Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 6


200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering | Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 6


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Attempt Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 6 | 200 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for SSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering for SSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Green: Peace::? :?

Solution: Green is a symbol of Peace. Similarly, Blue is a symbol of Trust.

Thus the related word pair is Blue: Trust.

QUESTION: 2

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Welder: Goggles:: Doctor:?

Solution: As Welders use Goggles for protection, similarly, Doctors use surgical Gloves for protection.

Thus the Doctor is related to Gloves.

QUESTION: 3

In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Alive: Dead::? :?

Solution: As Alive and Dead are opposite to each other, similarly, Angel and Devil are opposite to each other.

Thus the related word pair is Angel: Devil.

QUESTION: 4

In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.

NDP: WMY::? :?

Solution:

As

Similarly,

Hence the related letter pair is RFJ: AOS.

QUESTION: 5

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

GOLD: KKPZ:: SALE:?

Solution: As,

Similarly,

Thus SALE is related to WWPA.

QUESTION: 6

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

COST : HSXX :: SEAL : ?

Solution:

As

Similarly,

Thus SEAL is related to XIFP.

QUESTION: 7

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

47: 121:: 52:?

Solution: (47) : (47 + 74) :: (52) : (52 + 25)

⇒ 47 : 121 :: 52 : 77

Hence, 77 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 8

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

5: 32:: 8:?

Solution: (5) : (52 + 7) :: (8) : (82 + 7)

⇒ 5 : 32 :: 8 : 71

Hence, 71 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 9

In the following question, select the related number pair from the given alternatives.

36: 54::? :?

Solution: (36) : (36 + 36/2)

→ (36) : (36 + 18)

→ (36) : (54)

Similarly,

(48) : (48 + 48/2)

→ (48) : (48 + 24)

→ (48) : (72)

Hence, the correct answer is 48 : 72.

QUESTION: 10

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution: Chikungunya, Malaria, and Dengue are the names of human diseases that spread through mosquitoes. Goitre is caused due to lack of dietary iodine.

Hence, the correct answer is Goitre.

QUESTION: 11

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution: Hindi, Telugu, and Oriya are the names of different languages, while Australia is the name of a country.

Hence, the correct answer is Australia.

QUESTION: 12

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution: Bracelets, Necklace, and Earrings are all ornaments, whereas Sandals are footwear.

Hence Sandals is the odd word.

QUESTION: 13

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Solution:

1) C + 9 = L; L + 8 = T; T + 9 = C

2) E + 8 = M; M + 9 = V; V + 8 = D

3) G + 9 = P; P + 8 = X; X + 9 = G

4) I + 9 = R; R + 8 = Z; Z + 9 = I

Hence “EMVD” are the odd letters from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 14

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Solution:

1) C + 5 = H; H + 4 = L; L + 3 = O; O + 2 = Q

2) H + 5 = M; M + 4 = Q; Q + 3 = T; T + 2 = V

3) M + 5 = R; R + 4 = V; V + 3 = Y; Y + 3 = B

4) A + 5 = F; F + 4 = J; J + 3 = M; M + 2 = O

Hence “MRVYB” is the odd letters from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 15

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Solution:

1) J + 7 = Q; Q + 4 = U

2) F + 7 = M; M + 5 = R

3) L + 7 = S; S + 4 = W

4) G + 7 = N; N + 4 = R

Hence “FMR” is the odd letter from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 16

In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

All the numbers here are prime numbers,

1) 13 – 19 ⇒ only one prime number 17 is present in between.

2) 29 – 37 ⇒ only one prime number 31 is present in between.

3) 83 – 97 ⇒ only one prime number 89 is present in between.

4) 67 – 79 ⇒ two prime numbers 71 and 73 are present in between.

Hence “67 – 79” is the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 17

In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

1) 162 + 16 ⇒ 256 + 16 = 272

2) 172 + 17 ⇒ 289 + 17 = 306

3) 182 + 18 ⇒ 324 + 18 = 342

4) 192 + 19 ⇒ 361 + 19 = 380

Hence “17 – 308” is the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 18

In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: The logic followed here is as follows,

41 × 6 = 246,

54 × 6 = 324,

62 × 6 = 372,

29 × 6 = 174

Hence, “62 – 374” is the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 19

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1) Deserts

2) Defaced

3) Defence

4) Desktop

5) Despair

Solution: According to dictionary order, words will be arranged as follows

2) Defaced

3) Defence

1) Deserts

4) Desktop

5) Despair

Hence, 23145 is the correct sequence.

QUESTION: 20

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1) Leaning

2) Licence

3) Latency

4) Leakage

5) Lactose

Solution: According to dictionary order, words will be arranged as follows

5) Lactose

3) Latency

4) Leakage

1) Leaning

2) Licence

Hence, 53412 is the correct sequence.

QUESTION: 21

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1) Biosphere

2) Badminton

3) Broadband

4) Backtrack

5) Brochure

Solution: According to dictionary order, words will be arranged as follows,

4) Backtrack

2) Badminton

1) Biosphere

3) Broadband

5) Brochure

Hence, 42135 is the correct sequence.

