Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 25, 2024 - UPSC MCQ

Recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO) emphasized the urgent need for global preparedness against a potential new pandemic, referred to as 'Disease X'. 

• It is referred to as a hypothetical pathogen or threat that can cause a major pandemic in future.
• It could be a new agent, a virus, a bacterium, or a fungus without any known treatment.
• The term coined by scientists and the World Health Organization could be any of the 25 families of viruses that have the capability to cause illness in people.
• Disease X was included in the WHO’s updated Blueprint list of diseases back in 2018.
• Scientists are of the opinion that Disease X could be 20 times more deadly than SARS-Covid virus that caused pandemic recently.
• It represents an illness which is currently unknown but could pose a serious microbial threat to humans in the future.

Hence option d is the correct answer.

Wandering albatrosses are threatened with extinction and climate change could put their nesting sites at risk.

• It is the world’s largest flying bird, with a wingspan reaching an incredible 3.5 metres.
• These birds are oceanic nomads: they spend most of their 60 years of life at sea and only come to land to breed.
• These are found almost exclusively in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Their playground is the vast Southern Ocean — the region between the latitude of 60 degrees south and the continent of Antarctica.
• Marion Island and Prince Edward Island together support about half of the entire world’s wandering albatross breeding population.
• Habitat: They breed on several subantarctic islands, which are characterized by peat soils, tussock grass, sedges, mosses, and shrubs.
• They are monogamous and pairs mate for life.
• Conservation status
• IUCN: Vulnerable
• Threats: The most likely cause is longline fishing, as they become hooked and will drown, as well as the ingestion of plastics, which kills both chicks and adults.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Election Commission of India is celebrating 14th National Voters’ Day (NVD) on 25th January 2024.

• It has been celebrated on January 25 every year since 2011, across the country to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India, i.e. 25th January 1950.
• Purpose: The main purpose of the NVD celebration is to create electoral awareness amongst citizens and encourage them to participate in the electoral process.
• Dedicated to the voters of the country, the National Voters' Day is also used to facilitate enrolment of voters, especially the newly eligible young voters.
• New voters are felicitated and handed over their Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC) in the NVD functions held across the country.
• NVD is celebrated at the national, state, district, constituency and polling booth levels, which makes it one of the largest celebrations in the country.
• NVD 2024 theme - ‘Nothing Like Voting, I Vote For sure’ 
• On January 25, 2024, the Election Commission of India celebrates its 75th year of service to the Nation. 

Hence both statements are correct.

Smart rings are the tiny but mighty wearables which are useful in health tracking and more in a barely noticeable device.

• These are tiny yet mighty, smart rings pack impressive technology into a small ring-sized device.
• They can monitor health stats, control other devices, and much more, much like their bulkier smartwatch counterparts.
• Equipped with advanced sensors, smart rings track metrics including heart rate, blood oxygen levels, sleep quality, steps, and even stress levels.
• The data is then viewable on a connected smartphone app, allowing users to analyse trends and progress towards health goals.
• Beyond wellness tracking, some smart rings add convenience through features like gesture controls and haptic feedback for notifications.
• For example, a simple flick of the finger lets you do things like dim smart lights or cue up a playlist. When a call or message comes in, a subtle buzz on the finger lets you know without having to grab your phone.

What can Smart rings do?

• The biggest perk offered by smart rings is their constant health monitoring, which is designed such that it requires barely any user intervention.
• It offers personalised breathing exercises and guided meditations to help users improve their mood.
• It has a convenient feature of contactless payment.
• Smart rings typically include gesture recognition, so you can perform gestures like twisting or tapping the ring to do things like turn off lights, adjust your thermostat, unlock doors, and more.
• For security, smart rings can also function as access badges, letting you unlock doors and gates with a simple touch of your finger.

Hence both statements are correct.

The Supreme Court recently held that while prosecuting a person for the offence of cheating under Section 420 of the IPC, it is to be seen whether the deceitful act of cheating was coupled with an inducement leading to the parting of any property by the complainant.

