of 8 μF and 250 V capacitors, used to make a combination of 16 μF and 1000 V, is

A.
32
B.
24
C.
8
D.
2

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

A 10 μF capacitor is charged to a potential difference 50 V and it is then connected to another uncharged capacitor in parallel. If common potential difference becomes 20 V, then capacitance of the second capacitor is

A.
10 μF
B.
15 μF
C.
20 μF
D.
30 μF

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

Two point charges each equal to 2μC are 0.5 m apart. If both of them exist inside vaccum, then electrostatic force between them is

A.
0.144 N
B.
0.288 N
C.
1.44 N
D.
2.88 N

Solution:

By using F = 9x10⁹ . Q² /r²

QUESTION: 62

If current in a moving coil galvanometer is increased by 1%, then percentage increase in its deflection will be

A.
1%
B.
2%
C.
3%
D.
0.5%

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

Number of particles emitted in the reaction is

A.
One electron and one neutron
B.
One neutron and one electron
C.
One α and one neutron
D.
One α and one electron

Solution:

QUESTION: 64

In a nuclear reactor heavy water is used as a

A.
Moderator
B.
Fuel
C.
Shield
D.
None

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

If M_O is the mass of an oxygen isotope ₈O¹⁷ , M_p and M_n are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is

A.
(M_o − 8 Mp)c²
B.
(M_o − 8 Mp - 9Mn)c²
C.
(M_o − 17Mn)c²
D.
M_oC²

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

Light of wavelength 5000Å falls on a sensitive plate with photoelectric work function of 1.9 eV. The kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted will be

A.
0.58 eV
B.
2.48 eV
C.
1.24 eV
D.
1.16 eV

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

In photoelectric effect experiment, the stopping potential for incident light of wave-length 4000 Å is 2 volt. If the wavelength is changed to 3000 Å, the stopping potential is

A.
2 volt
B.
Less than 2 volt
C.
More than 2 volt
D.
Zero volt

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

The distance between eye lens and cross wire in Ramsden eye piece which has a field lens of focal length 1.2 cm is .......cm.

A.
1.2
B.
1.1
C.
0
D.
0.4

Solution:

QUESTION: 69

If the dispersive power of a lens material of focal length 20 cm is 0.08, then longitudinal chromatic aberration of the lens is

A.
1.2 cm
B.
1.4 cm
C.
1.6 cm
D.
1.8 cm

Solution:

QUESTION: 70

In a transistor circuit, when the base current in increased by 50 micro - amperes keeping the collector voltage fixed at 2 volts, the collector current increases by 1 m A. The current gain of the transistor is

A.
20
B.
40
C.
60
D.
80

Solution:

QUESTION: 71

If no external voltage is applied across p-n junction, there would be

A.
no electric field across the junction
B.
an electric field pointing from n-type to p-type side across the junction
C.
an electric field pointing from p-type to n-type side across the junction
D.
a temporary electric field during formation of p-n junction that would subsequently disappear

Solution:

QUESTION: 72

Zener diode is used for

A.
rectification
B.
stabilization
C.
amplification
D.
producing oscillations in an oscillator

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct choice of the given answers.
A: The width of the depletion layer in a P-N junction diode increases in forwards bias
B: In an intrinsic semiconductor the fermi energy level of exactly in the middle of the forbidden gap

A.
A is true and B is false
B.
Both A and B are false
C.
A is false and B is true
D.
Both A and B are true

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

A semiconductor is cooled from T₁K to T₂K. Its resistance

A.
will decrease
B.
will increase
C.
will first decrease and then increase
D.
will not change

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

Avalanche breakdown is due to

A.
Collision of minority charge carrier
B.
Increase in depletion layer thickness
C.
Decrease in depletion layer thickness
D.
None of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 76

In the depletion region of an unbiased P-N junction diode there are

A.
Only electrons
B.
Only holes
C.
Both electrons and holes
D.
Only fixed ions

Solution:

QUESTION: 77

A Nicol prism can be used

A.
Only to analyse polarised light
B.
For producing and analysing polarised light
C.
Only to produce polarised light
D.
None

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

A train is approaching a platform with a velocity ν. The frequency heard by an observer standing at the station is

A.
(1 + ν/c)f₀
B.
c/ν f₀
C.
ν/c f₀
D.
(c - ν/c) f₀

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

Both light and sound waves produce diffraction. It is more difficult to observe the diffraction with light waves because

A.
Light wave do not require medium
B.
Wavelength of light waves is far smaller
C.
Light waves are transverse
D.
Speed of light is far greater

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

The ray of light

A.
is always normal to wavefront
B.
is always tangential to wavefront
C.
does not exist in the Huygen's principle
D.
may be tangential or normal to wavefront

Solution:

QUESTION: 81

2R ― OH + 2Na → 2RONa + H₂. In the above reaction the reactivity of different alcohols is

A.
3^o > 2^o > 1^o
B.
3^o < 2^o < 1^o
C.
3^o < 2^o > 1^o
D.
2^o < 1^o < 3^o

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

Reduction of aldehydes with HI give

A.
Primary alcohals
B.
Secondary alcohols
C.
Alkanes
D.
Tertiary alcohols

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following does not turn Schiff's reagent to pink ?

