Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 4


200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering | Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 4


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Attempt Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 4 | 200 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for SSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering for SSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Uttarakhand : Dehradun : : Mizoram : ?

Solution: The capital of Uttarakhand is Dehradun, Similarly the capital of Mizoram is Aizawl.

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 2

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Crime : Court : : Disease : ?

Solution: Crime is related to court similarly Disease is related to Hospital.

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 3

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

YQXP : JBIA : : OVNU : ?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 4

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ADGJ : BEHK : : DGJM : ?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 5

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ACE : BDF : : GIK : ?

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 6

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

CAT : BIG : : DDY : ?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 7

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

1 : 1 : : 10 : ?

Solution:

(1)3=1

(10)3=1000

Hence correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 8

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

7 : 56 : : 5 : ?

Solution: 7 × 8 = 56

(7-2) × (8 -2 )= 30

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 9

The following numbers fall in a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?

(53, 63, 83, 73)

Solution: All numbers are prime, except 63.

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 10

Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata and Cochin ?

Solution: Mumbai, Kolkata and Cochin are the capital of Maharashtra, west Bengal and Kerala, similarly chennai in the capital of Tamilnadu.

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 11

Find the odd word/letters/number pair form the given alternatives.

Solution: Kolkata, Vishakhapathnam and Haldia are costal areas except Bengaluru.

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 12

Find the odd word/letters/number pair form the given alternatives.

Carrot, Cabbage, Potato, Ginger, Beetroot

Solution: Carrot, potato, Ginger and Beetroot all are ground vegetable except cabbage.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 13

Find the odd word/letters/number pair form the given alternatives.

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 14

Find the odd word/letters/number pair form the given alternatives.

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 15

Find the odd word/letters/number pair form the given alternatives.

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 16

Find the odd word/letters/number pair form the given alternatives.

Solution: All pairs are divisible by 9, except option (D).

Hence correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 17

Find the odd word/letters/number pair form the given alternatives.

Solution: Given pairs of numbers are the square of first number to get second number except option (C) in not the square of any number.

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 18

Find the smallest number which wen divided by 25, 40 or 56 has in each case 13 as remainder.

Solution: LCM of 25, 40, 56 = 1400

Required number

= 1400+13= 1413

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 19

Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Emplane

2. Empower

3. Embrace

4. Elocution

5. Equable

Solution: Elocution →Embrace →Emplane → Empower →Equable

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 20

Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words ?

1. Sowing

2. Tilling

3. Reaping

4. Weeding

Solution: Tilling →Sowing →Weeding→ Reaping

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 21

Arrange the colours of the rainbow (in the reverse order) (from the top edge):

1. Blue

2. Indigo

3. Yellow

4. Green

5. Violet

Solution: The order of colours of the rainbow from bottom to top is VIBGYOR (Violet–Indigo–Blue–Green–Yellow–Orange–Red)

So, the order from top to bottom is (3. Yellow-4. Green-1. Blue-2. Indigo-5. Violet)

Hence correct answer is option (a).

QUESTION: 22

Direction : In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

CEG, JLN, QSU, ?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 23

Direction : In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

B-1, D-2, F-4, H-8, J-16, ?

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 24

Direction : In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

CGJ, KOR, TXA, ?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 25

Direction : In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

Solution: 2 × 2 + 2 = 6

6 × 2 -2 = 10

10 × 2 + 2 = 22

22 × 2 -2 = 42

42 × 2 + 2 = 86

86 × 2 - 2 = 170

170 × 2 + 2 = 342

Hence correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 26

Direction : In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

Solution: (922=12)

(1332=22)

(2242=38)

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 27

Direction : In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

Solution: 8 × 3 +1 = 25

3 × 4 + 1= 13

4 × 5 + 1 = 21

5 × 6 + 1 = 31

6 × 7 + 1 = 43

7 × 8 + 1 = 57

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 28

Direction : In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

Solution: 4 × 3 + 11 + 5 = 28

5 × 3 + 20 + 22 = 57

6 × 5 + 121 + 25 = 176

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 29

Direction : In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

Solution: 7 × 9 × 1 = 63

3 × 1 × 7 × ? = 63

? = 3

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 30

Arrange the letters to form a word and suggest what is it.

NGDELAN

Solution: ENGLAND : it is a country.

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 31

If A = 1, B = 2, and N= 14, then BEADING = ?

Solution: A=1

B = 2

and N = 14

B E A D I N G

↓ ↓↓ ↓↓ ↓ ↓

2 5 1 4 9 14 7

Position of letters of english alphabet starts from A.

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 32

If A =1, AGE = 13, then CAR= ?

Solution: A = 1

AGE = 1+7+5 =13

CAR = 3+1+18=22

Hence correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 33

If an electric train runs in the direction from North to south with a speed of 150 km/hr covering 2000 km, then in which direction will the smoke of its engine go ?

Solution: From the given question, if is clear that train is moving only in the direction from North to South so no direction will the smoke of its engine go.

Hence correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 34

If 1=1, 2=3, 3=5 and 4=7, then 5= ?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 35

Find the answer of the following:

Solution: 7 +3 = (7-3) (7 × 3) = 421

11 + 7 = (11 - 7) (11 × 7) = 477

9 + 5 = (9 - 5) (9 × 5) = 445

6 + 2 = (6-2) (6 × 2) = 412

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 36

Find the odd number out :

18, 34, 36, 54

Solution: All other numbers except 34 can be divided by 6.

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 37

Introducing a girl, Ram said to his son-in-law, "Her brother is the only son of my brother-in-law." Who is the girl of Ram?

Solution: In the following diagram,

The circle represents females.

The square represents males.

The single horizontal line represents a sibling.

The double horizontal line represents a couple.

The single vertical line represents Mother/Father/Son/Daughter.