About Section 420 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC):

• Section 420 of the IPC, or IPC 420 as it is commonly known, deals with the act of cheating and dishonestly inducing the person deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to make, alter, or destroy the whole or any part of a valuable security, or anything which is signed or sealed and capable of being converted into a valuable security.
• Section 415 of the IPC defines the offence of cheating. In simpler terms, cheating is a dishonest act performed in order to gain some advantage out of it.
• Section 420 IPC is a serious form of cheating that includes inducement (to lead or move someone to happen) in terms of the delivery of property as well as valuable securities.
• This section is also applicable to matters where the destruction of property is caused by cheating or inducement. 
• The person found guilty under this section shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term that may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to a fine.
• The offence is cognizable and non-bailable.
• The essential ingredients that go into the making of an offence under Section 420, IPC are:
• That the representation made by the accused was false;
• That the accused knew that the representation was false at the very time when he made it;
• That the accused made the false representation with the dishonest intention of deceiving the person to whom it was made; and
• That the accused thereby induced that person to deliver any property or to do or to omit to do something which he would otherwise not have done or omitted.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

The Supreme Court recently held that default bail cannot be claimed on the ground that the investigation is pending against other accused.

About Default Bail:

• The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) provides for three kinds of bail. Section 438 provides for Anticipatory Bail, Section 439 provides for Regular bail whereas Section 167(2) provides for default/statutory bail.
• Default bail, also known as statutory bail, is a type of bail which accrues as a right to an accused detained in custody, when the police fail to or are unable to complete the investigation and file the chargesheet within the time frame stipulated under the law.
• When a person is arrested under any section of any act, there is an obligation on the arresting authority to complete the investigation within a specified time. This period is mandatory, and not obligatory. 
• The statutory time frame for completing the investigation of offences under the IPC, and for filing of the charge sheet varies depending on the gravity of the offence.
• For offences punishable with imprisonment up to 10 years, the investigation must be completed within 60 days of arrest.
• For offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for more than 10 years, the investigation must be completed within 90 days of arrest (excluding investigation/arrests made under special statutes).
• Therefore, when a person is arrested and the police is not able to complete investigation within the specified period, it is their default, and the arrested person cannot be kept behind bars beyond this period. This entitlement is called default bail.
• This is enshrined in Section 167(2) of the CrPC, where it is not possible for the police to complete an investigation in time.
• Principles:
• It is a right, regardless of the nature of the crime.
• The stipulated period within which the charge sheet has to be filed begins from the day the accused is remanded for the first time.
• It includes days spent in both police and judicial custody, but not days spent in house-arrest.
• For an accused to be entitled to default bail, the accused must have been in custody during the entire statutory period for the investigation, and the accused must not have been released on bail during that period.
• A requirement for the grant of statutory bail is that the right should be claimed by the person in custody.
• If the charge sheet is not filed within the stipulated period, but there is no application for bail under Section 167(2), there is no automatic bail.
• Once the accused files an application for bail under Section 167(2), it is considered that he/she has enforced the right to be released on default bail.
• This right only comes into place after the stipulated time limit for investigation has expired.
• If the accused fails to apply for default bail after the investigation time period has expired and the investigating agency files a charge-sheet or seeks more time before the accused makes such an application for default bail, then the right to default bail is no longer applicable. The Magistrate can then grant further time for the completion of the investigation.
• However, the accused may still be released on bail under other legal provisions of the Code.
• The default bail is not liable to be cancelled even after the completion of the investigation and the submission of the charge sheet. The default bail can be cancelled only on the grounds and considerations on which a regular bail can be cancelled.
• Default Bail as Fundamental Right:
• The Supreme Court, while hearing an appeal regarding default bail, said that default bail under the first proviso of Section 167(2) of the CrPC. is a fundamental right and not merely a statutory right as it is, a procedure established by law under Article 21 of the Constitution. 

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

A team of archaeologists recently discovered two stone inscriptions of ‘Grantham’ and Tamil dating 11th and 16th centuries respectively at Pazhnchervazhi village near Kangayam.

