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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - UPSC MCQ


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10 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 1

Consider the following statements with reference to the IceCube observatory:

1. It is a device located at the South Pole of Earth.

2. It detects the subatomic particles called Neutrinos.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 1

Scientists using data from the IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica believe they have potentially found the first evidence for astrophysical tau neutrinos, called "ghost particles"

  • It is a device at the earth’s South Pole that detects subatomic particles called neutrinos.
  • It was built and is maintained by the IceCube Collaboration, which consists of many universities worldwide led by the University of Wisconsin, Madison.
  • It consists of thousands of sensors buried more than 1.4 km beneath the ice plus multiple detectors above the surface.
  • IceCube is the world’s biggest ‘neutrino telescope’; its sensors are distributed throughout a cubic kilometre of ice.
  • Working
  • When a neutrino interacts with the ice surrounding the sensors, it may produce some charged particles and some radiation.
  • The sensors detect the radiation to infer the detection of a neutrino and use the radiation’s properties to understand more about the particle.
  • Neutrinos come in different types. IceCube can identify some of them in real-time.
  • For others, IceCube collects data for many years and scientists then comb through them to find neutrino interaction events.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Bugun Liocichla:

1. It is a bird found only in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.

2. It is categorized as a ‘critically endangered’ species under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 2

Buguns, one of the major tribes, mainly living adjacent to Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh's have set an example by donating 1,470 hectares of forest land to the state forest department, giving a push to efforts for protection of Bugun Liocichla bird.

  • It is a small babbler (only 20 cm) with olive-grey plumage and black cap.
  • It has become an attraction of the birdwatchers since it was discovered as a new bird species in 2006.
  • It is found only in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary landscape and nowhere else in the world. 
  • The avian species is critically endangered with only 14 individual birds spotted so far in the Braiduah village under the Singchung sub-division.
  • As a major step towards conservation, the Arunachal Pradesh government finally notified Braiduah Community Reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
  • The reserve is situated adjacent to the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.

Hence both statements are correct.

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement:

1. It sets out a target of a $100 billion investment into India from the European Free Trade Association countries.

2. Under this partnership, India is not mandated to eliminate tariffs on various products.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 3

The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) is the latest in India’s recent Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) which ventures into some uncharted territory.

  • It is the latest in India’s Free Trade Agreements.
  • Features
  • Investment: TEPA sets out a target of a $100 billion investment into India from EFTA countries and consequent one million jobs over a 15-year period.
  • It also provides India the ability to withdraw its tariff concessions if such expected investment is not achieved.
  • If India is not satisfied, it can pull back its tariff concessions in a proportionate manner after 18 years.
  • Trade in goods: India is mandated to eliminate tariff on most products within seven to 10 years.
  • With regard to India’s exports to EFTA, there will be no material impact since most products face very low or zero tariff for nations which have the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status in EFTA countries.
  • Trade in services: On services, both India and the EFTA members have committed to liberalisation across a wide range of sectors.
  • Sustainable development: The TEPA’s chapter on Trade and Sustainable Development (TSD), comprising commitments on environment and labour aspects, represents a first for India in any FTA.
  • The TSD chapter refers to a range of multilateral environmental agreements and labour conventions, whose implementation is based on a balance of rights and obligations.
  • Intellectual Property Rights (IPR): The EFTA countries are home to several pharmaceutical and high technology MNCs, whose ask has been commitments on protection of IPRs that exceed the WTO’s Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
  • The TEPA’s IPR Annex requires swift rejection of “prima facie unfounded” oppositions. This potentially opens up India’s internal regulatory process to external scrutiny on whether this standard was met.
  • Similarly, a statutory requirement under Indian law is filing of an annual statement on working of a patent.
  • The TEPA mandates that this periodicity be increased to three years, with annual statements to be required only in specified cases, which potentially raises the concern that the statutory requirement as it exists under Indian law, may need reconsideration to make it case specific.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 4

Consider the following statements with reference to the wearable devices:

1. These are electronic devices that can be worn as accessories and implanted in the user's body.

2. They are able to replicate the functionality offered by a smartwatch.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 4

Samsung officially announced the launch of a new smart ring-shaped wearable device, Galaxy Ring, as part of its Galaxy Unpacked event earlier this year.