QUESTION: 22

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

LK, HE, DY, ?, VM

Solution: The pattern followed here is,

L – 4 = H; H – 4 = D; D – 4 = Z; Z – 4 = V

K – 6 = E; E – 6 = Y; Y – 6 = S; S – 6 = M

Hence, ZS is the missing term.

QUESTION: 23

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

DGJ, LOR, TWZ, ?, JMP

Solution: The pattern followed here is,

D + 8 = L; L + 8 = T; T + 8 = B; B + 8 = J

G + 8 = O; O + 8 = W; W + 8 = E; E + 8 = M

J + 8 = R; R + 8 = Z; Z + 8 = H; H + 8 = P

Hence BEH is the missing term.

QUESTION: 24

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

MYPB, OCRF, QGTJ, SKVN, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,

M + 2 = O; O + 2 = Q; Q + 2 = S; S + 2 = U

Y + 4 = C; C + 4 = G; G + 4 = K; K + 4 = O

P + 2 = R; R + 2 = T; T + 2 = V; V + 2 = X

B + 4 = F; F + 4 = J; J + 4 = N; N + 4 = R

Thus UOXR is the missing term.

QUESTION: 25

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

41, 42, 50, 77, 141, ?

Solution:

1) 41 + 13 ⇒ 41 + 1 = 42

2) 42 + 23 ⇒ 42 + 8 = 50

3) 50 + 33 ⇒ 50 + 27 = 77

4) 77 + 43 ⇒ 77 + 64 = 141

5) 141 + 53 ⇒ 141 + 125 = 266

Hence, the missing number is 266.

QUESTION: 26

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

53, 74, 127, 201, 328, ?

Solution: The pattern followed here is,

⇒ 53 + 74 = 127

⇒ 74 + 127 = 201

⇒ 127 + 201 = 328

⇒ 201 + 328 = 529

Thus the next number in the series is 529.

QUESTION: 27

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

68, 34, 51, 127.5, 446.25, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,

⇒ 68 × 0.5 = 34

⇒ 34 × 1.5 = 51

⇒ 51 × 2.5 = 127.5

⇒ 127.5 × 3.5 = 446.25

⇒ 446.25 × 4.5 = 2008.125

Thus the next number in the series is 2008.125.

QUESTION: 28

Five people L, M, N, O, and P, are standing in a queue. N is standing between L and P. L is just behind M, and M is second in the queue. Who is fourth in the queue?

Solution: N is standing between L and P ⇒ LNP or PNL

L is just behind M ⇒ MLNP (PNLM not possible)

M is the second in queue ⇒ OMLNP (as the only O is left)

Thus fourth in the queue is N.

QUESTION: 29

H said to W that you are the son-in-law of my husband's sister's mother's husband. How is W's son related to H's husband?

Solution:

Hence W's son is a nephew of H's husband.

QUESTION: 30

From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given the word.

BENEVOLENCE

Solution:

1) Eleven - BENEVOLENCE (Can be formed)

2) Clone - BENEVOLENCE (Can be formed)

3) Novel - BENEVOLENCE (Can be formed)

4) Needle - BENEVOLENCE (Cannot be formed as “d” is missing)

Hence, the word Needle cannot be formed.

QUESTION: 31

If THERMAL is coded as VJGTOCN, then how will DIP be coded as?

Solution:

T + 2 = V

H + 2 = J

E + 2 = G

R + 2 = T

M + 2 = O

A + 2 = C

L + 2 = N

Similarly,

D + 2 = F

I + 2 = K

P + 2 = R

Thus DIP is coded as FKR.

QUESTION: 32

In a certain code language, 3254 means 'All the latest News,’ 853610 means 'Economy News are all about Mumbai', and 9367 means 'All people of Mumbai.’ Find the code for 'News.’

Solution:

Thus code for 'News' is 5.

QUESTION: 33

In a certain code language, '+' represents '-', '-' represents '×', '×' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '+'. Find out the answer to the following question.

180 ÷ 4 – 125 × 25 + 10 = ?

Solution: Given equation ⇒ 180 ÷ 4 – 125 × 25 + 10

After Interchange,

⇒ 180 + 4 × 125 ÷ 25 – 10

⇒ 180 + 4 × 5 – 10

⇒ 190

Hence, the correct alternative is 190.

QUESTION: 34

If 34 # 22 = 6, 20 # 6 = 7 and 15 # 3 = 6, then find the value of 17 # 7 = ?

Solution:

(34 – 22) ÷ 2 = 6

(20 – 6) ÷ 2 = 7

(15 – 3) ÷ 2 = 6

Similarly,

(17 – 7) ÷ 2 = 5

Hence, the the value of 17 # 7 is 5.

QUESTION: 35

If P * Q means P is the sister of Q, P # Q means P is the brother of Q, and If P $ Q means P is the father of Q, then what does Y $ X # Z * W mean?

Solution:

Y $ X # Z * W ⇒ Y is the father of X, X is the brother of Z, Z is the sister of W.