∴ The girl is niece.

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following are the line of symmetry?

Solution: In the given figure, AB, CD, EF, and GH are the line of symmetry.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 39

Murthy drove from town A to town B. In the first hour, he travelled (1/4) of the journey. In the next one hour, he travelled (1/2) of the journey. In the last 30 minutes, he travelled 80km. Find the distance of the whole journey.

Solution: Let total distance of the whole journey =xkm

(x/4 + x/2 + 80 = x)

(3x + 320 = 4x)

(4x − 3x = 320)

(x = 320km)

Hence correct option (c).

QUESTION: 40

Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in the question figure have been cut.

Question Figure:

Answer Figure:

Solution:

Answer figure (c) is obtained.

QUESTION: 41

Which of the answer figures is not made up only by the components of the question figure?

Question Figure:

Answer Figure:

Solution:

Answer figure (c) is obtain.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 42

Which of the following numbers is present only in the square and the circle?

Solution: The number is present only in the square, and the circle is '4'.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 43

Which figure represents the relationship among computer, Internet, and information communication Technology?

Solution: computer, Internet, and information communication technology are related to each other.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 44

Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

Statements:

1. SAGE is a reputed publisher of both journals and books.

2. All publishing of SAGE is highly qualitative.

Conclusions:

I. SAGE publishes qualitative articles.

II. SAGE did not publish the lowest quality articles.

III. SAGE enriches its publications by high scrutinization.

Solution: Only conclusions I and II.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 45

Direction: Each question below is followed by a statement/ Question and arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the following arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument. In making decisions about an important question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are of minor importance and may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. GIVE ANSWER (A) If the only argument I is strong. (B) If only argument II is strong. (C) If both arguments I and II are strong. (D) If neither argument I nor II is strong.

Statement: Should little children be loaded with such heavy school bags?

Arguments:

I. Yes, heavy bags means more knowledge.

II. No heavy school bags spoil the posture of the children.

III. Yes, children need to be adapted for earning knowledge

IV. No, a heavy bag never ensures knowledge gathering

Solution: From the given statements, it is clear that arguments II and IV are strong arguments.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 46

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question Figure:

Answer Figure:

Solution:

Answer figure (C) will complete the pattern in the given question figure.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 47

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question Figure:

Answer Figure:

Solution:

In the given question figure answer figure (D) will complete the pattern.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 48

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Question Figure:

Answer Figure:

Solution:

Answer figure (A) wil appear when it is opened.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 49

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the question figure?

Question Figure:

Answer Figure:

Solution: If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then answer figure (D) is the mirror image.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 50

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

Solution: (5,9×4=36⇒536)

(6,10×6⇒660)

(4,5×4=420)

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 51

Tiny marine animals which constitute limestone skeletons are called-

Solution: Coral reefs are underwater structures made from calcium carbonate secreted by corals. Coral reefs are colonies of tiny animals found in marine waters that contain few nutrients. Most coral reefs are built from stony corals, consisting of polyps that cluster in groups.
QUESTION: 52

AIDS virus destroys-

Solution: A person with a healthy immune system has various types of Lymphocytes that combat any invading disease organisms.

T4-lymphocytes and other immune system components in the body are alerted when they detect disease organisms.

HIV ( the AlDS virus) multiplies within the body's T4 -lymphocytes and may ultimately destroy them.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

QUESTION: 53

Silicone is a polymer of-

Solution: To manufacture silicones, alkyl-substituted chlorosilanes are used as starting material. Since dimethyl silane contains —OH group at the end of the chain, polymerization and chain length increases. However, the hydrolysis of alkyl trichlorosilane gives a very complex cross-linked polymer.
QUESTION: 54

A good conductor while carrying current is-

Solution: Electrons carry current in a good conductor of electricity, and they are negatively charged. This makes a good electrical conductor negatively charged.
QUESTION: 55

Social accounting system in India is classified into -

Solution: Social accounting is a method by which a firm seeks to place a value on the impact on society of its operations. It is a systematic analysis of the effects of the organisation on its shareholders, with stakeholder input as part of the data that are analysed for the accounting statement. One social accounting system primarily attempts to measure National Income, final product, consumption, and capital accumulation.
QUESTION: 56

Which of the following plant pigments absorbs in the red and far-red region of light?

Solution: Phytochrome is a photoreceptor, a pigment that plants, and some bacteria and fungi, use to detect light. It is sensitive to light in the red and far-red regions of the visible spectrum. Many flowering plants use it to regulate the time of flowering based on the length of day and night (photoperiodism) and to set circadian rhythms. It also regulates other responses, including the germination of seeds, elongation of seedlings, the size, shape, number of leaves, the synthesis of chlorophyll, and the straightening of the epicotyl or hypocotyl hook of dicot seedlings.
QUESTION: 57

The device used for measuring the wavelength of X-rays is-

Solution: The device used for measuring the wavelength of X-rays is Bragg Spectrometer.
QUESTION: 58

The most endangered Asiatic top predator on the edge of extinction is-

Solution: The most endangered Asiatic top predator, the Dhole, is on the edge of extinction. It is also called the Asiatic wild dog or Indian wild dog, and it is a species of canid native to South and Southeast Asia.
QUESTION: 59

Who is the author of the book "No Full Stops in India"?

