# Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 10

## 200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering | Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 10

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Attempt Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 10 | 200 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for SSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering for SSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

### Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:Statements:All men are women.All women are crazy.Conclusion:I. All men are crazy,II. All the crazy are men.III. Some of the crazy are men.IV. Some of the crazy are women.

Solution: Both the Premises are Universal Affirmative (A-type)

All men are women.

All women are crazy.

A+A ⇒ A-type of conclusion

"All men are crazy."

This is Conclusion I.

Conclusion III is the Converse of it.

Conclusion IV is the Converse of Statement Q.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 2

### If SPARK is coded as TQBSL, what will be the code for FLAME?

Solution:

Similarly

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 3

### How many triangles are there in the following figure?

Solution:

The triangles are:

∆ABC : ∆ABD : ∆ADC : ∆AFC ∆FDC : ∆AFB : ∆FDB : ∆FBC ∆GBD : ∆ADE : ∆GBE : ∆FDG ∆DBE:

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 4

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

Solution: 5×3+1=16, 16×3+1=49

9×3+2=29, 29×3+2=89

Similarly,

15×3+3=48, 48×3+3=147

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 5

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 6

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

6 : 10 : : 11 : ?

Solution: 6×2-2=12

Similarly,

11×2-2=20

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 7

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ACEG : SUWY : : BDFH : ?

Solution:

Similarly

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 8

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Patrol : Security : : Insurance : ?

Solution: To ensure security, police or defense personnel patrol the area. Similarly, to cover risk, insurance is done.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 9

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

5 : 27 : : 9 : ?

Solution: As, 5 × 5 + 2 = 27

Similarly, 9 × 9 + 2 = 83

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 10

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ABE : 8 : : KLO : ?

Solution: ABE=125=8

Similarly, K+L+O

⇒11 12 15=38

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 11

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ADBC : EHFG : ILJK : ?

Solution:

Similarly

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 12

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Sty : Pig : : Byre : ?

Solution: The resting place of the pig is called Sty. Similarly, the resting place of the cow is called Byre.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 13

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

173 (24) 526;

431 (18) 325;

253 (?) 471

Solution: 1+7+3+5+2+6 =24

4+3+1+3+2+5 = 18

2+5+3+4+7+1 = 22

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 14

Little wooden cubes, each with a side of one inch, are put together to form a solid cube with a side of three inches. This big cube is then painted red all over on the outside. When the big cube is broken up into the original little ones, how many cubes will have paint on two sides?

Solution:

4 cubes, each of the first and third layers, will have paint on two sides only.

Therefore, the total number of cubes having paint on two sides

=4 ×2=8

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 15

From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given the word: Given

IMPASSIONABLE

Solution: There is no V' letter in the word IMPASSIONABLE to make IMPASSIVE.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 16

If HOSPITAL is written as 32574618 in a specific code, how would POSTAL be written in that code?

Solution: POSTAL can be written as 725618

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 17

Arrange the following words according to the dictionary?

1. Inventory

2. Involuntary

3. Invisible

4. Invariable

5. Investigate

Solution: Arrangement of the words according to the dictionary

4. Invariable

1. Inventory

5. Investigate

3. Invisible

2. Involuntary

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 18

In the given question, select the answer shape to make questions from pieces of a shape.

Question Figure:

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 19

A bus leaves Delhi with half the number of women as men, At Meerut, ten men get down, and five women get in. Now there is an equal number of men and women. How many passengers boarded the bus initially at Delhi?

Solution: Suppose the number of women boarded the bus at Delhi is x,

The number of men = 2x

According to the question,

(2x−10=x5)⇒2x−x=105,x=15

The total number of passengers who boarded the bus initially

=3x=3×15=45

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 20

M is the son of P. Q is the granddaughter of O, the husband of P. How is M related to O?

Solution: O is the husband of P.M. is the son of P.

Therefore, M is the son of O.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 21

Which number is wrong in the given series?

1, 9, 25, 50, 81

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 22

Find out which of the diagrams given in the alternatives correctly represents the relationship stated in the question. Sharks, Whales, Turtles.

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 23

Which answer figure is the exact mirror image of the given question figure when the mirror is held from the right at PQ?

Question Figure:

Solution:

The correct answer figure is (c).

QUESTION: 24

Find out a set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives, similar to the numbers shown in the question.

Given: (6, 30, 90)

Solution: 6×5=30, 30×3=90, 8×6=48, 48×4=192

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 25

K is a place which is located 2 km away in the northwest direction from the capital P, R is another placer that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from K. M is another place, and that is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from R. T is yet another place that is located 2 km away in the South-west direction from M. In which direction is T located in relation to P?

Solution:

T is located to the West of P.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 26

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one different from the other three.

(a) ABJNM

(b) QRTUZ

(c) IXYOQ

(d) WFGOP

Solution: Except in letter group IXYOQ, In all others, there is only one vowel. In the letter group IXYOQ, there are two Vowels.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 27

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one different from the other three.

(a) X

(b) Y

(c) H

(d) D

Solution: The position number of Y in the English alphabet is odd.

X=24,Y=25,H=8,D=4

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 28

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one different from the other three.

(a) Wave

(b) Current

(c) Tide

(d) Storm

Solution: Except Tide, all other terms are related to both air and water. But the tide is a regular rise and fall in the level of the sea. It is caused by the attraction of the moon and sun.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 29

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one different from the other three.

(a) 25, 36

(b) 144, 169

(c) 100, 121

(d) 9, 64

Solution: Except for the number pair 9, 64 in all other perfect squares of two consecutive numbers are given.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 30

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one different from the other three.

(a) ZKXJ

(b) CMAL

(c) TGRF

(d) FRTK

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 31

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one different from the other three.

(a) Heat

(b) Light

(c) Bulb

(d) Electricity

Solution: Bulb is an item while all others are phenomena.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 32

Ashok's mother was 3 times as old as Ashok 5 years ago. After 5 years, she will be twice as old as Ashok. How old is Ashok today?

Solution: Suppose the present age of Ashok is x year, and that of his mother is y years.

5 years ago (3(x−5)=(y−5))⇒3x−15=y−5⇒3x−y=10−(i)

5 years hence, 2(x5)=(y5)2x10=y5⇒2x−y=−5-(ii)

From equation (i) and (ii), x=15

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 33

Arrange the following in the meaningful/logical order :

1. Exhaust

2. Night

3. Day

4. Sleep

5. Work

Solution: Meaningful order of the words

(3.Day→5.Work→1.Exhaust→2.Night→4.Sleep)

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 34

In a row of boys. Srinath is 7th from the left, and Venkat is 12th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd from the left. How many boys are there in the row?

Solution:

Total number of boys in the row

= 22+12-1

= 33

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 35

Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letters of the given Jumbled word. Find out that word.

Given Word : MUSPOPAPOTIH

Solution: Meaningful word - HIPPOPOTAMUS

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 36

Direction: Given below is a statement followed by 2/3 Assumptions. An assumption is not written directly but can be considered implicit understanding before writing any text, document, or writing. Choose the implicit assumption in the following question:

Statement:

Politicians become rich by the votes of the people.

Assumptions:

I. People vote to make politicians rich.

II. Politicians become rich by their virtue.

Solution: The statement implies that politicians win elections by the votes of people. Therefore, neither of the assumptions in implicit in the statement.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 37

After interchanging + to × and × to ÷, 12 and 18, which one of the following equations becomes correct?