From the given information

⇒ X, Z, and W are siblings, and Z is a girl and X is a boy

Hence, X is the brother of W.

QUESTION: 36

Select the missing number from the given responses.

Solution: Third column = addition of digits of column 1st and 2nd.

1 + 6 + 4 = 11

4 + 4 + 5 = 13

Similarly,

2 + 3 + 9 = 14

Hence, the missing number is 14.

QUESTION: 37

Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

ABCABCABCABCD, ABCABCABCADBC, ABCABCABDCABC, ABCABCDABCABC, ABCADBCABCABC, _________.

Solution: According to the sequence, D is shifting two positions ahead of its previous position at every step.

Thus next term would be ABDCABCABCABC.

QUESTION: 38

A cyclist cycles 3.5 km West, then turns North and cycles 2.5 km North, then turns to his right and cycles 3.5 km, then turns North and cycles 4.5 km. Where is he now with respect to his starting position?

Solution: The diagram below shows the path followed by the cyclist,

Clearly, we can see that the endpoint is 7 km towards the north direction from his starting point.

QUESTION: 39

A woman leaves her hut and walks 3 km East, then she turns South and walks 2 km, then she turns West and walks 1.5 km, then she turns North and walks 3 km, then she turns to her left and walks 1.5 km to reach the market. Where is this market with respect to her hut?

Solution: The diagram below shows the route taken by the woman,

Clearly, we can see that the market is 3 - 2 = 1 km in the North direction from her hut.

QUESTION: 40

Direction: In the question below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Rose are Red.

All Red are Apple.

All Apple are Fruit.

All Fruit are Tree.

Conclusions:

I. Some Rose are trees.

II. Some Apple are Rose.

III. All Fruits are Red.

IV. All Trees can be Apple.

Solution: The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,

I. Some Rose are Tree → True (all Rose are tree)

II. Some Apple are Rose → True (It is definite truth)

III. All Fruits are Red → False (it is not de, finite truth, but there is a possibility)

IV. All Tree can be Apple → True (There is a possibility)

Hence, the conclusion I, II and IV are true, and III is false.

QUESTION: 41

In the question below are given four statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Women are Man.

Some Women are March.

All March are April.

No March is Sunday.

Conclusions:

I. Some Women are April.

II. Some March are Man.

Solution: The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusions:

I. Some Woman are April → It’s sure, hence true.

II. Some March are Man → It’s sure, hence true.

Hence, both conclusions are true.

QUESTION: 42

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Solution: If we consider face with “ ” as centre and fold its surrounding faces inside, we find that face with “ ” and “ ” are opposite to each other, face with “ ” and “ ” are opposite to each other and face with “ ” and “ ” are opposite to each other.

Here, the cube in option 1 of the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded; cube in the question because faces with “ ” and “ ” are opposite to each other, which is shown adjacent in option 1.

Hence, Option 1 is the correct alternative

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?

Solution:

Hence, when we combine the figure pattern available in option 1) will result in a question figure.

QUESTION: 44

In the following figure, the rectangle represents Electricians; the circle represents Cartoonists, the triangle represents Riders, and the square represents Indians. Which set of letters represents Indians who are either Cartoonists or Riders?

Solution: Here, the rectangle represents Electricians, the circle represents Cartoonists, triangle represents Riders, and the square represents Indians.

Clearly, Indians who are either Cartoonists or Riders are represented by either the intersection of square and triangle or square and circle, i.e., DF.

Hence, DF is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 45

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Pen, Stationery, Cap

Solution:

All pens are stationery, and the cap has no relation with pen and stationery.

Hence, the answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 46

Complete Figure X from the given alternatives 1, 2, 3, 4.

Solution:

Note: option 1 and 4 are not the same as there is a difference in the direction of the arrows.

Thus image 4 completes the given pattern.

QUESTION: 47

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden.

Solution:

We can clearly see the pattern incorporated in the below figure; hence it is the answer.

QUESTION: 48

A piece of paper is folded and punched, as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figure, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Solution: When we open the paper step by step, we get the following figure.

QUESTION: 49

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Solution:

The above diagram showed a mirror image of the question figure.

Hence, the image present in option 3) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 50

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4, and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column; for example, ‘A’ can be represented by 34, 12, etc., and ‘X’ can be represented by 89, 97, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘WHEY.’

Solution:

1) 56, 69, 42, 78 → Z, T, E, U

2) 99, 24, 01, 67 → U, E, B, V

3) 65, 14, 42, 96 → W, H, E, Y

4) 55, 89, 04, 23 → Y, X, L, L

Hence, ‘WHEY’ is represented by ’65, 14, 42, 96’.

QUESTION: 51

The reorganisation of states on the linguistic basis was done in?

Solution: States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major reform of the boundaries of India's states and territories, organising them along linguistic lines.
QUESTION: 52

Which one of the following states is known as “Garden of Spices”?