Solution: Sir William Mark Tully was born in British India in 1935. He was Chief of Bureau for twenty years at BBC, New Delhi. He has been a recipient of many awards and has written books based on his experience in India. No Full Stops In India is a collection of ten essays based on the chronicles of the author's life in India.
QUESTION: 60

Pitts India Act of 1784 was a/an-

Solution: The East India Company Act (EIC Act 1784), also known as Pitt's India Act, was an Act of the Parliament of Great Britain intended to address the shortcomings of the Regulating Act of 1773 by bringing the East India Company's rule in India under the control of the British Government.
QUESTION: 61

Apatanis are the major tribal group of-

Solution: The Apatani, or (Tanw, Tanii), are a tribal group of people living in the Ziro valley in the Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal Pradesh in India. This tribe speaks the languages Apatani, English, and Hindi.
QUESTION: 62

The demand for labor is called-

Solution: The demand for labor is an economic principle derived from the demand for a firm's output. If demand for a firm's output increases, the firm will demand more labor, thus hiring more staff. Those seeking employment will supply their labor in exchange for wages.
QUESTION: 63

Analects is the sacred book of-

Solution: The Lunyu (Analects), the most-revered sacred scripture in the Confucian tradition, was contemporary of Confucius; and the Lunyu (“Conversations”), or Analects (selected miscellaneous In the Analects the philosopher and bureaucrat Confucius (551–479 BCE) advocated.
QUESTION: 64

In programming, repeating some statements is usually called-

Solution: In programming, a loop is a sequence of instructions that is continuous repeated until a certain condition is reached. C language requires loops on a large scale to execute the actions as many times as needed.

QUESTION: 65

Maps on large scale, representing both natural and man-made features are called-

Solution: A topographic map is a detailed and accurate illustration of man-made and natural features on the ground such as roads, railways, power transmission lines, contours, elevations, rivers, lakes, and geographical names. The topographic map is a two-dimensional representation of the Earth's three-dimensional landscape.
QUESTION: 66

The presence of Cobalt in Vitamin B12 was established for the first time by-

Solution: Atomic absorption spectroscopy is an analytical chemistry technique used for determining the concentration of a particular metal element and is widely used in pharmaceutics. It was used for the determination of cobalt in Vitamin B12.
QUESTION: 67

Pulakesin II was the greatest ruler of the-

Solution: Pulakeshin II (IAST: Pulakeśin, r. c. 610–642 CE) was the most famous ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi (present-day Badami in Karnataka, India). During his reign, the Chalukya kingdom expanded to cover most of the Deccan region in peninsular India.
QUESTION: 68

Which of the following movements saw the biggest peasant guerilla war on the eve of independence ?

Solution: The Telangana Movement was the biggest peasant guerrilla war of modern Indian history affecting 3000 villages and 3 million population. The uprising began in July 1946 and was at its greatest intensity between August 1947 and September 1948.
QUESTION: 69

Who is the founder of "Facebook," which is currently the No. 1 social networking website in India?

Solution: Zuckerberg launches Facebook as a Harvard-only social network. Zuckerberg, Dustin Moskovitz, and Eduardo Saverin from Thefacebook.com LLC, a partnership.
QUESTION: 70

Which one of the following does not contain silver?

Solution: German Silver is an alloy of copper, zinc, and nickel, sometimes containing lead and tin. It does not have silver metal and is extensively used because of its hardness and resistance to corrosion.
QUESTION: 71

The term of a non-permanent member of the U.N. Security Council is-

Solution: New Delhi: With India formally elected as a non-permanent member of the powerful UN Security Council for a two-year term on Wednesday, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said that he was “deeply grateful” for the overwhelming support from the international community.
QUESTION: 72

Who presides over the Joint Session of the Indian Parliament?

Solution: The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President (Article 108) and is presided over by the Speaker or, in his absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
QUESTION: 73

Alpha particle is the nucleus of an atom of-

Solution: Alpha particle, positively charged particle, identical to the nucleus of the helium-4 atom, spontaneously emitted by some radioactive substances, consisting of two protons and two neutrons bound together, thus having a mass of four units and a positive charge of two.
QUESTION: 74

Forced Saving refer to-

Solution: In economics, forced saving occurs when a person’s spending is less than their earnings due to consumer goods shortages, which can cause hyperinflation. Forced saving holds a major role in describing how expansionary monetary policy can cause artificial booms.
QUESTION: 75

Under which Article of the constitution of India can the fundamental rights of the members of Armed Forces be specifically restricted?

Solution: Article 33 & 34 empower the Parliament to restrict, modify or abrogate the fundamental rights to the members of armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, members of intelligence agencies, or similar services. This is required to make the proper discharge of their sensitive and urgent duties in nature. This power is available only with parliament and not state legislatures. Further, such an act cannot be challenged in a court because it violates fundamental rights. Additionally, court-martial (tribunals under the military law) have been exempted from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts under Article 33.
QUESTION: 76

Coating of solid waste with impervious material is known as-

Solution: Containment of toxic or hazardous constituents in industrial solid wastes is currently being accomplished using: (i) coating grains of waste material with an inert and non-reactive impervious material (microencapsulation), and (ii) coating blocks of waste material with an inert, non-reactive impervious material (macro encapsulation).
QUESTION: 77

Which is the first state in India to pass the Food Security Law?

Solution: The Chhattisgarh government has taken the initiative to pass the first Food Security Act in the country.
QUESTION: 78

Which Article of the Indian Constitution did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar term as the "Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution"?

Solution: A mere declaration of fundamental rights in the Constitution is meaningless, useless, and worthless without providing effective machinery for their enforcement if and when they are violated. Hence, Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights protected is in itself a fundamental right. This makes the fundamental rights real. That is why Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’.
QUESTION: 79

The Uttaramerur inscription provides information on the administration of the-

Solution: The Chola kings followed a highly efficient system of administration. The most important feature of the Chola administration was the local administration at districts, towns, and villages level. Uttaramerur inscriptions speak much about the Chola administration.
QUESTION: 80

Rajatarangini is a name of book written by Kalhana in 12th century. Rajatarangini is a Sanskrit word so what is the meaning of Rajatarangini?

Solution:

Meaning of Sanskrit word Rajatrangini is 'The river of Kings'.

