Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 17, 2024 - UPSC MCQ

According to the Global Hepatitis Report 2024 released by the World Health Organisation (WHO), India is one of the countries with the highest burden of viral hepatitis.

• Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver.
• It can be an acute (short-term) infection or a chronic (long-term) infection. 
• There are different types of hepatitis, with different causes:
• Viral hepatitis: It is the most common type and caused by one of several hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D and E.
• Alcoholic hepatitis which is caused by heavy alcohol use.
• Toxic hepatitis can be caused by certain poisons, chemicals, medicines, or supplements.
• Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic type in which your body's immune system attacks your liver. The cause is not known, but genetics and your environment may play a role.
• How is viral hepatitis spread?
• Hepatitis A and E usually spread through contact with food or water that is contaminated with an infected person. You can also get hepatitis E by eating undercooked food.
• Hepatitis B, C and D spread through contact with the blood of someone who has the disease. 
• Hepatitis B and D may also spread through contact with other body fluids. This can happen in many ways, such as sharing drug needles or having unprotected sex.
• Symptoms: Some people with hepatitis do not have symptoms and do not know they are infected. Common symptoms include: Fever, Fatigue, Loss of appetite, Nausea and/or vomiting etc.
• Treatment: Treatment for hepatitis depends on which type you have and whether it is acute or chronic. Acute viral hepatitis often goes away on its own. There are different medicines to treat the different chronic types of hepatitis.

Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Recently, the US White House officially directed the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) to create a time standard for the Moon, which different international bodies and private companies can use to coordinate their activities on the lunar surface.

• It will provide a time-keeping benchmark for lunar spacecraft and satellites that require extreme precision for their missions.
• It will also synchronise the communication between satellites, astronauts, bases and the Earth.
• A unified time standard would be essential for coordinating operations, ensuring the reliability of transactions and managing the logistics of lunar commerce.
• Why there is need of LTC?
• As there is less gravity on the Moon, time ticks slightly faster there relative to the time on the Earth.
• In other words, for someone on the Moon, an Earth-based clock will appear to lose on average 58.7 microseconds per Earth day with “additional periodic variations.
• It can create problems for situations such as a spacecraft seeking to dock on the Moon, data transferring at a specific time, communication, and navigation.

How does Earth’s time standard work?

• Most of the clocks and time zones of the world are based on Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) which is essentially internationally agreed upon standard for world time.
• It is set by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures in Paris, France.
• It is tracked by a weighted average of more than 400 atomic clocks placed in different parts of the globe.
• Atomic clocks measure time in terms of the resonant frequencies — the natural frequency of an object where it tends to vibrate at a higher amplitude — of atoms such as cesium-133.
• In atomic time, a second is defined as the period in which a caesium atom vibrates 9,192,631,770 times. As the vibration rates at which atoms absorb energy are highly stable and ultra-accurate, atomic clocks make for an excellent device for gauging the passage of time.
• To obtain their local time, countries need to subtract or add a certain number of hours from UTC depending on how many time zones they are away from 0 degree longitude meridian, also known as the Greenwich meridian.
• If a country lies on the west of the Greenwich meridian, it has to subtract from the UTC, and if a country is located on the east of the meridian, it has to add.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Supreme Court recently held that approaching the High Court under Articles 226/227 of the Constitution for the release of the seized vehicle would not be a proper remedy without approaching the magistrate under Section 451 of Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).

About Section 451 of CrPC:

• The title of the section states, “order for custody and disposal of property pending trial in certain cases”.
• It deals with the interim disposal of property before finally concluding the case.
• The provision provides that when any property is producedbefore any criminal court, the court may order for proper custodyof the propertypending the conclusion of the inquiry and trial,and seeing the nature of the property,i.e., speedy or natural decay, the court may order its sale or disposal.
• For the purpose of this section, property includes:
• Property of any kind or document which is produced before the Court or which is in its custody.
• Any property regarding which offence appears to have been committed or which appears to have been used for the commission of any offence.
• The court can issue orders, including interim ones, for the proper custody and disposal of property or documents which fall within any one of the above categories.
• The nature of the property should be seen before disposing of or deciding the custody of the property.
• It empowers the court to dispose of the perishable properties first and retain properties that are needed for the purpose of trial.
• Section 451 is not confined to natural decay alone but extends to other ways of damage which require expedient disposal.
• The court holds discretionary power to decide the method of disposal according to the facts and the circumstances of the case.
• Methods of disposal: The property can be disposed of by either destruction, confiscation or delivering or giving the property to a person claiming to be entitled to such property and thus restoring it to the dispossessed, selling it off, etc.
• The court, however, has no jurisdiction to direct the disposal of any property without producing it before the court in either physical or symbolic form. The symbolic production is done by filing records or reports about such a seizure.
• The order under Section 451 of the CrPC is an interlocutory one in nature but not final. This is because it needs to be revised in some occasions, depending on the circumstances.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

• It is the fundamental force-carrying particle of the Higgs field, responsible for granting fundamental particles their mass.