Solution: Kerala is called the "Garden of Spices.” It is often called as the 'spice garden of India' because of the variety of spices it delivers to the nation. Located between the Lakshadweep Sea and the Western Ghats, Kerala is considered India’s peaceful and cleanest state.
QUESTION: 53

Who among the following was the prime minister of England when India was given independence?

Solution: Clement Richard Attlee, 1st Earl Attlee, KG, OM, CH, PC, FRS (3 January 1883 – 8 October 1967) was a British statesman of the Labour Party who served as Prime Minister of the United Kingdom from 1945 to 1951 and Leader of the Labour Party from 1935 to 1955.
QUESTION: 54

Who among the following was responsible for founding the Anglo-Muhammadan oriental college?

Solution: The Anglo–Indian statesman Sir Syed Ahmad Khan founded the predecessor of Aligarh Muslim University, the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, in 1875, having already established two schools.
QUESTION: 55

Element that is not found in the blood is?

Solution: Chromium is a component that isn't found in the blood.

Chromium is a chemical element with the symbol Cr and atomic number 24. It is the first element in group 6. Chromium is the fourth transition metal found on the periodic table and has an electron configuration of [Ar] 3d5 4s1..... and maintenance of normal blood glucose concentration, but rejected claims for maintenance.

QUESTION: 56

The lens of the eye is behind the?

Solution: The lens is composed of transparent, flexible tissue and is located directly behind the iris and the pupil. It is the second part of your eye, after the cornea, that helps to focus light and images on your retina.
QUESTION: 57

Which is named as the largest river island by Guinness World records?

Solution: Majuli is named the world's largest river island. GUWAHATI: Majuli Island on the Brahmaputra in Assam was declared the largest river island in the world, toppling Marajo in Brazil, by Guinness World Records on Thursday. The river island covers an area of around 880 sq km.
QUESTION: 58

Demand curve is indeterminate under?

Solution: Indeterminate Demand Curve: Implies that the demand curve is unknown under oligopoly due to different behavior patterns of organizations. Under oligopoly, every organization keeps an eye on the actions of rivals and makes strategies accordingly.
QUESTION: 59

The Rath Temples at Mahabalipuram were built by?

Solution: Pancha Rathas, also referred to as Pandava Rathas, are the most excellent architectural edifices of the nine monolithic temples of Mahabalipuram. They were built during the reign of Narasimhavarman I of the Pallava dynasty. The temples are carved in the shape of chariots.
QUESTION: 60

El Nino covers which of the following oceans?

Solution: El Niño is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. El Niño also impacts trade winds and the atmosphere. El Niño is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
QUESTION: 61

Which of these is also known as “Kitchen house of cell”?

Solution: Chloroplast is a plastid containing green pigment called chlorophyll. This pigment helps the cells to prepare their own food by the process of photosynthesis. So that’s why Chloroplast is the cell organelle which is known as the Kitchen of the cell.
QUESTION: 62

World “No Tobacco Day” was observed globally as:

Solution: World No Tobacco Day is celebrated around the world every year on May 31. The World Health Organization Member States created World No Tobacco Day in 1987 to draw global attention to the tobacco epidemic and the preventable death and disease it causes. In 1987, the World Health Assembly passed Resolution WHA40.
QUESTION: 63

(Volt × Second/Coulomb) is the unit of:

Solution: The unit of current is the ampere (A) and means one coulomb per second. The unit of potential difference is the volt (V) and means one joule per coulomb. The unit of resistance is the ohm (Ω) and is equal to the voltage over current.
QUESTION: 64

Aggregate monetary resources are:

Solution: Broad money (M3) includes currency, deposits with an agreed maturity of up to two years, deposits redeemable at notice of up to three months and repurchase agreements, money market fund shares/units, and debt securities up to two years. M3 is measured as a seasonally adjusted index based on 2015 = 100.
QUESTION: 65

Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar Reservoir is situated in:

Solution: The reservoir of Rihand Dam is called Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar and is India's largest artificial lake. Rihand Dam is a concrete gravity dam located at Pipri in Sonbhadra District in Uttar Pradesh, India. Its reservoir area is on the border of Uttar Pradesh.
QUESTION: 66

Who is the author of the book “Romancing with life”?

Solution: Dev Anand has produced an unputdownable book chock-full of bittersweet reminiscences, written in a pacy, effervescent style that carries the reader through sixty of Bollywood's most interesting years. With rare pictures from his personal archive, "Romancing with Life" is the quintessential Dev Anand.
QUESTION: 67

Which state in India has the largest coastline?

Solution:
  • Gujarat has the longest mainland coastline in India.

  • The total length of India's coastline is 7516.6 kilometers.

  • The Arabian Sea gives the state of Gujarat its extensive coastline.

  • Andhra Pradesh has the second-longest mainland coastline with a total length of 974 kilometers.

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following does not belong to the physical environment?

Solution: Hemisphere is not part of the physical environment.

Hemisphere is half of the earth, usually divided into northern and southern halves by the equator or into western and eastern halves by an imaginary line passing through the poles.

While all the others, i.e., lithosphere, atmosphere, and hydrosphere, are a part of the physical environment.