QUESTION: 81

A narrow strip of land that connects two larger landmasses is called-

Solution: The narrow strip of land joining two landmasses is called Isthmus. Isthmus is a narrow strip of land (with water on both sides) connecting two larger land areas. Isthmus of Panama connects South America and North America, while the Isthmus of Suez connects Asia and Africa.
QUESTION: 82

The process through which excess of light energy is dissipated in photosynthesis is -known as

Solution: When light is absorbed by one of the many pigments in photosystem II, energy is passed inward from pigment to pigment until it reaches the reaction center. The high-energy electron is passed to an acceptor molecule and replaced with an electron from water.
QUESTION: 83

The Sigmoid Colon is part of-

Solution: The sigmoid colon (or pelvic colon) is the part of the large intestine that is closest to the rectum and anus. It forms a loop that averages about 35–40 cm (13.78-15.75 in) in length. The loop is typically shaped like a Greek letter sigma (ς) or Latin letter S (thus sigma + -oid).
QUESTION: 84

Which is a natural colloid?

Solution: Natural colloids are the colloidal substances naturally available in the human and animal body, in plants, in all living organisms, and non-living objects.

So, NaCl, RCOONa, and sugar are synthetic colloidal substances. A natural colloidal substance is blood.

QUESTION: 85

Thiamidine Dimer formation in DNA is caused by-

Solution: Cyclobutane thymine dimer is a photo lesion produced by UV radiation in sunlight and is considered a potential factor causing skin cancer. It is formed as a covalently bonded complex of two adjacent thymines on a single DNA strand.
QUESTION: 86

Who among the following Presidents of MCC was a non-professional cricketer?

Solution: Christopher Martin-Jenkins was a British cricket journalist and a past President of the MCC. He was also a commentator for Test Match Special (TMS) on BBC Radio from 1973 until diagnosed with terminal cancer in January 2012.
QUESTION: 87

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched? Place Location

Solution: Tahrir Square, also known as “Martyr Square,” is a major public town square in Downtown Cairo. Tahrir Square was the focal point of the 2011 Egyptian Revolution against former president Hosni Mubarak.
QUESTION: 88

Which of the following is not an investment expenditure in goods and services?

Solution: Expenditure method: national income is measured as a flow of expenditure. It includes the sum of private consumption expenditure: government consumption expenditure, gross capital formation (Government and private), and net exports (Export-Import).
QUESTION: 89

Teeth and Bones acquire strength and rigidity from-

Solution: Calcium is used to make our bones and teeth strong, and hence strength and rigidity is acquired from it
QUESTION: 90

Who is the Chairman of the Law Commission?

Solution: Jain was appointed as the Chairman of the Law Commission. Justice D.K. Jain has been appointed as the Chairman of the 20th Law Commission of India by the Union Government of India.
QUESTION: 91

The seat of Madhya Pradesh High Court is located at -

Solution: Principal Seat: Jabalpur, M.P. Presidential with confirmation of Chief Justice of India and Governor of the respective state. The Madhya Pradesh High Court is located in Jabalpur.
QUESTION: 92

Division of powers and Independent Judiciary are the two important features of-

Solution: Division of powers and the independent judiciary are the two most important features of the federal form of government.
QUESTION: 93

Ultraviolet rays can be used in water treatment as-

Solution: As a water treatment technique, UV is an effective disinfectant due to its strong germicidal (inactivating) ability. UV disinfects water containing bacteria and viruses and can be effective against protozoans like Giardia lamblia cysts or Cryptosporidium oocysts.
QUESTION: 94

Who was the first to use the term 'State'?

Solution: The early 16th-century works of Machiavelli (especially The Prince) played a central role in popularizing the use of the word "state" in something similar to its modern sense. The contrast of church and state still dates to the 16th century. The North American colonies were called "states" as early as the 1630s.
QUESTION: 95

The type of tail found in Shark is-

Solution: The shark’s tail consists of the caudal peduncle and the caudal fin, which provide the primary source of thrust for the shark. Most sharks have heterocercal caudal fins, meaning that the backbone extends into the (usually longer) upper lobe.
QUESTION: 96

Which bacterial strain developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations can be -used for treating oil spills?

Solution: The PAHs found in the oil are particularly resistant to microbial degradation by the intrinsic stability of the aromatic ring. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons pose a significant health hazard as many are toxic or carcinogenic and persist in the oil‐polluted environments long after the (linear) alkanes are degraded. Luckily, PAHs also have biological origins and are, for example, formed by the combustion of organic matter in forest fires. A natural occurrence of compounds usually means that some bacteria can be found in Nature that can feed on them. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons comprise of two or more fused aromatic rings with a diverse range of branching types and aromatic groups. Not surprisingly, therefore, effective PAH breakdown involves whole communities of both bacteria and eukaryotes.
QUESTION: 97

Which one of the following represents the Savings of the Private Corporate Sector?

Solution: One of the important sources of saving is the private corporate sector, the data for which is provided mainly by the Reserve Bank. This is largely reflective of the retained profits of corporate entities.
QUESTION: 98

Which river in India flows in a rift valley?

Solution: Narmada flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhya Range on the north and the Satpura Range on the south. The Narmada, also called the Rewa, is a river in central India and the sixth-longest river in the Indian subcontinent.
QUESTION: 99

The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian at a place is-

Solution: The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian is called magnetic declination.
QUESTION: 100

Julia Gillard is the Prime Minister of-

Solution: Julia Eileen Gillard AC (born 29 September 1961) is an Australian former politician who served as the 27th Prime Minister of Australia and Leader of the Australian Labor Party from 2010 to 2013.
QUESTION: 101

A reinforced concrete beam, supported on columns at ends, has a clear span of 5m and 0.5 m effective depth. It carries a total uniformly distributed load of 100 kN/m. The design shear force for the beam is :

Solution:

For a UDL load applied on a simply supported beam, shear force

Here L=5m

The effective depth of the beam is 0.5m; hence critical section for shear occurs at a distance of 0.5m from the face of the column.

