Daily Current Affairs MCQ- May 31, 2024 - UPSC MCQ

The study, published in the British Ecological Society’s Journal of Applied Ecology, found that MPAs designated to protect diadromous fish species did not align with their core habitats.

• These are those fish species which migrate between saltwater and freshwater environments.
• Some of the examples for diadromous fish: the allis shad (Alosa alosa), twait shad (Alosa fal- lax), Mediterranean twaite shad (Alosa agone) and the European eel (Anguilla anguilla) etc.
• In order to better understand these movements, scientists have classified these migrations into several categories.
• Anadromous fish: These are born in freshwater, then migrate to the ocean as juveniles where they grow into adults before migrating back into freshwater to spawn.
• Catadromous fish: These are born in saltwater, then migrate into freshwater as juveniles where they grow into adults before migrating back into the ocean to spawn.
• Amphidromous fish: These are born in freshwater/estuaries, then drift into the ocean as larvae before migrating back into freshwater to grow into adults and spawn.
• Potamodromous fish: These are born in upstream freshwater habitats, then migrate downstream (still in freshwater) as juveniles to grow into adults before migrating back upstream to spawn.
• Threats: Diadromous fish are sensitive to anthropogenic pressures. They are subjected to terrestrial, freshwater, and marine pressures such as agricultural and pollutant runoffs, habitat destruction, barriers to migration, fishing, bycatch, and climate change.

Hence both statements are correct.

Researchers at the Department of Biochemistry, Indian Institute of Science, have developed a novel method for the production of recombinant proteins.

• These are proteins encoded by recombinant DNA that has been cloned in an expression vector that supports expression of the gene and translation of messenger RNA.
• Modification of the gene by recombinant DNA technology can lead to expression of a mutant protein.
• It is a manipulated form of native protein, which is generated in various ways in order to increase production of proteins, modify gene sequences, and manufacture useful commercial products.
• It is created by fusing sequences that may not be normally present in an organism.
• Recombinant proteins, such as vaccine antigens, insulin and monoclonal antibodies, are mass-produced by growing modified bacterial, viral or mammalian cells in large bioreactors. The most widely used organism is the yeast Pichia pastoris (now called Komagataella phaffii).
• Application of Recombinant Proteins
• It used in biomedical research to understand health and disease.
• It is used in biotherapeutics.
• It is used to produce protein-based polymers for drug delivery, antibodies and enzymes for disease treatment, protein scaffolds for tissue engineering etc.

What is protein?

• It is the workhorse in biological systems facilitating most of biological processes in a cell, including gene expression, cell growth, proliferation, nutrient uptake, intercellular communication and apoptosis.
• The blue print for protein synthesis is stored in DNA, which serves as a template for highly regulated transcriptional processes to produce messenger RNA (mRNA). 

Hence both statements are correct.

In a world-first, Japanese researchers have built a tiny wooden satellite named LignoSat that will be launched into space in September. 

• LignoSat”, a fusion of “ligno” (the Latin word for wood) and “satellite”,.
• It is developed by the collaborative research and development by a team comprising members from Kyoto University and Sumitomo Forestry Co.
• Objective: Their objective is to leverage the eco-friendliness and cost-effectiveness of wood in space exploration.
• It is constructed from magnolia wood, chosen for its durability and adaptability.
• Why wood is used? : Wooden satellites are viewed as more environmentally friendly upon reentering the Earth's atmosphere at the conclusion of their mission. Unlike metal satellites, which pose air pollution risks due to the generation of metal particles during reentry, wooden satellites mitigate these concerns.
• It will first be sent to the International Space Station (ISS) aboard a SpaceX rocket from the Kennedy Space Center.
• Once it reaches the ISS, it will be released from the Japanese experiment module to test its durability and strength.
• Researchers will receive data from the satellite to monitor its performance, including signs of strain and its ability to withstand extreme temperature changes.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Recently, Global food policy report 2024: Food systems for healthy diets and nutrition was released by International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)

Key highlights of Global food policy report 2024:

• It mentions that at least 38 per cent of the Indian population ate unhealthy foods, while only 28 per cent ate all five recommended food groups, which include at least one starchy staple food, one vegetable, one fruit, one pulse, nut or seed and one animal-source food.
• The consumption of such calorie-dense and nutrient-poor foods was not only high but was also increasing, while the consumption of vegetables and other micronutrient-rich foods was low.
• In India and other South Asian countries, consumption of processed foods is on the rise. After cereals and milk, snacks and prepared foods accounted for the majority of Indian food budgets.
• In India, the proportion of the population suffering from malnutrition increased from 15.4% in 2011 to 16.6% by 2021.
• The prevalence of overweight in adults increased from 12.9% in 2006 to 16.4% in 2016. 
• Similarly, the share of packaged (highly processed and calorie-dense) foods in household food budgets nearly doubled during this period, to 12 per cent from 6.5 per cent. 
• In the South Asian region, the report highlighted that micronutrient-rich foods were expensive, whereas cereals, fats and oils, sugar, and sugary and salty snacks were relatively inexpensive. 