So the correct answer is the Hemisphere as it is not part of the physical environment.

QUESTION: 69

Which memory is both static & non-volatile?

Solution: ROM(Read Only Memory) is the type of memory that is both static and non-volatile. They are used in computers and electronic devices.
QUESTION: 70

How many times did Babur invade India before 1526 A.D.?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5


Solution: 5 times Babur invaded India before 1526.

hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 71

The hard enamel layer of teeth is:

Solution: Enamel is the hardest substance in the human body and contains the highest percentage of minerals, 96%, with water and organic material composing the rest. The primary mineral is hydroxyapatite, which is crystalline calcium phosphate.
QUESTION: 72

Where is Brabourne stadium located?

Solution: Stadium House, Block No 3, 1st Floor, Veer Nariman Road, Churchgate, Mumbai, Maharashtra 400020
QUESTION: 73

Which one of the following regulates the working of share market in India?

Solution: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority established under the SEBI Act 1992 and is the principal regulator for Stock Exchanges in India. SEBI's primary functions include protecting investor interests, promoting and regulating the Indian securities markets.
QUESTION: 74

Which village has been named as India’s first digital village?

Solution: Akodara village in the Sabarkantha district of Gujarat recently has earned the title of becoming the 1st digital village in India. The village, which sustains a total population of 1191 people, uses various cashless systems for payments of goods and services.
QUESTION: 75

Excretory organ of cockroach is?

Solution: Malpighian tubules are slender tubes normally found in the posterior regions of arthropod alimentary canals. Each tubule consists of a single layer of cells closed off at the distal end, with the proximal end joining the alimentary canal at the junction between the midgut and hindgut.
QUESTION: 76

The number of players in a futsal team is:

Solution: Futsal is played between two teams of five players each, one of whom is the goalkeeper. Unlimited substitutions are permitted.

Futsal is played between two teams of five players each, one of whom is the goalkeeper. Unlimited substitutions are permitted. Unlike some other forms of indoor football, the game is played on a hard-court surface delimited by lines; walls or boards are not used. Futsal is also played with a smaller, harder, low-bounce ball. The surface, ball, and rules together favor ball control and passing in small spaces. The game's "emphasis is on improvisation, creativity, and technique."

QUESTION: 77

Which was the instrument that was played by Bismillah khan?

Solution: Shehnai — a wind musical instrument — was largely reserved for weddings and other celebrations before Ustad Bismillah Khan elevated its status in Indian classical music and took it to a global audience.
QUESTION: 78

A two-day joint coastal security exercise, “Sagar Kavach,” is being carried out by a collaborative effort of which of the following states?

Solution: A two-day joint coastal security exercise, “Sagar Kavach,” was launched at Paradip Coast on 5 Nov 2020. The exercise is being carried out by a joint effort of the state of Odisha and West Bengal governments. More than 10 such departments, including the Indian Navy, the Indian Coast Guard, the Odisha Police, have joined the joint exercise.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 79

TROPEX is a defence exercise between:

Solution: Theatre Level Readiness and Operational Exercise (TROPEX) is an inter-service military exercise involving the participation of the Indian Army, Air Force, Navy, and Coast Guard. The exercise generally commences at the beginning of each year and lasts a month.
QUESTION: 80

The foramen ovale in the foetal heart is located in the:

Solution: The foramen ovale is an aperture in the muscular tissue between the left atrium that allows blood to cross the atria and bypass pulmonary circulation during fetal development. The surrounding tissue is composed of smooth muscle derived from the septum primum and septum secundum
QUESTION: 81

Which one engulfs foreign materials?

Solution: A macrophage is a type of phagocyte, a cell responsible for detecting, engulfing, and destroying pathogens and apoptotic cells. Macrophages are produced through the differentiation of monocytes, which turn into macrophages when they leave the blood.
QUESTION: 82

The system in which the few governments is known as:

Solution: The next form of government is oligarchy. An oligarchy is a form of government in which all power resides with a few people or in a dominant class or group within the society. These groups of people may be distinguished by royalty, wealth, education, or military control.
QUESTION: 83

Which of the following states has declared a ban on the use of plastic in the state for the first time?

Solution: As the country prepares for the new rules, one Indian state is looking back on its decision to ban plastic bags 21 years ago. The state of Sikkim, in India's northeast, launched the ban in 1998.
QUESTION: 84

By which of the following act, the system of dyarchy was introduced at the centre?

Solution: The Government of India Act 1935 provided for dyarchy at the Centre. Under this act, the executive authority of the centre was vested in the Governor. It ended the system of dyarchy at the provincial level introduced by the Government of India Act 1919.
QUESTION: 85

Battery was invented by:

Solution: Alessandro Giuseppe Antonio Anastasio Volta was an Italian physicist, chemist, and pioneer of electricity and power who is credited as the inventor of the electric battery and the discoverer of methane
QUESTION: 86

Who has been elected as the new secretary-general of the U.N.O.?

Solution: Portugal's ex-Prime Minister, Antonio Guterres, has been officially appointed as the 9th UN secretary-general by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).

