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Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - UPSC MCQ


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15 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs)

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) for UPSC 2024 is part of Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly preparation. The Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) below.
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Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 1

Consider the following pairs:

1. Death on Duty Compensation: Rs 1 crore

2. Technological Integration: Leveraging tech-savvy younger recruits

3. Educational requirement: Minimum 10+2

4. Economic Impact: Reducing pension bill

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 1

- Pair 1: Death on Duty Compensation: Rs 1 crore

- Correct. The family of an Agniveer gets a combined sum of Rs 1 crore in case of death on duty.

- Pair 2: Technological Integration: Leveraging tech-savvy younger recruits

- Correct. The scheme aims to leverage the tech-savviness of younger recruits to better integrate emerging technologies into the Armed Forces.

- Pair 3: Educational requirement: Minimum 10+2

- Incorrect. The current educational requirement for Agniveers is 10th grade, not 10+2. There is a suggestion to raise it to 10+2, but it is not implemented yet.

- Pair 4: Economic Impact: Reducing pension bill

- Correct. One of the goals of the Agnipath scheme is to reduce the pension bill by having a shorter service duration for most recruits.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Automotive Research Association of India (ARAI) was established in 1966 by the Ministry of Heavy Industries as the leading automotive R&D organization in the country.
Statement-II:
The Department of Scientific and Industrial Research, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, has recognized ARAI as a Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation (SIRO).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 2


- Statement-I accurately describes the establishment of the Automotive Research Association of India (ARAI) in 1966 by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
- Statement-II explains that the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, has recognized ARAI as a Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation (SIRO), providing additional context to the establishment and recognition of ARAI.

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Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) are released in the form of grants directly to MPs.

Statement-II:
The liability of funds not released in a particular year under MPLADS is not carried forward to subsequent years.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 3

Statement-I is incorrect because funds under MPLADS are released directly to district authorities, not to MPs. Statement-II is correct as the liability of funds not released in a particular year under MPLADS is carried forward to subsequent years, as per the details provided in the context.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 4

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The NOTA option on electronic voting machines (EVMs) was introduced by the Election Commission of India in 2013 to protect the secrecy of voters' choices.

Statement-II: The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of the NOTA option to ensure that whether a voter decides to cast a vote or not, secrecy must be maintained to uphold the integrity of elections.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 4

Both statements are accurate. Statement-I highlights the introduction of the NOTA option by the Election Commission of India in 2013 to safeguard voters' choice secrecy. Statement-II emphasizes the Supreme Court's directive to maintain secrecy regardless of whether a voter casts a vote or opts not to, ensuring the integrity of the electoral process.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 5

Consider the following pairs:

1. Agniveer: Permanent commissioned officer

2. Disability Compensation: Up to Rs 44 lakh

3. Pension for Agniveers: Provided after 4-year service

4. Age limit for Agniveer recruitment: 17.5 to 23 years

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 5

- Pair 1: Agniveer: Permanent commissioned officer

- Incorrect. Agniveer is a new military rank for personnel below officer ranks, not a permanent commissioned officer.

- Pair 2: Disability Compensation: Up to Rs 44 lakh

- Correct. An Agniveer can receive compensation up to Rs 44 lakh depending on the severity of the disability.

- Pair 3: Pension for Agniveers: Provided after 4-year service

- Incorrect. Agniveers won’t receive a regular pension after their 4-year service; only the 25% who get selected for permanent commission will be eligible for a pension.

- Pair 4: Age limit for Agniveer recruitment: 17.5 to 23 years

- Correct. Candidates between the age of 17.5 years to 23 years are eligible to apply.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 6

Consider the following statements:

  1. In the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, a member from the panel of Chairmen presides over the House.
  2. The Speaker can allow a 'secret' sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the House.
  3. The Speaker's decisions on procedural matters can be challenged in the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 6
  • Statement 1 is correct: In the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, a member from the panel of Chairmen presides over the House. However, this member cannot preside when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Speaker can indeed allow a 'secret' sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the House. During such sittings, no stranger can be present in the chamber, lobby, or galleries except with the permission of the Speaker.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Speaker's decisions on procedural matters within the House are not subject to the jurisdiction of any court, including the Supreme Court of India. This ensures the Speaker's authority in maintaining order and conducting business in the House.
Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 7

What is the primary responsibility of Panchayats in India concerning socio-economic development?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 7

Panchayats in India play a crucial role in providing healthcare facilities and promoting agricultural development as part of their responsibilities for socio-economic development. They oversee initiatives to boost agricultural productivity, support sustainable farming practices, and enhance the economic resilience of rural areas.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 8

Consider the following pairs:

1. Country - Type of Proportional Representation

2. Brazil - Party list PR system

3. USA - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)

4. Argentina - Party list PR system

5. Netherlands - Single Transferable Vote (STV)

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 8

1. Brazil - Party list PR system: Correct. Brazil uses the party list PR system.

2. USA - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR): Incorrect. The USA uses the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system, not MMPR.