Solution: 18÷6×12=36⇒3×12=36

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 38

The following question ∆ stands for any of the mathematical signs at different places, which are given as choices under each question. Select the choice with the correct sequence of signs, which makes the question a correct equation.

24∆ 4 ∆ 5 ∆ 4

Solution: Option (b): 24=4×54⇒24=204

Option (c): 24=45×4⇒24=420

Both Options (b) and (c) are correct.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 39

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded in the same direction.

Question Figure:

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 40

Find the next two letters in the given series.

B, C, E, H, L, ??

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 41

Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis of the given equations. if

6 X 5 = 91;

8 X 7 = 169

10 x 7 = 211

then 11 x 10 = ?

Solution: 6 X 5=30,30 X 3+1=91,8 X 7=56

56 X 3+1=169,10 X 7=70,70 X 3+1=211

similarly, ,11 X 10=110,110 X 3+1=331

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 42

Which one number is wrong in the given series?

126, 98, 70, 41, 14

Solution:

Therefore the number 41 is wrong in the series.

QUESTION: 43

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

8, 24, 12, ?, 18, 54

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 44

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

AGMSY, CIOUA, EKGWC, ?, IOUAG, KQWCI

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 45

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, ?

Solution: 3+1 = 4; 3+4= 7;

4+7 = 11; 7+11 =18;

11+18 = 29; 18+29 =47

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 46

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

975, 864, 753, 642, ?

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 47

A child is looking for his father. He went 90 meters in the east before turning to his right. He went 20 meters before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle's place 30 meters from this point. His father was not there. From here, he went 100 meters to his north before meeting his father in the street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 48

Which one set of letters, when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series, shall complete it?

a_b_a__n_bb_abbn

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 49

If the day before yesterday was Sunday, what day will it be three days after the day after tomorrow?

Solution: Day before yesterday was Sunday.

Therefore, today is Tuesday.

The day after tomorrow will be Thursday.

Thursday + 3 = Sunday

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 50

In a classroom, there are 5 rows, and 5 children A, B, C, D, and E are seated one behind the other in 5 separate rows as follows: A is sitting behind C, but in front of B. C is sitting behind E. D is sitting in front of E. The order in which they are sitting from the first row to the last is

Solution: Ist Row ⇒D,2nd Row ⇒ E,3rd Row ⇒C ⇒4 th Row ⇒A,5 th Row⇒ B

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 51

An aspect of input/output controller of data logic is called.

Solution: An aspect of the input-output controller of data logic is called buffering.
QUESTION: 52

The device used to convert solar energy into electricity is-

Solution: A photovoltaic cell, commonly called a solar cell or PV, is the technology used to convert solar energy directly into electrical power. A photovoltaic cell is a non-mechanical device usually made from silicon alloys. Sunlight is composed of photons or particles of solar energy.
QUESTION: 53

Which river serves the longest cultivable area-

Solution: The entire Ganga basin system effectively drains eight states.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 54

Net national product at market prices - (direct taxes -subsidies) = ?

Solution: In national income accounting, net national income (NNI) is net national product (NNP) minus indirect taxes. Net national income encompasses the income of households, businesses, and the government.

G = Government spending. NX = net exports (exports minus imports) = (X – M)

QUESTION: 55

Democratic socialism aims at-

Solution: Democratic socialism is a political philosophy supporting political democracy within a socially owned economy, with a particular emphasis on economic democracy, workplace democracy, and workers' self-management within a market socialist economy or some form of a decentralized planned socialist economy.
QUESTION: 56

The Hutti gold are located in the state of-

Solution: Hutti Gold Mines Limited (HGML) is a company located in Karnataka, India, and engaged in the mining and producing of gold.
QUESTION: 57

Capital of the Union territory"Anandman Nicobar" is -

Solution: The Andaman Sea lies to the east and the Bay of Bengal to the west. The territory's capital is the city of Port Blair. The total land area of the islands is approximately 8,249 km2 (3,185 sq mi).
QUESTION: 58

How many times national emergency has been declared in India.

Solution: In the history of independent India, a state of emergency has been declared thrice. The first instance was between 26 October 1962 to 10 January 1968 during the India-China war, when "the security of India" was proclaimed "threatened by external aggression.”
QUESTION: 59

Poisoning of drinking water is caused due to presence of-

Solution: Drinking water rich in arsenic over a long period leads to arsenic poisoning or arsenicosis. Many waters contain some arsenic, and excessive concentrations are known to occur in some areas naturally.
QUESTION: 60

Identify the most infertile amongst the following soils.

Solution: Laterite is the most infertile soil.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 61

In our country, The "Van Mahotsav" Day is observed.

Solution: Van Mahotsav is a celebrated festival in India since 1950 and is also known as Forest Day. The festival happens over seven days and will be celebrated from July 1 to July 7. The festival aims at increasing the green cover of India.
QUESTION: 62

Chief Justice of supreme-court is appointed by-

Solution: The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA: 2. Appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.
QUESTION: 63

The national song was translated in English by-

Solution: The song Vande Mataram is an Indian National song. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote it. The song was written on November 7, 1875, and published in 1882. It was written in Sanskrit and Bengali languages. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh translated it into the English language, and after translation, it was first published on 20th November 1909.
QUESTION: 64

Which is the longest rail tunnel in India?

Solution: India's longest railway tunnel through Pir Panjal mountain range. An 11-km-long tunnel across the treacherous Pir Panjal mountain range on the Banihal-Qazigund railway line in Jammu and Kashmir is the most extended transportation passage in India, the second-longest in Asia.
QUESTION: 65

The language spoken by the people by Pakistan is?

Solution: Urdu: Urdu is the national language of Pakistan. It is a mixture of Persian, Arabic, and various local languages. It is similar to Hindi but written in Arabic script.
QUESTION: 66

Kalapani border dispute between Indian and which country?

Solution: The story so far: The dispute over Kalapani, which lies on the easternmost corner of Uttarakhand's Pithoragarh district, between Nepal and India was revived in November 2019 when India published a revised political map showing the newly created Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
QUESTION: 67

The British Government intervened in the affairs of the company and passed an act in 1773 A.D. known as the-

Solution: The British Parliament found it necessary to regulate the company’s activities in India, and for this, the Regulating act of 1773 was passed. It was the first intervention by the British government in the company’s territorial affairs. The main provisions of the act were the appointment of governor-general of Fort William in Bengal with supervisory powers over the presidencies of Madras and Bombay. This Governor-General was to be assisted by an executive council of four members.
QUESTION: 68

The type of Kidney present in a frog are-

Solution: In the frog, mesonephros is the functional kidney in the embryonic and adult stage, and the mesonephric duct functions as both urinary and genital duct.
QUESTION: 69

A magnetron value is used to produce ...........

Solution: The magnetron is a high-powered vacuum tube that works as a self-excited microwave oscillator. Crossed electron and magnetic fields are used in the magnetron to produce the high-power output required in radar equipment.
QUESTION: 70

How many players are there in Kabbadi?

Solution: There are 12 players on each team. In which 7 players in each team play inside the court, which is called starting seven. The rest 5 players in each team are substitutes.
QUESTION: 71

The 'Adopt a heritage scheme' scheme' of the ministry of tourism was launched on-

Solution: The 'Adopt a Heritage: Apni Dharohar, Apni Pehchaan' scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tourism, in collaboration with the Ministry of Culture and the Archaeological Survey of India. It was launched in September 2017 on World Tourism Day by President Ram Nath Kovind.
QUESTION: 72

According to the Modern Theory of Rent, rent accrues to-

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

Groundnut is cultivated in northern Indian states during the..........cropping season.