He (was born on 30 April 1949) is a Portuguese politician and diplomat serving as the ninth secretary-general of the United Nations. A member of the Portuguese Socialist Party, he served as prime minister of Portugal from 1995 to 2002.

QUESTION: 87

Light wave travels fastest in:

Solution: The fastest thing in the whole universe is the speed of light in a vacuum (like outer space!), clocking in at a great 2.99 x 108 m/s. Light travels in waves, and we call this traveling propagation. Propagation of waves has both a speed and a direction, called velocity.
QUESTION: 88

Which of the following is the CJI?

Solution: Sharad Arvind Bobde (born 24 April 1956) is an Indian judge serving as the 47th and current Chief Justice of India. He is a former Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court. He is also serving as the Chancellor of Maharashtra National Law University, Mumbai, and Maharashtra National Law University, Nagpur. He has a tenure of eight years in the Supreme Court of India and is due to retire on 23 April 2021.
QUESTION: 89

When was zero hour introduced in parliamentary affairs in India?

Solution: Zero Hour in Parliament starts at noon, during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. Zero Hour is the Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. However, it does not find mention in the rules of procedure. During zero hours, questions are asked about issues of public importance without prior permission. These questions are usually directed against individual ministers.
QUESTION: 90

Fuse wire is made up by:

Solution: A fuse is made of an alloy of tin (Sn) and lead (Pb) because it is important that the device acts (melts) without heating too much (so as not to produce fires or to heat nearby terminals or cables).
QUESTION: 91

WAN stand for:

Solution: A wide area network (WAN) is a telecommunications network or computer network that extends over a large geographical distance/place. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.
QUESTION: 92

When Rongali Bihu is celebrated:

Solution: Bohag Bihu or Rongali Bihu, also called Xaat Bihu, is a festival celebrated in the Indian state of Assam and other parts of northeastern India and marks the beginning of the Assamese New Year. It usually falls in the 2nd week of April, historically signifying the time of harvest. This year it fell on the 14th of April 2020. The holiday unites the different communities of Assam regardless of their backgrounds and promotes the celebration of diversity.
QUESTION: 93

Who is the Chief Minister of Uttarakhand?

Solution: Trivendra Singh Rawat (born 20 December 1960) is an Indian politician and is the eighth and current Chief Minister of Uttarakhand.

Rawat was a member of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh from 1979 to 2002 and held the post of organising secretary of the Uttarakhand region. Later, the Uttarakhand state, after the state's formation in 2000. He was elected from Doiwala in the State's first legislative assembly elections in 2002. He retained his seat in the 2007 elections and served as the State's Minister of Agriculture

As a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party, he served as Jharkhand's in-charge and Uttarakhand cadre's president. Winning from Doiwala again in 2017, he was named the Chief Minister after his party won the majority and formed the government.

QUESTION: 94

Who is the railway minister of India?

Solution: An important responsibility of the railway minister was to present in Parliament the Railway Budget, the Annual Financial Statement of Indian Railways. Piyush Goyal of the Bharatiya Janata Party is the current Minister of Railways, serving since 3 September 2017.
QUESTION: 95

Who is the winner of the Jnanpith Award 2019?

Solution: Bestselling author and leading contemporary English writer, Amitav Ghosh, was awarded the 54th Jnanpith Award to enrich Indian literature in English at a ceremony at the India Habitat Centre on Wednesday.
QUESTION: 96

Which of these metals are present in Vitamin B12?

Solution: B12 is also referred to as cobalamin because it contains a metal ion (cobalt). This makes it the largest and most complex vitamin of all. The vitamin can only be synthesized by bacteria and therefore is mainly present in animal products. Two forms of Vitamin B12 are used in the human body.
QUESTION: 97

Which of the following is the date of the “Surgical Strike”?

Solution: On 29 September 2016, border skirmishes between India and Pakistan began following reported "surgical strikes" by India against militant launch pads across the Line of Control in Pakistani-administered Azad Kashmir.
QUESTION: 98

Which of these metals is so soft that it can be cut with a knife?

Solution: Sodium metal is soft enough to be cut with a knife. The alkali metals are the elements in Group 1 (1A). They are lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, cesium, and francium. These elements are best marked by their reactivity.
QUESTION: 99

Who is the “Miss Universe-2017”?

Solution: Miss South Africa Demi-Leigh Nel-Peters is crowned Miss Universe 2017. Miss South Africa Demi-Leigh Nel-Peters has been crowned Miss Universe 2017. Nel-Peters was honored on-stage along with first runner-up Miss Colombia Laura González and second runner-up Miss Jamaica Davina Bennett Sunday night in Las Vegas.
QUESTION: 100

The title of “Gangai Kondan” was adopted by the following Chola King?

Solution:

Chola ruler Rajendra I assumed the title 'Gangaikonda Chola' (The Chola who took the Ganges) after defeating the Ganges, Chalukyas, Cheras, Palas, Pandyas, Kalinga, and other rulers. Besides, he established a new capital Gangaikonda Cholapuram, where he constructed a Shiva temple, resembling the Brihadeeswara Temple built by his father, Rajaraja Chola.