  • Correct. The Higgs Boson is indeed the quantum excitation of the Higgs field, and interactions with this field give particles their mass.

• It is one of the elementary particles that make up the Standard Model of particle physics.

  • Correct. The Higgs Boson is an elementary particle in the Standard Model.

• It has a positive charge with zero spin.

  • Incorrect. The Higgs Boson is electrically neutral and has zero spin (it is a scalar particle).

The correct answer is: Only two

Two people recently drowned in the Tons River while bathing in UP’s Ballia.

About Tons River:

• It is the largest and most important tributary of the Yamuna.
• It is one of the most perennial rivers emerging from the Himalayas. 
• Course:
• Tons River originates at a height of 6,315 metres from the Bandarpunch Mountain in Uttarakhand.
• It flows through the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand and touches Himachal Pradesh.
• Surging from that great height, the glacier-fed river’s course ends when it meets the Yamuna River.
• It joins Yamuna near Kalsi in the Dehradun district, Uttarakhand. 
• It has a length of about 200 km.
• Along the way, the river cuts through deep gorges, tranquil valleys, and dense forests.
• Tons, even being a tributary, contribute more water than Yamuna itself possesses at the point of meeting. 
• Tributaries: The Pabbar and Asan rivers are the main tributaries of the Tons River.
• The Tons Valley is also culturally significant, inhabited by indigenous communities like the Jaunsari and Bhotiya tribes, who have their own unique traditions, dialects, and lifestyles.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Recently, the Supreme Court has invoked curative writ petition in reviving the 2019 Delhi High Court judgment that partially set aside the Delhi Metro arbitration award, is a sparingly used judicial innovation to correct a “grave miscarriage of justice”.

• It is the final and last option for the people to acquire justice as mentioned and promised by the Constitution of India.
• It is a way to ask the court to review and revise its own decision, and it is filed after a review petition is dismissed or used.
• Objective: It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice and to prevent abuse of process.
• Background
• The concept of curative petition originated from the case of Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs. Ashok Hurra and another case (2002) where the following question arose before the court of law: 'whether an aggrieved person is entitled to any relief against the final judgment/order of the Supreme Court, after the dismissal of a review petition?'.
• In this case, a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that in order to rectify gross miscarriage of justice, the court will allow the curative petition filed by the victim.
• Constitutional Background
• The Article 137 of the Indian Constitution broadly supports the idea of a curative petition.
• It states that the "Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced (or order made) by it if the matter concerns the laws and rules made under Article 145".
• These petitions can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order.
• It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias.
• Hearing of Curative petitions
• A curative petition must first be circulated to a bench of the three senior-most judges and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available.
• Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed, as far as possible, before the same bench.
• A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chamber, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed.
• It shall be open to the Bench at any stage of consideration of the curative petition to ask a senior counsel to assist it as amicus curiae.
• In the event of the bench holding at any stage that the petition is without any merit and vexatious, it may impose exemplary costs on the petitioner.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

In a bid to manage the teeming population of invasive chital (spotted deer) in Ross Island the Andaman and Nicobar Islands administration recently sought help from the Wildlife Institute of India.

• These are the species whose introduction and/or spread outside their natural past or present distribution threaten biological diversity.
• These include animals, plants, fungi, and even microorganisms, and can influence all kinds of ecosystems.
• These species need an introduction either through natural or human intervention, survive on native food resources, reproduce at a fast rate, and edge out native species in the competition over resources.
• Invasive species act as disruptors in the food chain and disturb the balance of the ecosystem. In habitats where there is no competition, invasive species can dominate the entire ecosystem.
• Characteristics: Common characteristics of IAS include rapid reproduction and growth, high dispersal ability, phenotypic plasticity (ability to adapt physiologically to new conditions), and ability to survive on various food types and in a wide range of environmental conditions.
• Areas more susceptible for Invasive Alien species are;
• Native ecosystems that have undergone human-induced disturbance are often more prone to alien invasions because there is less competition from native species.
• Islands are especially vulnerable to IAS because they are naturally isolated from strong competitors and predators.
• Islands often have ecological niches that have not been filled because of the distance from colonizing populations, increasing the probability of successful invasions.
• The list of invasive wildlife in India is dominated by certain species of fish such as the African catfish, Nile tilapia, red-bellied piranha, and alligator gar, and turtle species such as the red-eared slider.