Solution: The groundnut is cultivated in northern Indian states during the Kharif cropping season.
QUESTION: 74

Two-party system is found in-

Solution: The modern two-party system consists of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party. Several third parties also operate in the U.S., and from time to time, elect someone to local office. The largest third party since the 1980s has been the Libertarian Party.
QUESTION: 75

Which one of the following is an egg-laying mammal-

Solution: The platypus, also called the Ornithorhynchus or duck-billed platypus, is a semiaquatic egg-laying mammal belong to monotreme and are endemic to eastern Australia.

Thus, the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 76

In galvanization, iron is coated with-

Solution: Galvanisation or galvanization (or galvanizing as it is most commonly called) applies a protective zinc coating to iron or steel to prevent rusting. The most common method is hot-dip galvanizing, in which steel sections are submerged in a bath of molten zinc.
QUESTION: 77

Author of "I do what I Do" is?

Solution: Raghuram Rajan's book I Do What I Do is a collection of talks, lectures, and papers, some of which have been in the public domain for a while. Between these articles, the former governor of the Reserve Bank of India covers much territory.
QUESTION: 78

Which among the following is an abiotic factor?

Solution: Abiotic factors are the non-living parts of the environment that can significantly influence living organisms. Water (H2O) is a very important abiotic factor – it is often said that “water is life.” All living organisms need water. Plants must have water to grow.
QUESTION: 79

Sher Shah defeated Humayun and captured Gaur in the battle of-

Solution: The Battle of Chausa (25 June 1539) took place between Mughal Emperor Humayun and Sher Shah Suri (Sher Khan). In this battle, Humayun got defeated.
QUESTION: 80

Medicine of Quinine is provided by-

Solution: Quinine, as a component of the bark of the cinchona (Quina Quina) tree, was used to treat malaria from as early as the 1600s, when it was referred to as the "Jesuits' bark," "cardinal's bark," or "sacred bark." These names stem from its use in 1630 by Jesuit missionaries in South America, though a legend suggests.
QUESTION: 81

The moderator used in a nuclear reactor is-

Solution: A graphite reactor is a nuclear reactor that uses carbon as a neutron moderator, allowing un-enriched uranium to be used as nuclear fuel. The first artificial nuclear reactor, the Chicago Pile-1, used graphite as a moderator.
QUESTION: 82

What does BIOS stand for?

Solution: BIOS (pronounced: /ˈbaɪɒs/, BY-oss; an acronym for Basic Input/Output System and also known as the System BIOS, ROM BIOS or PC BIOS) is the firmware used to perform hardware initialization during the booting process (power-on startup), and to provide runtime services for operating systems and programs.
QUESTION: 83

The 2016 summer Olympics were held in-

Solution: The 2016 Summer Olympics (Portuguese: Jogos Olímpicos de Verão de 2016), officially known as the Games of the XXXI Olympiad (Portuguese: Jogos da XXXI Olimpíada) and commonly known as Rio 2016, was an international multi-sport event that was held from 5 to 21 August 2016 in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, with preliminary.
QUESTION: 84

When was "Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana" launched?

Solution: On 1st April 2017, Mr. Thaawarchand Gehlot, Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment launched, the first of its kind, “Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana” in Nellore; Andhra Pradesh, aimed to make life comfortable for senior citizens of India.
QUESTION: 85

Cactus is referred to as-

Solution: Cactus is a xerophyte as it specializes in surviving in hot and dry environments. Xerophytes are adapted to survive in an environment with little water, such as a desert or an ice- or snow-covered region in the Alps or the Arctic.
QUESTION: 86

Which city is known for its chicken embroidery-

Solution: Chikan embroidery is produced in Lucknow, the capital of the state of Uttar Pradesh, India.
QUESTION: 87

Who is the present governor of Assam-

Solution: Jagdish Mukhi is the Governor of Assam and a member of BJP and RSS. Past positions have included Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Minister of Finance, Planning, Excise and Taxation, and Higher Education in the Delhi government.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 88

The number of subjects incorporated in the union list is-

Solution: The Union List or List-I is a list of 98 numbered items after the 101st Constitutional amendment act 2016, entry 92 and 92c removed (the last item is numbered 97) given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India on which Parliament has exclusive power to legislate.
QUESTION: 89

The apparatus used to test the acidity of the aqueous solution is?

Solution: A pH meter is an electronic device used for measuring the pH (acidity or alkalinity) of a liquid. A typical pH meter consists of a special measuring probe (a glass electrode) connected to an electronic meter that measures and displays the pH reading.
QUESTION: 90

Who among the following has won the Nobel prize 2017 in literature?

Solution: The Nobel Prize in Literature 2017 was awarded to Kazuo Ishiguro, "who, in novels of great emotional force, has uncovered the abyss beneath our illusory sense of connection with the world."
QUESTION: 91

Which family owns the Hero group of companies in India?

Solution: Munjals family owns the hero group of companies in India.
QUESTION: 92

The fundamental problem studied in Macroeconomics is-

Solution: Macroeconomics involves the total economic activity, dealing with national income, growth, inflation, and unemployment. It is all about is about maximizing national income and growth.
QUESTION: 93

Fleming's good hard rule is used to find the direction of the.

Solution: Fleming's right-hand rule is used to determine the direction of induced current in the conductor moving in the magnetic field region.
QUESTION: 94

Pleura is covering-

Solution: The visceral pleura is the delicate membrane that covers the surface of each lung and dips into the fissures between the lobes of the lung. The parietal pleura is the outer membrane that is attached to the inner surface of the thoracic cavity. It also separates the pleural cavity from the mediastinum.
QUESTION: 95

Which of the following elements has the highest atomic radius?

Solution: As shown in the figures below, the atomic radius increases from top to bottom in a group and decreases from left to right across a period. Thus, helium is the smallest element, and francium is the largest.
QUESTION: 96

Who built the Kailashnath Temple at Ellora?

Solution: The Kailash Temple is the sixteenth cave, and it is one of the 32 cave temples and monasteries forming the magnanimous Ellora Caves. The historical records were built by the 8th century Rashtrakuta King Krishna I between the years 756 and 773 AD.
QUESTION: 97

The most powerful Peshwa was-

Solution: Baji Rao-I (The Son of Bala Ji Vishwanath) was the most powerful Peshwa. He has also known as the winner of 72 wars and Baji Rao Mastani.
QUESTION: 98

Light year is a unit of-

Solution: A light-year is a unit of distance. It is the distance that light can travel in one year. Light moves at a velocity of about 300,000 kilometers (km) each second. So in one year, it can travel about 10 trillion km.
QUESTION: 99

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

Solution: Most ozone (about 90%) is found in the stratosphere, which begins about 10–16 kilometers (6–10 miles) above Earth's surface and extends up to about 50 kilometers (31 miles) altitude. The stratospheric region with the highest ozone concentration is commonly known as the “ozone layer.”
QUESTION: 100

In the global innovation index 2017, India has been placed at the ran.

Solution: BENGALURU: The Global Innovation Index (GII) has ranked India as the 57th most innovative nation globally. The country had improved its ranking from 60th position last year. India has been improving steadily since it was ranked 81st in 2015. Meanwhile, China improved its ranking from 22 in 2017 to 17 this year.
QUESTION: 101

With storage, the strength of cement:

Solution:
• Due to the hygroscopic nature of cement, it quickly absorbs moisture from the atmosphere.

• This moisture or dampness is the main hazard for cement, making it hard like stone, and it converts it to a useless material not suitable for construction.