QUESTION: 101

A structure has two degrees of indeterminacy. The number of plastic hinges that would be formed at complete collapse is

Solution: Number of plastic hinges required for collapse = degree of static indeterminacy + 1 = 2 + 1 = 3.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 102

A linear arch has

Solution: The shape of a linear arch is similar to a funicular polygon or the shape of bending moment for the given load. So the linear arch will not be subjected to either B.M or S.F.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 103

Compaction generally increases the

Solution: Compaction means pressing the soil particles close to each other by mechanical methods. Air during compaction is expelled from the void space in the soil mass, and then the mass density is increased. It is also useful in reducing the compressibility and permeability of the soil.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 104

Standard penetration test is useful for determining the

Solution: The standard penetration test is the most commonly used in-situ test, especially for cohesionless soils which cannot be easily sampled. The test is useful for determining the relative density and the angle of shearing resistance of cohesionless soils. It can also be used to determine the unconfined compressive strength of cohesive soils.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 105

Chemical grouting is generally used for-

Solution: The method is suitable for medium and fine sands. However, the effect of chemical grouting is not permanent.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 106

Determine the coefficient of permeability of a confined aquifer 6m thick which gives a steady discharge of 20 liters/sec through a well of 0.5 m radius. The height of water in the well, which was 12 m above the base before pumping, dropped to 8 m. Take the radius of influence as 300 m.

Solution: discharge q = 20 liters/sec

radius of influence R = 300 m

thick b = 6m

radius r = 0.5 m

confined aquifer

k = 0.0345 m/sec

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 107

The coefficient of permeability of a soil-

Solution: An increase in temperature of the permanent increases the density marginally and decreases the viscosity significantly. So increase in temperature of the pore fluid increases the permeability of the soil.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 108

According to the central pollution control board(CPCB) recommended permissible noise levels, what is the noise level in decibels in an industrial area in the day time

Solution:

According to the central pollution control board

industrial area day - 75 night - 70

commercial area day - 65 night - 55

residential area day - 55 night - 45

silenced zone day - 50 night - 40

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 109

Thermal pollution can be controlled by

Solution: Water from condensers is stored in ponds where natural evaporation cools the water, which can be recirculated or discharged in the nearby water body.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 110

Oil in water affects fish by affecting

Solution: Fishes show mortality because the fish gills get laden with oil after the slimy mucus of gills is affected. Oil disrupts the insulating capacity of feathers.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 111

The spent water from bathrooms, kitchens, washbasins, sinks, etc. is known as

Solution: Sullage is the spent water from bathrooms, kitchens, washbasins, etc. This does not include foul discharge that is human or animal excreta as from urinals, hospitals, etc.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 112

Name the tests to find out the strength properties of a soil

Solution: Shear tests, bearing tests, and penetration tests are the tests used to evaluate the strength properties of soil.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 113

In general, pavement failures, increase in the magnitude of wheel loads, and number of load repetitions due to

Solution: when there is an increase in traffic volume, there is an increased magnitude of wheel loads and load repetitions.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 114

Estimate the theoretical capacity of a traffic lane with one-way traffic flow at a stream speed of 45 kmph. Assume the average space gap between vehicles to follow the relation Sg = 0.278 Vt where V is the speed in kmph, t is the average reaction time 0.8 sec. Assume the average length of vehicles =5.0 m.

Solution: speed V= 45 kmph

reaction time t = 0.8 sec

length of vehicles L = 5 m

space s = 0.278 Vt + L

= 0.278 x 45 x 0.8 + 5

= 10.008 + 5

= 15.008 m

theoretical capacity C = 1000V/S

= 2998.4

= 2998(say)

So theoretical capacity C = 2998 vehicles/hour/lane

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 115

The property of the stones to withstand the adverse action of weather is known as

Solution: The stone used in pavement construction should be durable and should resist disintegration due to the action of the weather. The aggregates are subjected to the physical and chemical activity of rain and groundwater and also the atmosphere. Hence the road stones used in the construction should be sound enough to withstand the weathering action.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 116

In plastic analysis, which of the following pair are/is correctly matched?

Solution: Solid circular rod has a shape factor of 1.7

The hollow circular rod has a shape factor of 1.27

Rectangle and square have a shape factor of 1.5

Hence the correct answer is option (c).

QUESTION: 117

If the discharge for different crops is 0.6 cumecs in the field and the capacity factor and time factors are 0.9 and 0.7, respectively, then what is the design discharge of the distributary at its head?

Solution: Design discharge = discharge/(capacity factor x time factor)

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 118

What is the moisture depth available for evapotranspiration in the root zone of 1.5 m depth soil if the dry weight of soil is 2 gm/cc, field capacity is 40%, and the permanent wilting point is 20%?