3. Argentina - Party list PR system: Correct. Argentina uses the party list PR system.

4. Netherlands - Single Transferable Vote (STV): Incorrect. The Netherlands uses the party list PR system, not STV.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1 and 3.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 9

Which Act constitutionalized the Panchayats in India and mandated all states to set up three-tier Panchayats?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 9

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, constitutionalized the Panchayats in India, making it mandatory for all states to establish three-tier Panchayats, consisting of Zilla Parishad at the district level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Gram Panchayat at the village level.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 10

Which government initiative aims to enhance the credibility of Panchayats through inducing greater devolution of funds to them?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 10

The e-Gram Swaraj e-Financial Management System is a government initiative that aims to enhance the credibility of Panchayats by inducing greater devolution of funds to them. This system assists in improving financial management at the Panchayat level, ensuring transparent and effective utilization of resources.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 11

Consider the following pairs:

1. Benefit - Proportional Representation System

2. Ensures fair representation based on vote share - Party list PR system

3. Allows voters to rank candidates - Single Transferable Vote (STV)

4. Combines FPTP and PR systems - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)

5. Leads to greater stability in the executive branch - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 11

1. Ensures fair representation based on vote share - Party list PR system: Correct. The party list PR system ensures fair representation based on vote share.

2. Allows voters to rank candidates - Single Transferable Vote (STV): Correct. The STV system allows voters to rank candidates.

3. Combines FPTP and PR systems - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR): Correct. MMPR combines FPTP and PR systems.

4. Leads to greater stability in the executive branch - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR): Incorrect. While MMPR aims for fair representation, stability is more a feature of FPTP systems.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 2, and 3.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) is an entrance examination for students aspiring to pursue undergraduate and graduate medical courses (MBBS/BDS/MD) in government or private medical colleges.
Statement-II:
The NEET is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) to standardize the admission process for medical and dental courses across India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 12


- Statement-I accurately describes the purpose of NEET as an entrance examination for undergraduate and graduate medical courses.
- Statement-II correctly states that the NEET is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) to ensure a standardized admission process for medical and dental courses across India. Statement-II further explains the purpose outlined in Statement-I.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Central Information Commission (CIC) can comment on the utilization of funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS).

Statement-II:
The Delhi High Court ruled that the CIC does not have jurisdiction to comment on the utilization of funds by MPs under the MPLADS.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 13

Statement-I is correct because the CIC raised concerns about how MPs utilized MPLADS funds. Statement-II is incorrect because the Delhi High Court ruled that the CIC does not have jurisdiction to comment on the utilization of funds by MPs under the MPLADS, as per the relevance and dimensions of the article provided.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 14

Consider the following statements:
1. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is a credit-linked subsidy scheme aimed at providing affordable housing to low and moderate-income residents.
2. The PMAY-U component specifically targets the rural poor by providing pucca houses with basic amenities.
3. Financial assistance of Rs. 1.2 lakh is provided under PMAY-G for houses in plain areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 14

Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is indeed a credit-linked subsidy scheme aimed at providing affordable housing to low and moderate-income residents across the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The PMAY-U (Urban) component targets the urban poor, not the rural poor. The rural poor are targeted under PMAY-G (Gramin).
Statement 3 is correct. Under the PMAY-G scheme, financial assistance of Rs. 1.2 lakh is provided for houses in plain areas, and Rs. 1.3 lakh in hilly, difficult, and Integrated Action Plan (IAP) areas.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 15

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the sessions of the Lower House and ensures discipline and decorum among its members.
  2. The Speaker has the power to punish unruly behavior and can disqualify members on grounds of defection under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
  3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha must resign from their political party upon assuming office to ensure complete non-partisanship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Indian Polity MCQs (June 2024 Current Affairs) - Question 15
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha oversees the sessions of the Lower House and ensures discipline and decorum among its members. The Speaker decides on the agenda for parliamentary meetings and interprets procedural rules.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Speaker has the authority to punish unruly behavior and also has the power to disqualify members on grounds of defection under the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: While there have been instances and suggestions that the Speaker should resign from their political party to ensure non-partisanship, this is not a mandatory requirement in India. It is more of a convention in Britain, not a rule in India.
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