About Grantham Inscriptions:

• Grantha is an important historical script that was once used to write Sanskrit throughout South East Asia and greater Tamil Nadu.
• The word Grantha denotes in Sanskrit ‘a literary work’. Evidently, the script used for writing the Sanskrit works obtained the same name.
• At one time, it was prevalent throughout South India.
• When the Malayalam language began to freely borrow words as well as the rules of grammar from Sanskrit, this script was adopted for writing that language and was known as Arya Ezhuthu.
• Both Grantha and Tamil scripts appear alike in modern forms. The evolution of both scripts from Brahmi was also more or less similar.
• The development of the Grantha script in Tamil Nadu may be divided into four periods. The archaic and ornamental, the transitional, the medieval, and the modern.
  • Archaic and ornamental variety is commonly known as Pallava Grantha. Mahendravarman's Tiruchirappalli rock cut cave and other cave temple inscriptions, Narasimhan's Mamallapuram, Kanchi Kailasanatha, and Saluvankuppam temple inscriptions, Mutharaiyar's Senthalai inscriptions are examples of this variety.
  • The transitional variety of Grantha inscriptions roughly belong to three centuries between 650 CE and 950 CE. Later Pallava's (Nandivarman's Kasakudi, Udayendram plates, etc.) and Pandyan Nedunjadaiyan's Anaimalai inscriptions are samples of this.
  • The medieval variety dates from about 950 CE to 1250 CE. Inscriptions of the imperial Cholas of Thanjavur are examples of this.
  • The modern variety belongs to the later Pandya's and Vijayanagarar periods. 
• It was popular in Tamil Nadu until the early 20th century.
• After the introduction of printing machines, many Sanskrit books transcribed from palm leaves were printed in Grantha script.
• After Independence, the popularity of Hindi in Deva Nagari script influenced all printing works, and Grantha script went out of vogue.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

Union Finance Minister participated in the 'Halwa Ceremony' on recently, a tradition observed before the annual budget presentation.

About Halwa Ceremony:

• It is a tradition performed every year ahead of the budget and signifies the official initiation of the printing process of various documents related to the budget.
• It involves the preparation of the traditional dessert 'halwa' in a massive kadhai (wok), which is then served to all those who are directly associated with the budget-making process.
• The finance minister gives the go-ahead by stirring the kadhai and serving the sweet to officials.
• It takes place in the basement of the Finance Ministry's North Block in Central Delhi, where a special printing press is located.
• It serves as a formal ‘send-off’ for the ministry officials and staff engaged in preparing the Union government's annual financial statement.
• Subsequently, the top officials involved with the budget enter a designated ‘lock-in’ period, isolating themselves within the ministry premises and cutting off from their families to preserve the confidentiality surrounding the final budget document.
• The officials are required to stay in the Finance Ministry till the finance minister finally presents the budget.

Hence both statements are not correct.

Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)  clarified that addition of protein binders in milk and milk products are not permitted. 

• These are biological agents have emerged as an important and required class of ingredients to manufacture a wide range of new food products, especially semi-solid orsolid foods.
• These are known to affect the digestibility of the protein bound and thus can affect the biological and nutritive value of milk proteins.
• Protein binding also influences the bioavailability and distribution of active compounds.

What is milk protein?

• It is a good source of essential amino acids.
• They are easily digestible and do not contain any anti-nutritional factors like many plant-based proteins.

Hence both statements are correct.

The first public sector caravan park in Kerala to come up at Bekal fort of Kerala.

• It is exquisitely designed and built with dark maroon laterite stones.
• It is the largest and best preserved Fort in the whole of Kerala.
• The fort is endowed with impressive walls and ramparts which are again interrupted by massive bastions.
• While the bastions are equipped with several large and small openings for guns, the walls are interspersed with windows and peepholes. These were used to spot the enemy from afar in the past
• A unique and eye-catching feature is a lone bastion, projecting out into the sea.
• It was built in the 17th century.
• This historic monument offers a superb view of the Arabian Sea from its tall observation towers, which were occupied by gigantic cannons till afew centuries ago.
• Originally constructed by the rulers of the ancient Kadampa Dynasty, the Fort changed hands over the years to the Kolathiri Rajas, the Vijayanagara Empire, Tipu Sultan and finally, the British East India Company.
• The most prominent structure inside the fort is the observation tower built by Tipu Sultan.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.