Key facts about the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) 

• It was established in 1975 and provides research-based policy solutions to sustainably reduce poverty and end hunger and malnutrition in developing countries.
• It is a research centre of CGIAR, which is the world’s largest agricultural innovation network.
• It is not a UN affiliated organization.
• Its research focuses on five strategic research areas:
• Fostering Climate-Resilient and Sustainable Food Supply
• Promoting Healthy Diets and Nutrition for Al
• Building Inclusive and Efficient Markets, Trade Systems, and Food Industry
• Transforming Agricultural and Rural Economies
• Strengthening Institutions and Governance
• Headquarters: Washington, D.C

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

A 32-year-old woman was killed by a tiger in the buffer zone of the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) in Maharashtra's Chandrapur district recently.

About Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve:

• Location: It is located in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra.
• It includes Tadoba National Park and Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary.
• It is the largest and oldest Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra. 
• The total area of the reserve is 625.4 sq. km.
• The origin of the name "Tadoba" lies with the name of the god "Tadoba" or "Taru", worshipped by the tribes that live in the dense forests of the Tadoba and Andhari regions. "Andhari" refers to the Andhari River that meanders through the forest.
• Corridor: The reserve has corridor linkages with Nagzira-Navegaon and Pench Tiger Reserves within the State.
• Biogeographically, the reserve falls in the Central Plateau province of the Deccan Peninsula.
• Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous 
• There are two lakes and one waterway in the reserve, Tadoba Lake, Kolsa Lake, and the Tadoba River.
• Flora: Bamboo, Teak, Ain, Bija, Dhauda, Haldu, Salai, Semal, and Tendu. Bamboo and Teak dominate the reserve.
• Fauna:
• The notable faunal species include the tiger, leopard, sloth bear, wild dog, gaur, chital, and sambar.
• As many as 280 species of birds are found, apart from reptiles (54 species), amphibians (11 species), and fishes (84 species).

Hence option d is the correct answer.

A cryonics company has frozen its first client in Australia in the hope of bringing him back to life in the future.

About Cryonics:

• Cryonics, the practice of freezing an individual who has died, with the object of reviving the individual sometime in the future.
• The word cryonics is derived from the Greek krýos, meaning “icy cold.”
• It is an effort to save lives by using temperatures so cold that a person beyond help by today’s medicine can be preserved for decades or centuries until a future medical technology can restore that person to full health.
• A person that is held in such a state is called a “cryopreserved patient”, because Cryonicists (the advocates of cryonics) do not regard the cryopreserved person as really dead.
• Cryonic preservation can be performed only after an individual has been declared legally dead.
• The process is initiated shortly after death, with the body being packed in ice and shipped to a cryonics facility.
• There, the  blood  is drained from the body and replaced with antifreeze and organ-preserving compounds known as cryoprotective agents.
• In this vitrified state, the body is placed in a chamber filled with liquid nitrogen, where it will theoretically stay preserved at -196 °C until scientists are able to find a way to resuscitate the body in the future.
• Currently, there are a few hundred bodies that have been frozen through cryonics. 

Hence option c is the correct answer.

An Indian Air Force (IAF) contingent recently arrived at the Eielson Air Force Base in Alaska to participate in the prestigious multi-national exercise, Red Flag 24.

About Red Flag 24:

• It is a two-week advanced aerial combat training exercise aimed at integrating aircrew in a multinational environment.
• It is designed to replicate a realistic and challenging environment, bringing together aircrew and equipment from different nations and services.
• Approximately 3100 service members are expected to fly, maintain, and support more than 100 aircraft during the exercise.
• The IAF deployed Rafale fighter jets for the Red Flag 24 exercise.
• The exercises can be adapted to integrate various forces into a realistic threat environment using the more than 77,000 square miles of airspace in the Joint Pacific Alaska Range Complex, which is the largest combat training range in the world.
• Since its inception in 1975, Red Flag exercises are designed to create a comprehensive learning environment by simulating realistic combat scenarios.
• There are two distinct Red Flag exercise locations: Nellis Air Force Base in Nevada and Eielson Air Force Base in Alaska. 
• The Nevada exercise is organized by the United States Air Force Warfare Center (USAFWC), while the Alaska exercise is managed by the Pacific Air Forces (PACAF), the air component command of the United States’ Indo-Pacific Command (USINDOPACOM).