Therefore, design shear force.

QUESTION: 102

In a pipe when the valve is closed suddenly, then due to high pressure

Solution:

During sudden closure of valve, a wave of high pressure intensity will be produced in the water, due to this high pressure circumferential and longitudinal stresses will be produced.

QUESTION: 103

Calculate the volume (cubic meter) of earthwork for an embankment of length 30 m and width 4 m. The mean depth of the embankment is 4 m and side slope is 2: 1. Using mid-sectional area method.

Solution:

Given,
Length of embankment(L) = 30 m
width of embankment(B) = 4 m
mean depth of embankment(dm) = 4 m
side slope is 2:1
Area of mid-section = Area of rectangular
portion + area of two triangular portion

= 1440 m3

QUESTION: 104

Along the horizontal curves, if centrifugal force exceeds lateral friction, vehicles may

Solution:

Skidding of vehicle occurs when centrifugal force exceeds lateral friction

QUESTION: 105

The difference in pressure head, measured by a mercury water differential memo meter for a 20 cm difference of mercury level, will be:

Solution:

Pressure difference

Hence h = 2.72 m

QUESTION: 106

For the stiffness criteria of a simply supported beam the ratio of its span to depth shall not exceed:

Solution:

As per is 456:2000, clause 23.2.1, L/d foe spans upto 10 m.

QUESTION: 107

The limit to Poisson's ratio is :

Solution: The Poisson's ratio of a stable, isotropic, linear elastic material cannot be less than - 1.0 nor greater than 0.5 due to the requirement that Young's modulus, the shear modulus, and bulk modulus have positive values.
QUESTION: 108

Cement will have higher ultimate strength, less generation of heat and less cracking if:

Solution:

Initial setting of Portland cement is due to the tricalcium aluminate. Tricalcium aluminate hydrates quickly, generates much heat and makes only small contribution to the strength within the first 24 hours. Among all the elements, the aluminate generates the maximum heat. Due to this, tricalcium aluminate is responsible for most of.the undesirable properties of concrete.

QUESTION: 109

In the following question, select the related letters/number from the given alternatives.
GREAT : 25 : : NUMBER : ?

Solution:

Here, GREAT is a five character word ⇒ 5 × 5 = 25
Therefore, NUMBER is a six character word ⇒ 6 × 6 = 36
Hence answer is 36.

QUESTION: 110

A pre-cast pile generally used is :

Solution: For a given section, a square pile has a greater end bearing resistance as compared to a square pile.
QUESTION: 111

The longitudinal shearing stresses acting on the surface between the steel and concrete are called_______ .

Solution:

The behavior and load carrying behavior of reinforced concrete structures is influence by the interaction between the concrete and reinforcement. The stress transfer between reinforcement and concrete in the longitudinal direction of the bars is called bond. An essential feature of reinforced concrete is the bond between steel and concrete.

QUESTION: 112

In a gradually varied flow, if dy/dx is positive them dE/dx will be

Solution:

Positive if y > yc

QUESTION: 113

Consider the following statements :

A simply-supported beamish subjected to a couple somewhere in the span. It would produce

1. A rectangular SF diagram

2. parabolic BM diagrams

3. both + ve and - ve BMs are maximum at the point of application of the couple.

Of these statements

Solution:

QUESTION: 114

Select the related word/letters from the given alternatives.
Ctrl + X : Cut : : Ctrl + C : ?

Solution:

Ctrl + X are shortcut for cut in computer. Similarly, Ctrl + C are shortcut in computer for Copy.

QUESTION: 115

Directions: Select the related letters from the given alternatives.
ACFJ : EGJN ∷ IKNR : ?

Solution:

The pattern here is as follows,

Hence the required term is MORV.

QUESTION: 116

Negative skin friction occurs when:

Solution:

Negative skin friction is phenomenon in which surrounding soil settles more than settlement of pile and this condition occurs when surrounding soil is very loose.

QUESTION: 117

The limiting length of an offset does not depend upon-

Solution: The allowable length of offset depends upon the degree of accuracy required, scale, method of setting out the perpendicular, and nature of the ground.
QUESTION: 118

For routine consolidation test in the laboratory, the thickness of the specimen is;

Solution: An oedometer sample thickness of 0 mm is used for a diameter of 60 mm.
QUESTION: 119

The moment of inertia of a circular area of radius r with respect to diameter axis is

Solution:

The moment of inertia of a circular area of radius r with respect to diameter axis is πr4 ÷ 4 where R is the radius of the circle.

QUESTION: 120

The line drawn through the points of same declination is called

Solution:

Iso = equal, Gonic = declination, thus isogonic lines represents line obtained from joining points of equal declination.

QUESTION: 121

If A + B means A is the son of B; A – B means A is the husband of B; A × B means A is the sister of B, then which of the following shows the relation P is nephew of Q?

Solution:

P + B – R × Q
P + B ⇒ P is son of B
B - R ⇒ B is husband of R
R × Q ⇒ R is sister of Q

Hence, P is the nephew of Q
P – B + R × Q
P - B ⇒ P is husband of B
B + R ⇒ B is son of R

This is not possible as B is wife of P, B cannot be son of anyone.
P + B × R – Q
P + B ⇒ P is son of B
B × R ⇒ B is sister of R
R + Q ⇒ R is son of Q

This is not possible as Q is mother or
father of R, Q cannot be uncle of anyone.
P × B – R + Q
P × B ⇒ P is sister of B
B - R ⇒ B is husband of R
R + Q ⇒ R is son of Q

This is not possible as R is wife of B, R cannot be son of anyone.