• Storage of cement requires more care as the strength of cement decreases with time.

• Storage of cement should be done so that it is not exposed to the atmosphere, which can be done by packing in air-tight bags.

• For storage guidelines, rules are mentioned in IS 4082:1996

QUESTION: 102

Which of the following defect arise due to seasoning of timber?

Solution: Defects that arises in timber during its seasoning are

Bow: Curvature of wood in the direction of its length is known as Bow.

Cup: Curvature in the transverse direction of timber is known as a cup.

Twist: It is the spiral distortion in the direction of timber.

Spring: Curvature of the timber in its plane

Note: While Upsets and Rind galls are the defects that arise due to natural forces.

QUESTION: 103

The dressing of stone is done:

Solution:
• The process of giving a proper size, shape, and finish to the roughly broken stones as obtained from the quarry is known as “Dressing of stone.”

• The extraction of suitable stones from their natural rock beds or layers is commonly called Quarrying of Stones.

• Stones obtained from the quarries are very rough and irregular in shape and quite bulky in size and weight.

• The dressing of stone is done immediately after quarrying

QUESTION: 104

The texture of the sandstone is:

Solution: Sandstones are made of sand grains that have been cemented together. Like sandpaper, sandstones usually have a rough, granular texture.

Grain size - 0.06 - 2mm

Hardness - variable, soft to hard, dependent on clast and cement composition.

Colour - variable through grey, yellow, red to white reflecting the variation in mineral content and cement.

QUESTION: 105

The hardwood is produced by which of the following trees?

Solution: Hardwood is generally obtained from a Deciduous tree, and a Coniferous tree obtains softwood.

Examples of Deciduous trees are

Oak, Sal, Teak, Babul, Mahogany, Shishum, etc.

Examples of coniferous trees are

Chir, Deodar, Pine, Spruce, Kail (Botanical name - Pinus wallichiana), etc

Wood obtained from coniferous trees is soft, lightweight, weak, and resinous. Hence is of limited engineering application.

Wood obtained from deciduous trees are complex, substantial, heavyweight, and not resinous. Hence it is suitable for engineering applications.

QUESTION: 106

One of the following is not a type of stairs. Mark the same,

Solution: A complete turn is not a type of stairs.

Types of stairs:

i) Straight

ii) Turning

iii) Continuous

Turning stairs are sub-classified as:

a) Quarter-turn stair

b) Half turn stair or dog-legged stair

c) Three quarter turn stairs

d) Bifurcated stairs

QUESTION: 107

Match List-I (material Characteristics) with List-II (Property of Concrete) and select the correct answer:

List I

A. Water-cement ratio

B. Water content

C. Minimum cement content

D. Segregation

List II

1. Durability

2. Compressive strength

3. Stability of mix

4. Workability

Solution:

QUESTION: 108

Which of the following is examined to determine the age of timber?

Solution:

The age of the timbers is determined by “Annual Rings.”

Sapwood →is the outer annual ring between heartwood and cambium layers.

Pith → innermost central portion or core of the tree.

QUESTION: 109

Which of the following characteristics is the same for both ordinary Portland cement and rapid hardening cement:

Solution:

QUESTION: 110

Flash set of ordinary Portland cement paste is ______.

Solution: If inadequate amounts of gypsum are added to the cement, a flash set can occur - rapid development of rigidity in freshly mixed Portland cement paste, mortar, or concrete.

A large amount of heat is produced in the process, and it is the premature hardening of the cement.

QUESTION: 111

Granite, mainly composed of quartz and feldspar particles, is obtained from _____.

Solution: Granite is an igneous rock with between 20% and 60% quartz by volume and at least 35% of the total feldspar.
QUESTION: 112

When the deposits of efflorescence are more than 10 percent and less than 50 percent of the exposed areas of brick, the presence of efflorescence is classified as:

Solution: The degree of efflorescence is given as

(a) NIL – When there is no perceptible deposit of efflorescence.

(b) SLIGHT- Not more than 10% area of the brick covered with a thin deposit of salt.

(c) MODERATE- Covering up to 50% area of the brick.

(d) HEAVY- Covering 50% or more but unaccompanied by powdering or flaking the brick surface.

(e) SERIOUS- When there is a heavy deposit of salts accompanied by powdering and flaking of the exposed surfaces.

QUESTION: 113

The ultimate strength of cement is provided by:

i) Tricalcium aluminate

ii) Tricalcium silicate

iii) Dicalcium silicate

Solution: Tri-calcium aluminate and tri-calcium silicate are responsible for the initial strength of cement, and di-calcium silicate is accountable for the ultimate power of cement.
QUESTION: 114

Which of the following constituent gives plasticity to mold bricks in a suitable shape?

Solution: Alumina in Brick

Good brick earth should contain about 20% to 30% of alumina.

It is responsible for the plasticity characteristic of the earth, which is essential in a molding operation.

If present in excess, then the raw brick shrink and warps during drying.

QUESTION: 115

Which of the following represents the requirement of valid contracts:

a. It must be in writing

b. can be enforced in a court of law

c. Parties should give the consent for agreement

d. Parties concerned must be competent

Solution: There are six requirements for a contract to be valid

1. The agreement consists of an offer and an acceptance of an offer.

2. Something must be bargained for in exchange for a promise.

3. All parties must have the legal ability and capacity to be held to a contract.

4. Both parties must agree to the terms of the contract.

5. Subject of bartering must be legal.

6. The contract must be written out to be adequately enforced in a court of law.

QUESTION: 116

The method used for the valuation of a building is:

Solution: The valuation of a building depends on the type of the building, its structure, and durability, the situation, size, shape, frontage, the width of roadways, the quality of materials used in the construction, and present-day prices of materials.

There are generally six methods of valuation:

i) Rental Method of Valuation

ii) Direct Comparisons of the capital value

iii) Valuation based on the profit

iv) Valuation based on the cost

v) Development method of Valuation

vi) Depreciation method of Valuation

QUESTION: 117

The work output of a mason for brickwork in cement mortar for foundation work is roughly expected to be:

Solution:

The following may be taken as the approximate quantity of work or out turn or task for an average artisan per day:

QUESTION: 118

Total depreciation during 10-20 years of a cement concrete structure is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 119

The brickwork is not measured in m3 in case of:

Solution:
• Brickwork in foundation, plinth, arches, and superstructure are measured in cubic meters.

• While Brickwork for thin partition walls is measured in a square meter.

• Brick walls are measured in square meters if the thickness of the wall is half brick or as a partition wall.

• For one or more than one thick brick wall, brickwork is measured in cubic meters.

QUESTION: 120

Security deposit deducted at 5% from contractors’ bills is:

Solution: The security deposit or retention money shall be refunded to the contractor after the expiry of the defects liability period or on payment of the amount of the final bill or one monsoon whichever is later.

Defects liability period: A defects liability period is a set period of time after a construction project has been completed during which a contractor has the right to return to the site to remedy defects. A typical defects liability period lasts for 12 months.

QUESTION: 121

What is the density of the mild steel in quintal per cubic meter?

Solution: The density of mild steel is 7900 kg/m3. It means one cubic meter of mild steel weighs 7900 kilograms.

Therefore, one cubic meter of mild steel weighs (7900/100) quintal.

Hence, the density of mild steel is 79 quintal per cubic meter.

Here are some properties of mild steel

Mild Steel

It is low carbon steel​

The ultimate tensile strength of Mild Steel – (600 – 800) N/mm2

The ultimate compressive strength – (800 - 1200) N/mm2

The specific gravity of Mild Steel - 7.85 (7.7 - 7.9)

QUESTION: 122

Scrap value of a property may be __________.