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education, Government of India, is set to conduct the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT) as part of the ULLAS - Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram on 17th March 2024, across 23 states.

• The Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society (ULLAS) initiative is poised to revolutionise education and literacy across the nation.
• It is done by fostering a learning ecosystem that reaches every individual, bridging the gaps in basic literacy and critical life skills.
• It imparts basic education, digital and financial literacy and critical life skills to citizens aged 15 and above who lost on the opportunity to go to school. It is being implemented through volunteerism.
• The objectives of the scheme is to impart not only Foundational Literacy and Numeracy but also to cover other components which are necessary for a citizen of 21 st century such as 
• Critical Life Skills (including financial literacy, digital literacy, commercial skills, health care and awareness, child care and education, and family welfare); 
• Vocational Skills Development (with a view towards obtaining local employment); 
• Basic Education (including preparatory, middle, and secondary stage equivalency)
• Continuing Education (including engaging holistic adult education courses in arts, sciences, technology, culture, sports, and recreation, as well as other topics of interest or use to local learners, such as more advanced material on critical life skills).
• ULLAS app  which is user-friendly and interactive app available both on android and ios.
• It will serve as a digital gateway for learners to engage in diverse learning resources through the DIKSHA portal of NCERT.
• The ULLAS app can be used for registration of learners and volunteers either through self-registration or by surveyors.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Ministry of Home Affairs has consistently ranked amongst the top 10 ministries in 2023-24 in the Grievance Redressal Assessment Index (GRAI), performing well in all 15 specified indicators.

• It was conceptualised and designed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Government of India.
• Objective: To present an organisation-wise comparative picture and provide valuable insights about strengths and areas of improvement regarding the grievance redressal mechanism.
• It is based on a comprehensive index in the dimensions of Efficiency, Feedback, Domain and Organisational Commitment
• It uses data from the Centralised Public Grievance Redressal and Management System (CPGRAMS).

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The Supreme Court recently held that an accused would not be entitled to pre-arrest bail if the non-bailable warrant and the proclamation under Section 82(1) Cr.P.C. is pending against him.

About Section 82 of Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C):

• It provides for the issuing of a proclamation in a case where the court has reason to believe that the person has concealed himself or has absconded in order to evade the execution of warrants issued against him.
• The court may form its opinion suo motu from the material on a record or on the presentation of evidence by the prosecution.
• Through a written proclamation, the court orders the accused to appear at a specific place, and a specific time should be given; it should not be less than 30 days from the date of publishing of the proclamation. 
• It can only be invoked as a matter of last resort where the power of issuing warrants has been exhausted by the court. 
• The provisions under this section are not for punishing the accused but have the sole purpose of compelling him to appear before the court. 
• Therefore, a proclamation cannot be issued without first issuing a warrant. 
• The issuing of the proclamation cannot be done in an arbitrary manner, but there should be reasons recorded by the court to substantiate the order of the proclamation.
• Subsection (2) of Section 82 deals with the procedure through which a proclamation is issued. The provision provides that the proclamation shall be published as follows:
• It is read in some conspicuous place in the town or village where the accused person ordinarily resides.  
• It is affixed at some conspicuous part of the house where such a person ordinarily resides. It can also be fixed in some conspicuous part of town or village. 
• It shall be affixed at a conspicuous part of the courthouse. 
• The proclamation can also be circulated through a daily newspaper circulated in the place where the person ordinarily resides. 
• Proclaimed Offender:
• A person who is accused of serious offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, if he fails to appear as per the requirements of the proclamation, the court can declare him a proclaimed offender after inquiring into the matter.
• A police officer can arrest a person who has been declared a proclaimed offender without any warrant. 
• Even a private person can arrest a proclaimed offender and present him to the nearest police station.
• The title of proclaimed offender ceases to exist as soon as the person is arrested or otherwise becomes capable of being presented before the court.
• Section 174A of the IPC, 1860, also provides that where a person has been declared a proclaimed offender under Section 82 of the CrPC, he shall be liable for a term of imprisonment that may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to a fine in tandem with such a punishment. 

Hence option c is the correct answer.