QUESTION: 122

Directions: the related Word from the given alternatives.
Bird : Wings ∷ Fish : ?

Solution:

Birds fly with the help of wings.
Similarly fish swims with the help of fins.
Therefore, fish is related to fins.

QUESTION: 123

Major principal stress at a point is 200 MPa. The radius of Mohr’s stress circle is 50 MPA. What is the minor principal stress at the point?

Solution:

σ1 = 200 and (σ1 - σ2) ÷ 2 = 50
σ1 - σ3 = 100
hence, = σ3 = 200 - 100 = 100 MPa

QUESTION: 124

The property of a soil due to which the loss in shear strength caused by remoulding can be regained with the time is known as:

Solution:

Thixotropy is the property of a soil due to which the loss in shear strength caused by remoulding can be regained with the time.

QUESTION: 125

Directions: In question select the related number from the given alternatives.
17 : 37∷ 65 : ?

Solution:

The pattern here is:
42 + 1 = 17, 4 + 2 = 6;
62 + 1 = 37, 6 + 2 = 8;
82+ 1 = 65, 8 + 2 = 10
Thus,
102 + 1 = 101
Hence the required number is 101.

QUESTION: 126

The minimum grade of reinforced concrete in seawater as per IS 456: 2000 is :

Solution: Concrete in sea-water or exposed directly along the sea-coast shall be at least M 20 Grade in plain concrete and M 30 in case of reinforced concrete.
QUESTION: 127

Local shear failure may occur in:

Solution:

Local shear failure occurs in case of loose sand and soft clays where large settlement may occur below the foundation before soil reaches to plastic state.

QUESTION: 128

Centre of buoyancy always

Solution:

Coincides with the centroid of the volume of displaced fluid

QUESTION: 129

In volume batching of concrete boxes of size:

Solution:

In volume batching of concrete boxes of size:  300 X 380 X 380 are used

QUESTION: 130

Zero hardness of water is achieved by:

Solution:

Ion exchange process is used for zero hardness water.
A variety of dissolved solids can be removed by ion exchange. For hardness removal by zeolite (a naturally occurring sodium alumino-silicate material sometime called green sand) and synthetic resins are used.

QUESTION: 131

Select the related word from the given alternatives.
Cactus : Thorns : : Sheep :

Solution:

Thorns are derived from leaves of cactus. Similarly, Wool is derived from hair of Sheep.

QUESTION: 132

Directions: A pair of number is given. Select the pair which shows the similar relationship that is shown by the given pair. 1984 : 4891

Solution:

The pattern is as follows,
1984 is the reverse of 4891
Similarly, 2874 is the reverse of 4782.
Hence the required pair is 2874 : 4782.

QUESTION: 133

Snowcrete is one of the patent forms of-

Solution: Snow creates a white Portland cement, suitable for architectural purposes.
QUESTION: 134

If void ratio is 0.65 and specific gravity is 2.65 then the critical hydraulic gradient is

Solution:

ic = (G + 1) ÷ (1 + e)
= ic = (2.65 - 1) ÷ (1 + 0.65) = 1

QUESTION: 135

Cohensionless soil is

Solution:

Cohesionless soils are defined as any free-running type of soil, such as sand or gravel, whose strength depends on friction between particles (measured by the friction angle, Ø).

QUESTION: 136

Poise is the unit of-

Solution:

1 Poise =

QUESTION: 137

When the curvature of earth is taken into account, the surveying is called as

Solution:

Plane surveying: Mean surface of earth is considered as plane.
Geodetic surveying: Curvature of the earth is taken into account.

QUESTION: 138

A circular shaft can transmit a torque of 5kNm. If the torque is reduced to 4kNm, then the maximum value of bending moment that can be applied to the shaft is-

Solution:

here M=O, here

QUESTION: 139

If vs is the settling velocity and Vo is the overflow velocity, then a particle will settle in a vertical settling tank when

Solution:

If vs ≥ vo, then there is 100% removal of particles and if vs < vo then there is 0% removal.

QUESTION: 140

For a cantilever beam, the span to depth ratio for span upto 10 m is,

Solution:

As per IS 456 clause 23.2.1, the span to depth ratio for cantilever beam for span upto 10 m is 7.

QUESTION: 141

Plywood is made from-

Solution: Veneers are placed at an angle of each other and are subjected to hydraulic pressure and heat to produce Plywood.
QUESTION: 142

Bitumen is generally obtained from;

Solution: Destructive distillation
QUESTION: 143

Find out the set among the four sets which is like the given set.
Given set is (63, 54, 45)

Solution:

In the given set the difference between the consecutive terms is 9 i.e.
Based on same pattern out of given options:
A) (36, 45, 32) ⇒ 36 – 45 = -9 & 45 – 32 = 13
B) (29, 20, 11) ⇒ 29 – 20 = 9 & 20 – 11 = 9
C) (30, 21, 11) ⇒ 30 – 21 = 9 & 21 – 11 = 10
D) (28, 17, 8) ⇒ 28 – 17 = 11 & 17 – 8 = 9
Thus only (29, 20, 11) follows the same pattern as similar to given set.

QUESTION: 144

Pick up the correct statement from the following.

Solution:

The concrete gains strength due to the hydration of cement.
The concrete does not set at freezing point.
Excessive rates of heating and cooling should be avoided to prevent damaging volume changes. Temperatures in the enclosure surrounding the concrete should not be increased or decreased more than 22°C to 33°C (40°F to 60°F) per hour depending on the size and shape of the concrete element. For example, there is reduced drying shrinkage and creep as compared to concrete cured at 23°C (73°F) for 28 days.
One-day strength increases with increasing curing temperature, but 28-day strength decreases with
increasing curing temperature.

QUESTION: 145

A plate load test is used to determine

Solution:

A plate load test is used to determine are bearing capacity of foundations and settlement of foundations.