Solution: Scrap value is the value of dismantled material. Let's take an ln example of building, for a building when the life is over at the end of utility period, the dismantled materials such as steel, bricks, timber, etc. will fetch a certain amount which is the scrap value of the building, the amount of scrap value maybe about 10% of its total cost of construction. If the cost of dismantling the property is more than the value of scrap obtained from it, scrap value is negative.
QUESTION: 123

Consider the following statements –

1. The size of a theodolite is defined by the diameter of the graduated circle of the lower plate.

2. The process of establishing intermediate points, on a given straight line whose ends are intervisible, is done with a theodolite is called lining in.

3. Removal of parallax may be achieved by refocusing the eyepiece.

4. An imaginary line passing through the optical center of the eyepiece in the telescope of a surveying instrument is called the line of collimation.

Which of the above statement are correct?

Solution: 1. The size of the theodolite is defined by the diameter of the graduated circle of the lower plate.

2. The process of establishing intermediate points, on a given straight line whose ends are intervisible is done with a theodolite is called lining in.

3. Removal of parallax may be achieved by refocusing the eyepiece and the objective.

4. Line of collimation: It is an imaginary line passing through the intersection of the crosshairs at the diaphragm and the optical center of the object glass and its continuation.

5. Axis of Bubble tube: It is an imaginary line tangential to the longitudinal curve of the bubble tube at its midpoint.

6. Axis of a telescope: This axis is an imaginary passing through the optical center of the object-glass and the optical center of the eye-piece.

QUESTION: 124

Which of the following is not an important factor that needs to be considered while preparing maps?

Solution:
• A map is a two-dimensional representation of the earth surface which uses graphics to convey geographical information

• It describes the geographical location of features and the relationship between them; Maps are fundamental to society

• Rectangular coordinates, Scales, and Plotting accuracy are the main important factors that needs to be considered while preparing maps

• Polar coordinates provide a method of rendering graphs and indicating the positions of points on a two-dimensional (2D) surface; It is not used in preparing maps

QUESTION: 125

Match the list - I with a list - II

Solution:

QUESTION: 126

A surveyor made an error during the survey of a project which is associated with his skills and vigilance. Which type of error this surveyor has committed?

Solution: Systematic errors: A systematic error is an error that, under the same conditions, will always be of the same shape and size.

A systematic error always follows some definite mathematical or physical law and a correction can be determined and applied.

Such errors are of constant character and are regarded as positive or negative according to as they make the result too great or too small.

Blunders: A blunder (or gross error) is a significant, unpredictable mistake caused by human error that often leads to large discrepancies.

Blunders are typically the result of carelessness, miscommunication, fatigue, or poor judgment. Examples of common blunders are:

i) Improperly leveling of the surveying instrument.

ii) Setting up the instrument or target over the wrong control point.

Random (or accidental) errors are not directly related to the conditions or circumstances of the observation.

For a single measurement or a series of measurements, the error remains after all possible systematic errors and blunders have been eliminated.

Random errors are unpredictable and are often caused by factors beyond the control of the surveyor. Their occurrence, magnitude, and direction (positive or negative) cannot be predicted.

QUESTION: 127

Which of the following statement is correct?

Solution:
• The error in measured length due to bad ranging is always positive as the measured value due to bad ranging is always greater than the actual value.
• As the error in measured length due to the careless holding of the chain is an accidental error and accidental errors as obvious compensating in nature.
• Correction for Pull (Cp):

Where,

P = Pull applied during measurement

Po = Standard Pull

L = length of the tape

E = Young’s modulus of elasticity

So, when P > Po, the corrective will be positive, and the error will therefore be negative.

• If the chain used in measuring a distance is too short, the error will be positive, and correction will be negative and vice versa.

QUESTION: 128

Match List - I (Method of Levelling) with the List-II (Property)

Solution:

QUESTION: 129

The moisture content of clayey soil is gradually reduced from a large value. The correct sequence of the occurrence of the limit is -

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

Permeability of soil is affected by

Solution: All of the above factors affect the permeability of the soil
• If grain size increases the permeability of soil will increase

• The permeability will increase if the void ratio increases

• The structural arrangement of the soil particle will influence the void ratio and thus permeability

QUESTION: 131

If the void ratio and discharge velocity for soil is 0.5 and 6 × 10-7 m/s respectively, what is the value of seepage velocity (m/s)?

Solution:

Given

Void ratio, e = 0.5

Discharge velocity = 6 × 10-7 m/s

QUESTION: 132

In triaxial test -

Solution:

In the triaxial test stress in the vertical direction is different from stress in the other two directions.

QUESTION: 133

Settlement of soil under compressive force due to the expulsion of water from pores is known as -

Solution: Settlement of soil under compressive force due to the expulsion of water from pores is known as primary consolidation.
QUESTION: 134

Rankine’s theory of earth pressure suits well for _________

Solution: Rankine’s theory of earth pressure doesn’t consider wall friction, so this theory is suitable for RCC retaining wall as the RCC wall is smooth and in masonry retaining, wall as the wall is not smooth, Coulomb's theory is most suitable.
QUESTION: 135

Consistency as applied to cohesive soils is an indicator of its:

Solution: Soil consistency is the strength with which soil materials are held together or the resistance of soils to deformation and rupture. It is related to the shear strength of the soil.

Porosity is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of soil in a given soil mass.

QUESTION: 136

Which of the following represents Darcy’s friction factor in terms of Reynolds number (Re) for the laminar flow in circular pipes?

Solution:

Darcy Weisbach Equation for friction losses in circular pipe

where

L = length of the pipe,

D = diameter of the circular pipe,

V = mean velocity of the flow,

f = Darcy’s friction factor = 4 × F’,

F’ = coefficient of friction

hf = head loss due to friction

For Laminar Flow

Friction Factor

For Turbulent flow

QUESTION: 137

What is the specific energy (m-kg/kg) for 1 m depth of flow having velocity of 3 m/s?

Solution:

Specific Energy,

Where y = depth of the flow

v = velocity of the flow

g = acceleration due to gravity

QUESTION: 138

If Reynold's number of the flow is 9500, then the drag coefficient for the transition region having a particle diameter size equal to 0.5 mm can be expressed as

Solution:

The Drag Coefficient has been empirically connected with Reynold's number by Thomas Camp curve as

QUESTION: 139

Which one of the following is correct for impulse turbines?

Solution: In the Impulse Turbine, the available hydraulic energy is first converted into kinetic energy by means of an efficient nozzle.

The high-velocity jet issuing from the nozzle then strikes a series of suitably shaped buckets fixed around the rim of a wheel.

The buckets change the direction of the jet without changing its pressure. The resulting change in momentum sets buckets and wheel into rotary motion and thus mechanical energy is made available at the turbine shaft.

Important impulse turbines are: Pelton wheel, Turgo - impulse wheel, Girad turbine, Banki turbine and Jonval turbine, etc., Pelton wheel is predominantly used at present.

Whereas In Reaction Turbine, a part of the total available hydraulic energy is transformed into kinetic energy before the water is taken to the turbine runner. A substantial part remains in the form of pressure energy.

QUESTION: 140

Match List-I (Measuring devices) with List-II (Measured parameter) and select the correct answer using the options given below the lists.

Solution: Pitot-tube: an open-ended right-angled tube pointing in opposition to a fluid flow and used to measure stagnation pressure.