Hence both statements are correct.

In a groundbreaking conservation endeavour, the Global Society for the Preservation of Baobabs and Mangroves (GSPBM) has initiated a mission to rejuvenate the iconic baobab trees in Madagascar.

• It is a long-lived deciduous, small to large tree with broad trunks and compact tops which is also known as the upside-down tree.
• Distribution:
• There are 9 species of baobab tree. Two are native to mainland Africa, six to Madagascar, and one to Australia. 
• Mandu, in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, is perhaps the only place in India where baobab trees are found in abundance.
• Features:
• It can live to become thousands of years old.
• They only have very faint growth rings. Mature trees have massive trunks that are bottle-shaped or cylindrical and tapered from bottom to top.
• The fruit of the tree is round or oval-shaped and is highly nutritious.
• It is also known as ‘Tree of Life’.
• Ecological significance
• Baobabs are keystone species in Madagascar's unique landscapes.
• Their massive trunks and extensive root systems are vital for storing water in arid environments, providing a critical resource for both the trees and the surrounding ecosystem during drought periods.
• This ability to store water enables baobabs to support a wide array of life, from microorganisms to larger animals, fostering biodiversity in their habitats.

Hence both statements are correct.

The Rs 5-trillion domestic fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) market still faces hurdles on its path to complete recovery from the current slowdown.

About Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG):

• FMCG, or Consumer Packaged Goods (CPG), are products sold quickly and at a relatively low cost. 
• The FMCG industry is characterized by high-volume sales, quick inventory turnover, and various products catering to consumer needs. 
• These goods include essential everyday items such as food and beverages, toiletries, cleaning supplies, and other low-cost household items.
• FMCGs have a short shelf life because of high consumer demand (e.g., soft drinks and confections) or because they are perishable (e.g., meat, dairy products, and baked goods).
• FMCG Industry in India:
• The FMCG sector is the fourth-largest sector in the Indian economy.
• In 2022, the urban sector accounted for 65% of the overall annual FMCG sales, while rural India contributed over 35%.
• Household and personal care products make up 50% of the industry’s sales, healthcare claims 31-32%, and food and beverage products account for the remaining 18-19%.
• It provides employment to around 3 million people, accounting for approximately 5% of the total factory employment in India. 

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The NIIF has invested $200 million in iBUS Network and Infrastructure Pvt Ltd., a connectivity technology firm, to support the growth of India’s digital infrastructure.

About the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF):

• NIIF is a fund manager that invests in infrastructure and related sectors in India.
• It is India’s first-ever Sovereign Wealth Fund (SWF), which was set up in 2015.
• An institution anchored by the Government of India, NIIF is a collaborative investment platform for international and Indian investors with a mandate to invest equity capital in domestic infrastructure.
• NIIF invests across asset classes such as infrastructure, private equity, and other diversified sectors in India, with the objective of generating attractive risk-adjusted returns for its investors.
• It invests in greenfield (new), brownfield (existing) and stalled projects.
• NIIF is 49% owned by the Indian Government and has more than $4.9 billion in assets under management, making it the country’s biggest infrastructure fund.
• NIIF benefits from its association with the Government yet is independent in its investment decisions.
• It is majority-owned by institutional investors and managed professionally by a team with experience in investments and infrastructure.
• The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and are currently raising capital from domestic and international institutional investors.
• NIIF manages capital invested currently through four funds:
• NIIF Master Fund: This fund primarily invests in infra-related projects such as roads, ports, airports, and power. It is the largest infrastructure fund in India.
• NIIF Private Markets Fund:  Invests in funds managed by third-party managers in infrastructure and associated sectors.
• NIIF Strategic Opportunities Fund: It invests and develops large-scale businesses and greenfield projects that are of strategic importance to the country.
• India-Japan
• Fund: NIIF’s first bilateral fundinvests in environment preservation in India.
• It also seeks to enable opportunities for collaboration between Indian and Japanese companies in India.  
• The Fund has a target corpus of US$600 million, with the Government of India contributing 49% and the remaining 51% contributed by the Japan Bank for International Cooperation, a policy-based financial institution wholly owned by the Government of Japan.

Hence option c is the correct answer.