QUESTION: 146

In ordinary Portland cement, the first one to react with water is :

Solution: It is responsible for the initial set, high heat of hydration, and a greater tendency to volume change
QUESTION: 147

Gypsum is added to cement

Solution:

Gypsum acts as a retarder. It counteracts the fast rate of hydration (for which C3A is primarily responsible) to prevent flash set.

QUESTION: 148

Chemically, marble is known as

Solution: Marble is a Calcareous rock composed of recrystallized carbonate minerals, most commonly calcite or dolomite.
QUESTION: 149

The slenderness limit for simply supported or continuous beam to ensure lateral stability is:

Solution:

As per IS 456:2000, clause 23.3, A simply supported or continuous beam shall be so proportioned that the clear distance between the lateral restraints does not exceed 60b or 250b2/d whichever is less, where d is the effective depth of the beam and b is the breadth of the compression face midway between the lateral restraints.

QUESTION: 150

The coefficient of passive earth pressure for cohesionless granular soil is represented by

Solution:

QUESTION: 151

The loss of pressure head for the laminar flow through pipes varies-

Solution:
QUESTION: 152

The minimum diameter of an opening of a manhole should be ;

Solution:
QUESTION: 153

When one is overhead expenditure of the following items

Solution:

Overhead expenses are all costs on the income statement except for direct labour, direct materials, and directexpenses. Overhead expenses include accounting fees, advertising, insurance, interest, legal fees, labor burden, rent, repairs, supplies, taxes, telephone bills, travel expenditures, and utilities.

QUESTION: 154

Calculate the number of sleepers required for 1 km railway track, it sleeper density is (n+4) for broad gauge and the length of one rail for a broad gauge is 13 m.

Solution:

Sleeper density = n+4
and
sleeper density = 13+4=17
Thus, for 1000 m no of sleeper will be
= (17×1000)/13
= 1307.69=1308

QUESTION: 155

Using straight line method, annual depreciation D is equal to

Solution:

Using straight line method, annual depreciation D is equal to 

QUESTION: 156

Average flow parallel to the plane of stratification is governed by:

Solution:

Average permeability parallel to the plane of stratification depends mainly on the permeability of the most permeable layer and its value is close to the permeability of that layer.

QUESTION: 157

Directions: In question below, select the related word from the given alternatives
Joy : Delight : : Gloomy : ?

Solution:

Delight is a synonym of Joy. Similarly, Dull is a synonym of Gloomy.

QUESTION: 158

Von-Karmon momentum integral equation is:

Solution:

(c) In 2D incompressible and steady flow, pressure gradient in direction of flow is zero:

QUESTION: 159

A rain hyetograph is:

Solution:

A rain hyetograph is curve showing intensity of rainfall with time and curve showing mean depth with area is depth area duration.

QUESTION: 160

If lines of action of forces in a system of forces meet at a point, then these forces are called as :

Solution: Forces whose line of action meets at one point are said to be concurrent. Coplanar forces lie in the same plane, whereas non-coplanar forces have to be related to three-dimensional space and require two items of directional data together with the magnitude. Two coplanar nonparallel forces will always be concurrent.
QUESTION: 161

The number of strain readings (using strain gauges) needed on a plane surface to determine the principal strains and their directions are ___________.

Solution:

Maximum and minimum normal strain possible for a specific point on a structural element. Shear strain is 0 at the orientation where principal strain occurs. 3 strain gauges needed on a plane surface to determine the principal strains and their directions.

QUESTION: 162

Modules of rigidity is the ratio of:

Solution:

Modulus of rigidity is the ratio of shear stress to shear strain

QUESTION: 163

Bulking of sand is :

Solution: The volume increase of fine aggregate due to moisture content is known as bulking. Fine sand bulks more than coarse sand—extremely fine sand, particularly the manufactured fine aggregate bulks, as much as about 40%.
QUESTION: 164

For a granular soil, with increasing void ratio, the critical hydraulic gradient;

Solution:

By the formula of critical hydraulic gradient,

QUESTION: 165

The type of mortar which is used for the construction works carried out in water-logged area is _____.

Solution:

Water logged area means where the irrigation of water is high. For construction in this area we use the cement mortar.
Cement mortar use to hold building materials such as brick or stone together. In this water to cement ratio is higher.

QUESTION: 166

The SI unit of kinematic viscosity is-

Solution:

The SI unit of kinematic viscosity is square meters per second (m2/s).
Kinematic viscosity is a measure of a fluid's internal resistance to flow under gravitational forces. It is determined by measuring the time in seconds required for a fixed volume of fluid to flow a known distance by gravity through a capillary within a calibrated viscometer at a closely controlled temperature.
Hence, the correct option is (A).

QUESTION: 167

A beam simply supported at both the ends, of length 'l' carries two equal unlike couples 'M' at two ends. If the flexural rigidity EI is constant, then the central deflection of the beam is given by-

Solution:

Both moments are equal; therefore, the maximum deflection will be at centre, deflection at centre

QUESTION: 168

What should be multiplied with permissible bearing stress to find out the strength of rivet in bearing?

Solution:

Area for bearing stress is calculated as A = d × t ; where 'd' is hole diameter of the rivet and 't' is the thickness of the plate where connection is being made.

QUESTION: 169

What will be the cant deficiency (cm), if maximum safe speed on a 5 Degree curve of a broad gauge track is 110 km/h and average speed of train is 85 km/h?

Solution:

given, dergee = 5
max. safe speed (Vmax) = 110km/hr
average speed(Vavg) = 85km/hr
For brouad gauge,
G= 1750 mm

= 486-284=192=19
But, max cant deficiency allowed (as per old IS code) is 10 cm.