A micromanometer with an inclined tube to called a sensitive manometer. The inclined manometer is used for measuring the actual airflow and is simply a more sensitive way of using a manometer, what is of interest is still the height the fluid moves up vertically.

A Bend meter is a simple device that relies on the water moving at different velocities on the inside and outside of a bend. From the energy equation, a difference in velocity is used to calculate a measurable pressure difference.

If a hole is made at the wall and is connected to any pressure measuring device, it will then sense the static pressure at the wall. This type of hole at the wall is known as a wall pressure tap

QUESTION: 141

Velocity distribution profile for laminar flow between parallel plates is:

Solution:

Velocity distribution profile equation is written as:

It is a parabolic equation, So the velocity distribution is parabolic.

QUESTION: 142

The Shape of the recession limbs of a hydro-graph depends on

Solution: The time distribution of runoff (the shape of the hydrograph) is influenced by Climatic(rainfall intensity, rainfall duration, distribution of rainfall on the basin, a direction of storm movement, type of storm), topographic and geological factors.

The climatic and topographic factors mainly affect the rising limb whereas the geological factors (Basin Characteristics) determine the recession limb.

QUESTION: 143

Consider the following statement:

A) Sprinkler method of irrigation has a higher water application efficiency.

B) The duty of drip irrigation is very high due to losses are least in this irrigation system.

Which of the following is/are correct?

Solution: Sprinkler Irrigation

In this method of irrigation, water is delivered through a network of pipes and pumps.

Water is available in form of the spray.

It also reduces seepage losses and other losses.

Hence, the Sprinkler method of irrigation has a higher water application efficiency.

Drip Irrigation:

This method is also called Trickling irrigation.

In this method of irrigation water is directly applied to the root zone of the plant using the drip nozzle.

Evaporation and percolation losses are considerably reduced in this method.

Hence, the duty of drip irrigation is very high.

QUESTION: 144

A channel designed by Lacey's theory has a velocity of 0.88 m/sec. The silt factor is 1.1. The hydraulic mean depth will be

Solution:

According to Lacey's theory, the hydraulic mean depth,

where V = velocity of the flow in the channel,

f = Lacey's silt factor

QUESTION: 145

Cofferdam is a:

Solution:
• Coffer Dham is a temporary structure constructed in a river, lake, etc for excluding water from a given site (where the construction is to start) to enable the building operation to be performed on a dry surface.

• It may be made of earth materials, timber or steel sheet piling, or a combination of these.

• A cofferdam is neither a type of foundation nor a permanent structure to store water.

QUESTION: 146

A soil sample has an exchangeable sodium percentage of 16%, its electrical conductivity is 3.3 milli – mhos /cm, and pH of 9.5. How is the soil classified?

Solution:

QUESTION: 147

A submerged pipe outlet is an example of

Solution:

Submerged pipe outlet is a non-modular type of outlet so the discharge depends upon the water level in both the minor and well chamber.

Thus discharge through outlet can be increased by increasing HL or by increasing the depth of water in the minor. If there is any drop in the water level in the minor, the HL and discharge will decrease.

The other common examples of this type of outlet are

a) Open Sluice

b) Drowned pipe outlet

QUESTION: 148

To treat water of 1 MLD, the requirement of lime is 500 ppm. If the purity of the lime is 80%, then the monthly lime requirement will be

Solution:

The lime requirement is 500 ppm.

Therefore, the daily lime requirement for treating 1 MLD water will be

Since the purity of the lime is 80%, then the daily lime requirement

Monthly lime requirements will be

QUESTION: 149

Which one of the following methods would be best suited for the disposal of plastic and rubber waste?

Solution: Pyrolysis is a process of chemically decomposing organic materials such as plastic and rubber at elevated temperatures in the absence of oxygen.

In general, pyrolysis does not involve reactions with oxygen, water, or any other reagents.

Composting: Composting of refuse is a biological method of decomposing solid waste. If the organic materials excluding plastics, leather, and rubber are separated from the solid wastes and are subjected to decomposition either aerobically or anaerobically, the remaining end product is called compost or humus. The entire process involving both the separation and bacterial conversion of the organic solid wastes is known as Composting.

Incineration is one of the most effective methods of reducing the volume and weight of solid waste by burning it in a well-designed furnace.

QUESTION: 150

Among the following, which is/are not pre-treatment units?

Solution: A pre-treatment is necessary in order to protect raw water lifting systems and pipelines against blockages as well as other treatment equipment against abrasion and, more generally, to remove anything that might interfere with subsequent treatment.
• bar screening;

• straining;

• comminution;

• grit removal

• Flow equalization chamber

• Proportion tank

• Neutralization for pH adjustment tank

Nutrient removal tank is the secondary treatment process.

QUESTION: 151

To control vehicular pollution from exhaust of vehicles, the following is fitted:

Solution: Catalytic Convertor is a vehicular pollution control device used in automobiles, which converts the toxic gases pollutants present in engine exhaust to less toxic pollutants by filtering or absorbing by a catalyst & also a chemical reaction.

It converts nitrogen oxide, carbon monoxide & hydrocarbon like harmful products into carbon dioxide, water vapor & nitrogen gas like less harmful products.

Electrostatic precipitator: It is a device that removes suspended dust particles from a gas or exhaust by applying a high-voltage electrostatic charge and collecting the particles on charged plates.

Cyclone separators are separation devices (dry scrubbers) that use the principle of inertia to remove particulate matter from flue gases.

A bag filter is an air pollution control device and dust collector that removes particulates out of air or gas released from commercial processes or combustion for electricity generation.

QUESTION: 152

For controlling the growth of algae, the chemical generally used is:

Solution: Algae are microscopic free-floating plants that play an important role in aquatic ecosystems and directly affect the health of these systems. Through their photosynthetic processes, algae use carbon dioxide, converting it to organic matter and oxygen.
• Algae are important sources of dissolved oxygen in a water impoundment and constitute the basic building blocks of the aquatic food chain

• They cause water quality problems only when they proliferate so much that they upset the ecological balance

• Copper sulfate is frequently used for algal control, and sometimes it is applied on a routine basis during summer months, whether or not it is actually needed

Note: Alum is used as a coagulant in the coagulation process.

QUESTION: 153

The water meter, which is installed on individual house connection, on municipal supply is:

Solution: Water metering is the process of measuring water use. There are two common approaches to flow measurement

i) Displacement

ii) Velocity

Displacement meters: This type of water meter is most often used in residential and small commercial applications and homes. Displacement meters are commonly referred to as Positive Displacement, or "PD" meters.

PD meters are generally very accurate at the low-to-moderate flow rates typical of residential and small commercial users and commonly range in size from 5/8" to 2".

Velocity meters: A velocity-type meter measures the velocity of flow through a meter of a known internal capacity. The speed of the flow can then be converted into the volume of flow to determine the usage.

QUESTION: 154

Which of the following values of pH represents a stronger acid?

Solution:

pH of a water sample is given by

H+ = concentration of H+ ions (mg/l)

If, pH < 7,="" it="" is="" reported="" as="" />

pH > 7, it is reported as basic

pH = 7, it is reported as neutral

This implies, the lesser the pH value, the stronger the acid is.

So, among 2 and 5,

pH = 2 represents stronger acid.

QUESTION: 155

The period of cleaning of a slow sand filter is usually:

Solution: Slow sand filter: They consist of fine sand, supported by gravel. They capture particles near the surface of the bed and are usually cleaned by scraping away the top layer of sand that contains the particles.