  • Wearable technology, also known as "wearables," is a category of electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, embedded in clothing, implanted in the user's body, or even tattooed on the skin.
  • Wearable devices come in many shapes and sizes, including smart watches and sports watches, fitness trackers, head-mounted displays, smart jewellery, smart clothing, and even implantable devices.
  • At a minimum, wearable devices are equipped with sensors, software and connecting technology.
  • Working
  • The sensors gather information from the person wearing the device, and the software gathers the data and sends it to a device with processing capacity via a wireless connection.
  • The ecosystem on which wearable technology works is known as the Internet of Things (IoT).
  • It is the same principle as smart technology used at home, on devices such as thermostats that can be operated from a mobile device outside the home, or smart speakers, but applied at a personal level.
  • What makes an IoT solution even more attractive is the interpretation of the data gathered by the sensors.
  • Benefits
  • Smart rings can provide more accurate readings than smartwatches, because they can use the capillaries (small blood vessels) in your finger to get their readings.
  • Another advantage of smart rings is that they have a longer battery life than smartwatches.
  • Drawbacks
  • Smart rings can't and won't be able to replicate the functionality offered by a smartwatch.
  • Smart rings are unlikely to come with GPS or a screen.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):

1. It is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.

2. It provides for licensing, registration and accreditation for food business operators.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 5

With food poisoning and diarrhoea becoming a common occurrence, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is working towards creating a network of 34 microbiology labs across the country that will be equipped to test food products for 10 pathogens.

About Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):

  • It is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
  • The FSSAI has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and regulation in India.
  • Vision: Build a new India by enabling citizens to have safe and nutritious foodprevent diseases, and lead a healthy and happy life.
  • MissionSet globally benchmarked standards for food, encourage and ensure that food businesses adhere to these standards, adopt good manufacturing and hygiene practices, and ultimately enable citizens to access safe and right food.
  • Functions:
  • FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
  • It lays down standards and guidelines in relation to articles of food, and provides for licensing, registration, and accreditation for food business operators.
  • Anyone selling or importing food in India needs a food licence issued by FSSAI.
  • FSSAI also directly monitors compliance of food regulationsespecially in the area of food imports to India. 
  • FSSAI officers carry out food import controls and ensure that the contain no harmful ingredients. To do this, they send selected test products from the import to accredited laboratories for inspection.
  • The FSSAI is also responsible for the accreditation of food testing laboratories throughout India.
  • The FSSAI is responsible for the Food Certification in India.
  • It is mandated to specify systems for enforcing its standards, for accreditation of certification systems, and for certification of food safety management systems for food businesses.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 6

Consider the following statements with reference to equinoxes:

1. The March equinox occurs when the Southern Hemisphere starts to tilt toward the sun.

2. In the Northern Hemisphere, the March equinox signals the beginning of spring.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 6

March 19 marked the spring or vernal equinox, the first day of spring in the Northern Hemisphere.

About Spring Equinox:

  • As Earth revolves around the Sun, there are two moments each year when the Sun is exactly above the equator.
  • These moments — called equinoxes — occur around March 19, 20 or 21 and September 22 or 23. 
  • Equinox literally means “equal night," since the length of day and night is nearly equal in all parts of the world during the equinoxes.
  • The March equinox marks when the Northern Hemisphere starts to tilt toward the sun, which means longer, sunnier days. 
  • In the Northern Hemisphere, the March equinox is called the vernal equinox, because it signals the beginning of spring (vernal means fresh or new like the spring).
  • The September equinox is called the autumnal equinox because it marks the first day of fall (autumn).
  • When the Northern Hemisphere starts to tilt toward the sun in spring, the Southern Hemisphere starts to tilt away from the sunsignaling the start of fall.
  • Thus, in the Southern Hemisphere, the March equinox is called the autumnal equinox, and the September equinox is called the vernal equinox.
  • While the March equinox brings later sunrises, earlier sunsets, chillier winds and dryfalling leaves in the Southern Hemisphere, while the reverse happens in the Northern Hemisphere.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 7

Consider the following statements with reference to the International Seabed Authority (ISA):

1. It is an autonomous international organization to regulate mining and related activities within the territorial waters of member countries.

2. It came into existence upon the entry into force of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 7

The Council of the International Seabed Authority (ISA) commenced the first part of its 29th session recently. 

About International Seabed Authority (ISA):

  • It is an autonomous international organization established in 1994 to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction, an area that includes most of the world’s oceans.
  • The ISA came into existence upon the entry into force of the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which codified international law regarding territorial waters, sea lanes, and ocean resources
  • ISA is the organization through which states parties to UNCLOS organize and control all mineral-resources-related activities in the Area (the seabed and ocean floor and the subsoil thereof, beyond the limits of national jurisdiction) for the benefit of humankind as a whole. 
  • In so doing, ISA has the mandate to ensure the effective protection of the marine environment from harmful effects that may arise from deep-seabed-related activities.
  • Headquarters: Kingston, Jamaica
  • Members: As of May 2023, ISA has 169 Members, including 168 Member States and the European Union.
  • Functions:
  • The ISA is responsible for granting licenses and regulating activities related to the exploration and exploitation of mineral resources in the international seabed. 
  • It ensures that these activities are carried out in a manner that protects the marine environment and promotes the equitable and efficient utilization of resources.
  • Structure:
  • The supreme authority of the ISA is the assembly, in which all ISA members are represented. 
  • The assembly sets general policies, establishes budgets, and elects a 36-member council, which serves as the ISA’s executive authority. 
  • The council approves contracts with private corporations and government entities for exploration and mining in specified areas of the international seabed.
  • The council oversees implementation of the seabed provisions of the UNCLOS and establishes provisional rules and procedures (subject to approval by the assembly) by which the ISA exercises its regulatory authority
  • The secretary-general of the ISA is nominated by the council and is elected by the assembly to a four-year term.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 8

In the context of Indian economy, the term ‘reverse flipping’ refers to:

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 8

Startups such as Pine Labs, Zepto, Meesho are the latest new-age companies looking to move headquarters to India.