A.
Formaldehyde
B.
Benzaldehyde
C.
Acetone
D.
Methyl chloride

Solution:

QUESTION: 84

When vapours of isopropyl alcohol are passed over heated copper, the major product obtained is

A.
Propane
B.
Propylene
C.
Acetaldehyde
D.
Acetone

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

How many monochlorobutanes will be obtained on chlorination of n-butane?

A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4

Solution:

QUESTION: 86

Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads to the formation of

A.
Mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
B.
Mixture of primary and secondary alcohols
C.
Secondary or tertiary alcohol
D.
Primary alcohol

Solution:

QUESTION: 87

The atomic weight of a substance is expressed in

A.
amu
B.
gram
C.
pound
D.
kilogram

Solution:

QUESTION: 88

How many moles of Helium gas occupy 22.4 L at 0^oC at 1 atm. pressure?

A.
0.11
B.
0.90
C.
1.0
D.
1.11

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

Among the following the achiral amino acid is

A.
2-ethylalanine
B.
tryptophan
C.
2-hydroxymethyl serine
D.
2-methylglycine

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

Which substance is not present in nucleic acid?

A.
Cytosine
B.
Adenine
C.
Thymine
D.
Guanidine

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

The protein which maintains blood sugar level is

A.
Haemoglobin
B.
Oxytocin
C.
Insulin
D.
Ptyalin

Solution:

QUESTION: 92

Which one of the following esters is obtained by the esterification of propan-2-ol with ethanoic acid?

A.
(CH₃)₂CHCOOCH₃
B.
CH₃COOCH₂CH₃
C.
CH₃COOCH(CH₃)₂
D.
(CH₃)₂CHCOOCH₂CH₃

Solution:

QUESTION: 93

The acid showing salt like character in aqueous solutions is

A.
acetic acid
B.
benzoic acid
C.
formic acid
D.
α-aminoacetic acid

Solution:

QUESTION: 94

Dimerisation in carboxylic acid is due to

A.
ionic bond
B.
covalent bond
C.
coordinate bond
D.
intermolecular hydrogen bond

Solution:

QUESTION: 95

Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature, because

A.
the equilibrium is maintained rapidly
B.
the concentration of reactants and products are constant but different
C.
both forward and backward reactions occur at all times with same speed
D.
the concentration of reactants and products becomes same at equilibrium

Solution:

The two opposite processes, forward reaction and reverse reaction, keep on occurring in it all the time but at exactly equal rates (or equal speeds)
A chemical reaction does not stop after reaching the equilibrium state, only the rate of the forward and the reverse reactions become equal at the equilibrium state

QUESTION: 96

The law of mass action was given by

A.
Bodenstein
B.
Berthelot
C.
Grahm
D.
Guldberg and Waage

Solution:

QUESTION: 97

For an ideal gas, the relation between the enthalpy change and internal energy change at constant temperature is given by

A.
H = E + PV
B.
Δ H = Δ E + Δ n R T
C.
Δ H = Δ E + P Δ V
D.
Δ H = Δ G + T Δ S

Solution:

QUESTION: 98

For a reaction at 300 K, enthalpy and entropy changes are -11.5 x 10³ J mol^-1 and -105J K^-1 mol^-1 respectively. What is the change in Gibbs free energy?

A.
15 KJ-mol^-1
B.
20 KJ-mol^-1
C.
25 KJ-mol^-1
D.
30 KJ-mol^-1

Solution:

ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
= -(115x 10)³ - [300 (-105)]
= 11500 - (- 31500) = 20000 J mol^-1
= 20 kJ mol^-1

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following is an endothermic reaction?

A.
N₂ g + 3 H₂ g − 92 K J → 2 NH₃ g
B.
N₂ g + O₂ g + 180.8 K J → 2 NO g
C.
H₂ g + Cl₂ g → 2 H C l g + 184.6 k J
D.
C(graphite) + 2H₂ g → CH₄ g + 74.8 k J

Solution:

A reaction in which heat is absorbed when reactants are converted into products is called endothermic reaction
N₂ g + O₂ g + 180.8 K J → 2 NO g
During the reaction heat is absorbed, by the system from the surroundings and ΔH is + ve
So the reaction is endothermic reaction

QUESTION: 100

The substance used in the preparation of malachine green is

A.
Formaldehyde
B.
Acetaldehyde
C.
Benzaldehyde
D.
Acetone

Solution:

QUESTION: 101

The most stable conformation of n-butane is

A.
Skew boat
B.
Eclipsed
C.
Gauche
D.
Staggered-anti

Solution:

QUESTION: 102

In co-ordination compound, the co-ordination number of the metal according to Werner's theory, is

A.
Same as its primary valencies
B.
Same as primary and secondary valencies
C.
Same as secondary valencies
D.
Unpredictable

Solution:

QUESTION: 103

Which of the following is a complex salt?