Cleaning:

• For cleaning, the top layer of sand is scrapped and 1.5 to 3 cm of sand is removed in each cleaning.

• The frequency of cleaning is 1 to 3 months.

• The rate of filtration is 100-200 l/hr/m2 of filter area.

• It is used for smaller plants in villages.

Rapid sand Filter: They consist of larger sand grains supported by gravel and capture particles throughout the bed. They are cleaned by backwashing water through the bed to 'lift out' the particles.

Cleaning:

1. Cleaning of the filter can also be done using surface wash but it should be accompanied by backwash.

2. Washing period = 24 to 48 hrs.

QUESTION: 156

Non-circular and circular sewers are hydraulically equal when:

Solution:

Two cross-sections will be hydraulically equal when the hydraulic mean depth of the two is the same.

The hydraulic mean depth is given by:

This implies if the two cross-sections have the same ratio of wetted area to wetted perimeter, then it is said to be hydraulically equal.

QUESTION: 157

Which among the following metals is toxic to humans.

Solution: As per BIS 10500 drinking water standards:
• The permissible limit of mercury is less than 0.001 mg/l i.e., at very small concentrations elemental form of mercury is toxic to the central and peripheral nervous systems of humans

• Mercury inhalation can damage respiratory systems and hamper lungs and kidneys

QUESTION: 158

The ruling radius of the horizontal curve on a highway with a design speed of 65 kmph, considering allowable superelevation to be 7% and lateral friction as 0.12

Solution:

The ruling radius of the horizontal curve on a highway, Ruling =

where, e = allowable superelevation

f = coefficient of lateral friction

QUESTION: 159

Modulus of subgrade reaction using 30 cm diameter plates is obtained as 200 N/cm3. The value of the same (in N/cm3) using the standard plate will be

Solution: Standard plate diameter is 75 cm.

K1D1 = K2D2

200 × 30 = K2 × 75

K2 = 80 kg/cm2

QUESTION: 160

The net area of round bars to resist the tension, is the area of the cross-section at

Solution: The net tensile area at threads may be taken as the area corresponding to the root diameter at the thread.

Note: The shearing of rods can take place in the threaded portion of the rod and so the area at the root of the threads, also called the tensile stress area. Since threads can occur in the shear plane, the area for resisting shear should normally be taken as the net tensile stress area, ATnet, of the bars.

QUESTION: 161

As per IS 800:2007, in a bolted joint, to ensure that the effect of bending stress is less than the specified value in the code, the grip length should be

Solution:

As per IS 800:2007, in a bolted joint to ensure that the effect of bending stress is less than the specified value in the code, the grip length, Lg [/ngtr?] 5d

where d = diameter of the bolt

To take care of additional bending stress developed in the connection,

5d < Lg <  8d

If  L> 8d then the section should be redesigned.

QUESTION: 162

A structure has two degrees of indeterminacy. The number of plastic hinges that would be formed at complete collapse is

Solution: A number of plastic hinges for the following situations are given below

Therefore,

Number of plastic hinges = Degree of indeterminacy + 1

Number of plastic hinges = 2 + 1 = 3

QUESTION: 163

A flat plate is welded to a gusset plate by a fillet weld of size 10 mm. The angle between the fusion faces and the effective length of the weld is 85° and 300 mm respectively. If the axial factored load acting on the plate is 250 kN, then the average shear stress produced in the weld is

Solution:

Factored load-carrying capacity of the weld,

P = permissible shear stress in the weld(fy) × effective area of the weld the effective area of the weld = effective length of the weld(Leff)× throat thickness(Tt)

Therefore, P = fy × Leff × Tt

since, the angle between the fusion faces is 85°, Tt = 0.7 × size of the weld

QUESTION: 164

Due to combined bearing stress(fbr), bending stress (fb), and shear stresses (q) under most unfavorable conditions of loading in butt weld, the equivalent stress can be written as

Solution:

As per IS 800: 2007 due to combined bearing stress(fbr), bending stress (fb), and shear stresses (q) under most unfavorable conditions of loading in butt weld, the equivalent stress (fe) can be written as provided that equivalent stress(fe) should not exceed the value allowed for the parent metals.

QUESTION: 165

The effective length of a structural steel compression member of length L effectively held in position and restrained against rotation at one end but neither held in a position nor restrained against rotation at the other end is

Solution:

QUESTION: 166

The main objective of compaction of concrete is:

Solution: Compaction of concrete is the process adopted for expelling the entrapped air as far as possible from the concrete to achieve the highest possible density of the compacted mass.
• Compaction improves the fluidity of concrete and with the reduction of internal friction, packing of coarse aggregates take place

• A well-compacted concrete is free of the loose pockets and air bubbles of entrapped air

• The main purpose of compaction of concrete is to get a dense mass without voids, to get the concrete to surround all reinforcement, and to fill all corners i.e. to provide intimate contact between the concrete and embedded materials

QUESTION: 167

The process of striking off the excess concrete to bring the top surface up to proper grade is known as:

Solution: Screeding: It is the process of striking off the excess concrete to bring the top surface up to proper grade is known as screeding.

Floating: It is the process of removing the irregularities on the surface of the concrete which is left after screeding.

Trowelling: Trowelling is the final operation of finishing. It provides a smoother finish that is hard and abrasion-resistant.

QUESTION: 168

To obtain a very high strength concrete, one should use very fine-grained:

Solution: For high-strength concrete, it is preferable to use high-strength aggregates such as granite aggregates than rounded gravel aggregates.

Heavyweight concrete uses heavy natural aggregates such as barites or magnetite or manufactured aggregates such as iron or lead shot.

Volcanic Scoria is a lightweight aggregate that may be used in interior slabs to reduce weight.

QUESTION: 169

Compaction factor is defined as the ratio of:

Solution:

Compaction factor test is used to determine the workability of the fresh concrete mix. It is defined as the ratio of the weight of partially compacted concrete to fully compacted concrete.

For compaction factor = 0.65 – 0.7, the degree of workability is very low.

For compaction factor = 0.95 – 1, the degree of workability will be very high

QUESTION: 170

The lower water-cement ratio in concrete produces:

Solution: The water-cement ratio is the ratio of the weight of water to the weight of cement used in a concrete mix.

A lower ratio leads to higher strength and durability but may make the mix difficult to work with and form.

The water-cement ratio is inversely proportional to the strength of concrete, lower water-cement ratio leads to an increase in bonds between the aggregates, cement, and sand.

As w/c increases quantity of cement in concrete reduces hence the availability of paste in concrete reduces. Poorer the paste higher the creep. therefore we can say that strength of concrete is inversely proportional to the creep.

QUESTION: 171

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Workability reduces with time.

B. Workability does not reduce with time.

C. Workability remains constant with time.

Solution: As time passes the fresh concrete gets stiffened because some of the water used to mix the concrete gets evaporated and some get absorbed by the aggregates.

Thus, the workability of concrete reduces with time.

This loss of workability with time is known as slump loss.