QUESTION: 170

The flow profile of a fluid depends upon

Solution:

Reynold number is the factor by which type of flow is decided, i.e. laminar or turbulent.

QUESTION: 171

The rapid hardening Portland cement is obtained by ______.

Solution:

Rapid Hardening Portland Cement (RHPC) is a special purpose cement used in concrete to achieve a higher rate of early strength development, compared to using Normal Cement. The improved early performance of RHPC is achieved principally through increased product fineness.

QUESTION: 172

Which of the following factors influence the durability of concrete?

Solution:

Durability of concrete depends on:
Cement content, Compaction, Curing, Cover, Permeability

QUESTION: 173

A sample of saturated clay has a porosity of 0.562. The void ratio of the clay is;

Solution:

QUESTION: 174

The bending moment (M) is constant over a length segment (I) of a beam. The shearing force will also be constant over this length and is given by-

Solution:

QUESTION: 175

The life of teakwood doors and windows is usually taken to be ______.

Solution:

teak wood doors & windows has great properties to withstand extreme climatic conditions & it is free from knots & shakes. It’s durability is high usually taken as 40 years.

QUESTION: 176

A doubly reinforced beam is considered less economical than a singly reinforced beam because

Solution:

For doubly reinforced section, tension reinforcement is designed for stress of 0.87fy but for compression reinforcement a lower stress must be used. The reason being that steel may buckle between shear stirrups under compressive stresses. And hence doubly reinforced beam is considered less economical because compressive steel is under stressed.

QUESTION: 177

Intersection method in plane table surveying is most suitable for:

Solution:

In intersection method of plane table surveying, the objects or points to be located are obtain at the point of intersection of radial lines drawn from two different stations. The intersection method is suitable when distances of objects are large or cannot be measured properly. Thus, this method is preferred in small scale survey and for mountainous regions.

QUESTION: 178

The grouping of piles will not reduce the load-carrying capacity in case of-

Solution: Settlement of pile group increase, but the load-carrying capacity of piles remains equal to the sum of individual piles load carrying capacity or the load-carrying capacity of pile group in group action, whichever is less.
QUESTION: 179

Disinfection of drinking water is done to remove-

Solution: Disinfection removes bacteria
QUESTION: 180

The strength based the classification of a brick is made on the basis of following

Solution:

IS : 3101 — Aluminium collapsible tubes.
IS : 3102 — Classification of burnt clay brick.
IS : 3495 — Method of test of burnt clay brick.
IS : 3496 — Specification for dobby lags and pegs.

QUESTION: 181

A cantilever of span 'l' has a load P acting at the free end. The bending moment at the free end will be-

Solution:

QUESTION: 182

The best method of interpolation of contours is by-

Solution: The best method of interpolation of contours is by computation.

Contour interpolation is an operation that first rasterizes contour lines of a segment map with a value domain and then calculates values for pixels that are not covered by segments by means of linear interpolation. Furthermore, on the command line, this operation can also use an input raster map.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 183

Dimensions of weight density (or specific weight) in terms of fundamental dimensions (M,L,T,) is given by

Solution:

Weight density is given by weight/volume = mg/V
dimensions of m = M
dimensions of g = LT-2
dimensions of V = L3
Hence dimensions of specific weight are ML-2T-2

QUESTION: 184

The dimension for angular velocity is

Solution:

QUESTION: 185

Quartzite and marble are by nature

Solution:

Marble and quartzite are both natural metamorphic rocks. However, they were metamorphosed from different sedimentary rocks. Marble was metamorphosed from limestone that was formed in the ocean environment while quartzite came from sandstone formed in the land river environment.

QUESTION: 186

Length of lap for reinforcement bar in compression shall not be less than

Solution:

The lap length is equal to the development length calculated in compression but not less than 24d.

QUESTION: 187

The distribution system in water supplies is designed on the basis of:

Solution:

The distribution system in water supply is designed for the maximum of (i) peak hourly demand and (ii) Coincidental draft, which is the summation of fire demand and peak daily demand.

QUESTION: 188

Good quality sand is never obtained from-

Solution: It contains salt content
QUESTION: 189

The quantity of wood for the shutters of doors and windows is calculated in-

Solution:

The quantity of wood for the shutters of doors and windows is related to the amount of material (wood) required for doors and shutters. Amount of material is simply related to volume which is calculated in m3.
So, the quantity of wood for the shutters of doors and windows is measured in m3.
Hence, the correct option is (A).

QUESTION: 190

A footing is resting on fully saturated clayey strata. For checking the initial stability, shear parameters are used from-

Solution: Pore pressure is not released, So an unconsolidated undrained test is used to determine footing stability.
QUESTION: 191

Gauge pressure at a point is equal to ;

Solution: Gauge pressure= Absolute Pressure- Atmospheric Pressure
QUESTION: 192

In an open channel flow, the maximum velocity occurs:

Solution:

Maximum velocity in a channel section often occurs below the free surface. It is achieved by velocity distribution equation derived by applying the probability and entropy concepts.

QUESTION: 193

The most suitable solid waste disposal method for rural areas is

Solution:

Composting is nature’s process of recycling decomposed organic materials into a rich soil known as compost. Anything that was once living will decompose. Finished compost looks like soil - dark brown, crumbly and smells like a forest floor.

QUESTION: 194

The construction of optical squares is based on the principle of optical-

Solution: Two different points are observed. If the two pints align with each other

through 'optical square' then the angle between the two points 900.

QUESTION: 195

Irrigation efficiency of an irrigation system is the ratio of

Solution:

It is defined as the ratio between the amount of water utilized (i.e., used to meet the consumptive use requirement of crop plus that necessary to maintain a favorable salt balance in the crop root zone) to the total volume of water diverted, stored or pumped for irrigation.

QUESTION: 196

In open channel flows, the characteristic length commonly used in defining the Reynolds number is the