A.
Fischer's salt
B.
Glauber's salt
C.
Mohr's salt
D.
Micro cosmic salt

Solution:

QUESTION: 104

Which of the following is produced by reaction of RCN in sodium and alcohol ?

A.
RCONH₂
B.
RCOO⁻NH₄⁺
C.
RCH₂NH₂
D.
R(CH₂)₃NH₂

Solution:

QUESTION: 105

When benzenediazonium chloride in hydrochloric acid reacts with cuprous chloride, then chlorobenzene is formed. The reaction is called

A.
Gattermann reaction
B.
Perkin reaction
C.
Etard reaction
D.
Sandmeyer reaction

Solution:

QUESTION: 106

Which of the following is not a strong electrolyte?

A.
NaCl
B.
KNO₃
C.
NH₄OH
D.
FeSO₄

Solution:

QUESTION: 107

What is the electrochemical equivalent (in g coulomb^-1) of silver?
(Ag = 108; F = Faraday)

A.
108F
B.
108 F
C.
F 108
D.
1 108 F

Solution:

QUESTION: 108

The unit ohm^-1 is used for

A.
molar conductivity
B.
equivalent conductivity
C.
specific conductivity
D.
conductivity

Solution:

QUESTION: 109

Ether is obtained from ethyl alcohol

A.
in presence of H₂SO₄ at 413 K
B.
in presence of H₂SO₄ at 474 K
C.
in presence of H₂SO₄ at 383 K
D.
in presence of H₂SO₄ at 273 K

Solution:

QUESTION: 110

Chile salt petre is

A.
NaNO₃
B.
Na₂SO₄
C.
KNO₃
D.
Na₂S₂O₃

Solution:

QUESTION: 111

A sample of gas occupise 100 ml at 27^oC and 740 mm pressure. When its volume is changed to 80 ml at 740 mm pressure, the temperature of the gas will be

A.
21.6^oC
B.
240^oC
C.
-33^oC
D.
89.5^oC

Solution:

QUESTION: 112

Which one of these is acidic?

A.
Al₂O₃
B.
SnO₂
C.
PbO₂
D.
SiO₂

Solution:

QUESTION: 113

At.No. of N is 7, the At. No. of the third member of nitrogen family will be

A.
23
B.
15
C.
33
D.
43

Solution:

QUESTION: 114

BCl₃ is a planar molecule whereas Ncl₃ is pyramidal because

A.
BCl₃ has no lone pair of electrons but NCl₃ has a lone pair of electrons
B.
B-Cl bond is more polar than N-Cl bond
C.
Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
D.
N-Cl bond is more covalent than B-Cl bond

Solution:

QUESTION: 115

Which of these substances is a good reducing agent?

A.
HI
B.
KBr
C.
FeCl₃
D.
KClO₃

Solution:

QUESTION: 116

Coordination number for Cu is

A.
1
B.
6
C.
8
D.
12

Solution: Coordination number of ccp (cubic close packing) arrangement is 12
Copper (cu) has ccp structure hence coordination no is 12

QUESTION: 117

Select correct statement(s):

A.
Optical isomers are also called enantiomers.
B.
Molecules that are not superimposable on their mirror images are dissymmetric
C.
Both are correct
D.
None of the above is correct

Solution:

QUESTION: 118

Adsorbed acetic acid on activated charcoal is

A.
Adsorber
B.
Absorber
C.
Adsorbent
D.
Adsorbate

Solution:

QUESTION: 119

Which oxide of manganese is amphoteric?

A.
MnO
B.
MnO₂
C.
Mn₂O₃
D.
Mn₂O₇

Solution:

QUESTION: 120

The metal which does not form coloured compounds is

A.
Cr
B.
Fe
C.
Zn
D.
Mn

Solution:

QUESTION: 121

Find the antonym of ABANDON

A.
like
B.
reject
C.
keep
D.
help

Solution:

QUESTION: 122

Fill in the blank with appropriate word.
If a speech is full of pompous words, it is.........

A.
verbose
B.
bombastic
C.
grandiose
D.
grandiloquent

Solution:

QUESTION: 123

Find the synonym of ABSONANT

A.
discordant
B.
absurd
C.
unnatural
D.
contrary to reason

Solution:

QUESTION: 124

Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Bring forth

A.
reveal
B.
produce
C.
put forward
D.
propose

Solution:

QUESTION: 125

Improve the sentence by choosing best alternative for capitalised part of the sentence.

I will tell you if and when it WILL BE COMPLETED.

A.
it would be completed
B.
it will be completed
C.
it is complete
D.
No improvement

Solution:

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