QUESTION: 172

The durability of concrete is directly proportional to:

Solution: Durability of concrete may be defined as the ability of concrete to resist weathering action, chemical attack, and abrasion while maintaining its desired engineering properties.
• More will be the cement-aggregate ratio, more will be the durability of concrete

• The durability of concrete is inversely proportional to the water-cement ratio

QUESTION: 173

Aggregates affecting the durability of concrete most are:

Solution: The aggregate is said to be flaky when its least dimension is less than 3/5th (or 60%) of its mean dimension. Flaky aggregates are crushed easily and hence unsuitable for concrete.
QUESTION: 174

For given workability, the grading that requires the least amount of water is one that gives:

Solution:
• Workability of concrete is the property of freshly mixed concrete which determines the ease and homogeneity with which it can be mixed, placed, consolidated, and finished

• Water cement ratio has many effects on workability. Workability is directly proportional to the water-cement ratio. An increase in the water-cement ratio increases the workability of concrete

• If the Surface area for the given cement and aggregates is more, we require more amount of water for the required workability and vice versa

• Bigger size aggregates require less amount of water for wetting surface, requires less amount of paste for lubricating the surface

• Grading of aggregate has the maximum influence on workability. The better the grading, the less is the amount of void in it

• When the total void is less, an excess paste is available to give a better lubricating effect

• With an excess amount of paste, the mixture becomes cohesive and fatty which prevents segregation of particles & least amount of compacting efforts is required to compact the concrete

QUESTION: 175

Identify the wrong statements:

Solution:

The increase in moisture content increases the volume of sand. The reason is that moisture causes the film of water around sand particles which results in the increase of the volume of sand. For a moisture content percentage of 5 to 8, there can be an increase in volume up to 20 to 40 percent. If the sand is finer there will be more increase in volume. This is known as bulking of sand.

The volumetric proportioning of sand is greatly affected by bulking of sand to a greater extent. Weight proportioning is recommended to avoid problems due to the bulking of sand.

QUESTION: 176

What is the range of fineness modulus of sand which is least suitable for making a good concrete

Solution:

QUESTION: 177

Self–compacting concrete (SCC) is characterized by:

Solution: Mixture proportions for SCC differ from those of ordinary concrete, in that the former has more powder content and less coarse aggregate. Moreover, SCC incorporates high range water reducers (HRWR, super plasticizers) in larger amounts and frequently a viscosity modifying agent (VMA) in small doses.
QUESTION: 178

If the ratio of the span to the overall depth does not exceed 7, the stiffness of the beam will ordinarily be satisfactory in case of a

Solution: As per IS 456:2000 clause 23.2.1 (a)

The vertical deflection limits may be assumed to be satisfied provided that the span to effective depth ratio should not exceed the basic values tabulated below, for span less than or equal to 10 m.

QUESTION: 179

If W is the load in a circular slab of radius R, the maximum radial moment at the center of the slab is

Solution:

Radial moment at the centre of the Circular slab is

μ = Poisson’s ratio

r = any section at a distance r from centre of the slab

W = load on circular slab

For the maximum radial moment at centre

r = 0 and μ = 0

Therefore,

QUESTION: 180

Tetrapods are to be designed to keep on the shores of Arabian sea. It is expected that these structures would face high tides for 70% of the times and low tides for the remaining 30% of the time. The exposure class to be considered for these structures as per IS 456 would be:

Solution: As per IS 456:2000, the general environment to which the concrete will be exposed during its working life is classified into five levels of severity i.e,

1. Mild: Concrete surfaces protected against weather or aggressive conditions, except those situated in coastal area.

2. Moderate: Concrete surface sheltered from severe rain or freezing whilst wet, concrete exposed to condensation and rain, concrete continuously underwater.

3. Severe: Concrete completely immersed in seawater, concrete exposed to coastal environment.

4. Very Severe: Concrete in contact with or buried under aggressive sub-soil/groundwater.

5. Extreme: Surface of members in tidal zone, Members in direct contact with liquid/ solid aggressive chemicals.

QUESTION: 181

For M 150 grade of concrete (1 : 2 : 4) the moment of resistance factor is ________?

Solution:

Moment of resistance factor is given by

Where,

c = permissible compressive bending stress in concrete (depends upon grade of concrete)

c = 5 N/mm2 for M150 grade of concrete

j = liver arm depth factor =  1 - k/3

k = Neutral axis depth factor =  mc/(mc + t)

m = modular ratio =

σcbc = 5 N/mm2

QUESTION: 182

The spacing between two successive stirrups (hoops) in reinforced cement concrete beam shall not be less than:

Solution: As per IS 456:2000, the spacing between two successive stirrups in the reinforced concrete beam shall not be less than 100 mm.

Note:

i) The minimum vertical distance between two main bars shall be

• 15 mm,

• Two-third of the nominal size of coarse aggregate, or

• Maximum size of the bar or whichever is greater.

ii) Maximum Spacing between Bars in Tension:

1. For beams, these distances are 300 mm, 180 mm and 150 mm for grades of main reinforcement of Fe 250, Fe 415 and Fe 500, respectively.

2. For slabs

(i) The maximum spacing between two parallel main reinforcing bars shall be 3d or 300 mm or whichever is less, and

(ii) The maximum spacing between two secondary parallel bars shall be 5d or 450 mm or whichever is less.

QUESTION: 183

As per the working stress method of reinforced concrete design, if a concrete has permissible compressive stress of p, then the modular ratio is approximately given as:

Solution:

Modular ratio is given by

QUESTION: 184

Lifting of corners of slab is prevented by providing______ reinforcement.

Solution: Torsion reinforcement shall be provided at any corner where the slab is simply supported on both edges meeting at that corner and is prevented from lifting.
• It shall consist of top and bottom reinforcement, each with a layer of bars placed parallel to the sides of the slab and extending from the edges a minimum distance of one-fifth of the shorter span.

• The area of reinforcement per unit width in each of these four layers shall be three-quarters of the area required for the maximum mid-span moment per unit width in the slab.

• Torsion reinforcement equal to half that described above shall be provided at a corner contained by edges over only one of which the slab is continuous.

QUESTION: 185

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution: Modes of shear failure in Prestressed concrete beam are web shear cracking, Flexure-shear cracking. Shear design for a prestressed concrete beam is based on elastic theory.
QUESTION: 186

The minimum eccentricity for a design column as per IS-456:2000, where L is unsupported length and D = Lateral dimension.

Solution:

As per IS 456:2000, minimum eccentricity equals an unsupported length of column/500 plus lateral dimension/30, subject to minimum of 20 mm.

i.e.

Or 20 mm, whichever is greater.

QUESTION: 187

At a certain stage under elastic loading, the elongation observed was 0.03 mm, the gauge length was 150 mm and the modulus of elasticity was 2 × 105 N/mm2. What was the stress at the location?

Solution:

Δl = 0.03 mm E = 2 × 105 N/mm2

QUESTION: 188

A hollow shaft of inner radius 30 mm and outer radius 50 mm is subjected to a twisting moment. If the shear stress developed at an inner radius of the shaft is 60 N/mm2. What is the maximum shear stress in the shaft?

Solution:

As we know, torsional shear stress varies linearly

= 100 N/mm2

QUESTION: 189

If Poisson’s ratio for material is 0.5, then the elastic modulus for the material is

Solution:

QUESTION: 190

Which of the following statements is true?

Solution: Shear Stress on the principal plane is zero as shown in the figure. In the figure shown below X-axis represent the normal stress and Y-axis represents the shear stress. Since the horizontal X-axis also represents the maximum principal plane, therefore, shear stress (Y-value) will be zero on this plane.

QUESTION: 191

The one that has the least carbon content is:

Solution: Wrought iron is an iron alloy with a very low carbon (less than 0.08%) content in contrast to cast iron (2.1% to 4%).

Pig iron has a very high carbon content, typically 3.8 - 4.7%, along with silica and other constituents (very brittle, limited application)

Mild Steel is approximately having 0.05% to 0.25% carbon content

QUESTION: 192

In a thin cylindrical shell, the ratio of longitudinal stress to hoop stress is