About Reverse Flipping:

  • It is a term used to describe the trend of overseas start-ups shifting their domicile to India and listing on Indian stock exchanges. 
  • The general motivation for a reverse flip is the increased certainty of an exit at a higher valuation in India. 
  • This trend has been gaining traction in recent years, as start-ups look to capitalise on India’s large and growing economy, access to deeper pools of venture capitalfavourable tax regimes, better intellectual property protection, a young and educated population, and favourable government policies
  • The Economic Survey 2022-23 recognised the concept of reverse flipping and proposed ways to accelerate the process, such as simplifying the processes for tax vacations, taxation of ESOPs, capital movements, decreasing tax layers, and the like.

What is flipping: 

  • Flipping is when an Indian company transforms into a 100% subsidiary of a foreign entity after it has moved its headquarters overseas, including a transfer of its Intellectual Property (IP) and others.
  • It effectively transforms an Indian startup (company) into a 100% subsidiary of a foreign entity, with the founders and investors retaining the same ownership via the foreign entity, having swapped all shares.
  • What’s the harm to India from flipping?
  • Brain drain of entrepreneurial talent from India.
  • It results in value creation in foreign jurisdictions rather than in India.
  • It also results in the loss of Intellectual Property and Tax Revenue for the country.

Hence option d is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI):

1. It is an agricultural research institute under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). 

2. It undertakes research on coconut, arecanut, cocoa and palmyra palm.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 9

The Union Minister of State for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare recently inaugurated the Krishi Sammelan (Farmer's Meet), organised by the ICAR-Central Plantation Crops Research Institute.

About Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI):

  • It was established by the Government of Madras in 1916 for coconut research.
  • Later, it was acquired by the Indian Central Coconut Committee in 1947.
  • The CPCRI was established in 1970 as one of the agricultural research institutes in the National Agricultural Research System (NARS) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). 
  • Headquarters: Kasaragod, Kerala
  • Mandate:
  • The institute had the mandate to undertake research on coconut, arecanut, cocoa, cashew, oil palm, and spices at the time of establishment. 
  • The research on cashew, oil palm and spices was later delinked from CPCRI to form separate institutes.
  • In 2023, a new mandate crop, Palmyra Palm, was added to its institute.
  • The research programmes of the institute are organized under five divisions viz. Crop Improvement, Crop Production, Crop Protection, Physiology, Biochemistry and Post Harvest Technology and Social Sciences. 
  • The Institute also holds the International Coconut Gene Bank for South Asia at Kidu in Karnataka. 
  • The Institute also serves as the headquarters of the All-India Co-ordinated Research Project (AICRP) on Palms.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 10

What is biomining primarily used for?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 5, 2024 - Question 10

Delhi's biomining project to clear landfill sites is likely to miss the latest deadline of 2024.

About Biomining:

  • It is the technique of extracting metals from ores and other solid materials, typically using micro-organisms (bacteria, archae, fungi, or plants).
  • Biomining techniques may also be used to clean up sites that have been polluted with metals.
  • Process:
  • Valuable metals are commonly bound up in solid minerals.
  • Some microbes can oxidize those metalsallowing them to dissolve in water.
  • This is the basic process behind most biomining, which is used for metals that can be more easily recovered when dissolved than from solid rocks.
  • A different biomining technique, for metals which are not dissolved by the microbes, uses microbes to break down the surrounding mineralsmaking it easier to recover the metal of interest directly from the remaining rock.
  • When the metal of interest is directly dissolved, the biomining process is called “bioleaching,” and when the metal of interest is made more accessible or “enriched” in the material left behind, it is called “bio oxidation.” 
  • What metals are currently biomined?
  • Most current biomining operations target valuable metals like copper, uranium, nickel and gold that are commonly found in sulfidic (sulfur-bearing) minerals.
  • Microbes are especially good at oxidizing sulfidic minerals, converting metals like iron and copper into forms that can dissolve more easily.
  • Compared to typical mining that uses hazardous chemicals and has a large CO2 footprint, biomining represents an environmentally friendly alternative, producing very little (if at all) hazardous waste. 

Hence option c is the correct answer.

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