Solution: Moisture depth = S.d(FC x PWP)

= 2 x 1.5 (0.4-0.2)

= 3 x 0.2

= 0.6 m

= 600 mm

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 119

Given that the base period is 120 days and the duty of the canal is 1100 hectares per cumecs, the depth of water will be

Solution:

Δ = 0.942 m = 94.2 cm

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 120

The yield of a well depends upon

Solution: The yield of a well is the rate at which water percolates into the well under the safe maximum depression head or the critical depression head. It depends on the position of the water table, permeability, and porosity of the soil, rate of water withdrawal from the well, and amount of water storage in the well.
QUESTION: 121

Errors in tacheometric surveying

Solution: if the tacheometer is not in perfect adjustments, the errors will occur; the errors due to refraction occurs due to varying densities of different ait start a because of temperature changes.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 122

Linseed oil is used as a ________ in paints.

Solution: linseed oil is used as a vehicle in paint. This keeps all the other ingredients together as a homogeneous mix.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 123

Due to air pollution, plants are affected. Damage to leaf structure causes NECROSIS which means

Solution: Necrosis, death of a circumscribed area of plant or animal tissue as a result of disease or injury. Necrosis is a form of premature tissue death, as opposed to the spontaneous natural death or wearing out of tissue, known as necrobiosis.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 124

The penman evapotranspiration equation is based on

Solution: The penman formula is a semi-empirical equation combining mass transfer (Ea) and energy budget (H) methods. The formula was developed by Penman in 1948 and is still widely used for calculating the potential evaporation using synoptic meteorological data.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 125

Which method is an accurate estimate of average rainfall in a particular catchment area

Solution: Isohyetal method is suitable for all types of catchment without any pre-condition.The isohyetal method is used to estimate the mean precipitation across an area by drawing lines of equal precipitation. In the isohyetal method, precipitation values are plotted at their respective stations on a suitable base map.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 126

In a pre-tensioning scheme, prestress load is transferred in

Solution: Either single or multi, depending on the number of wires and schedule of cutting. The tension is applied to the tendons before casting the concrete. The stages of pre-tensioning are described next. In the pre-tensioning system, the high-strength steel tendons are pulled between two end abutments (also called bulkheads) before the casting of concrete.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 127

A square 4m x 4m is isotropically reinforced at the bottom. If it is subjected to a working load of 14kpa.The moment capacity required as per yield line theory is

Solution: Working load W = 14kpa

Ultimate load Wu = Wn x load factor

= 14 x 1.5

= 21 kpa

where l = 4

Moment capacity

= 14 KN.m/m

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 128

Shear span is defined as the zone where

Solution: Shear span is defined as the zone where shear force is constant. The typical bending moment and shear force diagram of a uniformly loaded beam is given below. Since shear force is not constant between any span within the beam.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 129

The maximum spacing of vertical reinforcement in the RCC wall should not exceed

Solution: Maximum spacing of bars is 450mm or 3t, whichever lesser. The thickness of the wall in no case should be less than 100mm. If the thickness is greater than 200mm, double grid reinforcement is provided along with both the faces. Should not exceed 3 times the thickness of the wall.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 130

In surveying which both horizontal and vertical positions of a point are determined by an optical instrument is called

Solution: Tacheometry is a system of rapid surveying by which the positions, both horizontal and vertical, of points on the earth’s surface relative to one another are determined without using a chain or tape or a separate leveling instrument.

Tacheometry is also called as telemetry,tachematry.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 131

A concentrated load of 2000 kN is applied at the ground surface. Determine the vertical stress at a point P which is 7 m directly below the load. Also, calculate the vertical stress at a point R which is at a depth of 8 m but at a horizontal distance of 6 m from the axis of the load

Solution:

Q = 2000 Kn

Z = 7m

σz = 3.53kN/m2

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 132

In an experiment for the determination of the shrinkage limit, the following observations are taken

(a) the volume of saturated soil = 9.95 ml

(b) mass of saturated soil = 17.5 ml

(c) the volume of dry soil after shrinkage = 5.60 ml

(d) mass of dry soil after shrinkage = 11.5 ml

compute the shrinkage limit and the specific gravity of soils

Solution:

V1 = 9.95ml M1 = 17.5ml

V2 = 5.60ml Ms = 11.5ml

Ws = 0.4043 = 40.43%

The specific gravity of solids

G = 2.91

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 133

Continuity equation is based on the principle of conservation of

Solution: Continuity principle, or continuity equation, Principle of fluid mechanics. Stated simply, what flows into a defined volume in a defined time, minus what flows out of that volume in that time, must accumulate in that volume. The principle is a consequence of the law of conservation of mass.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 134

The discharge over a broad-crested weir is maximum when the depth of flow is

Solution: The discharge over the broad-crested weir is given by,

To measure the discharge over the broad-crested weir, two heads (i.e., H and h) need to be measured. However, experiments have shown that the flow adjusts itself to have maximum discharge for the available head. The downstream head over the weir can be computed mathematically by differentiating equation (1) with respect to and equating it to zero i.e.

This value of h is known as depth of flow.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 135

For the irrigation of a crop, the base period B (in days), depth of water ∆ (in metres) are related to the duty D (in ha/cumec) at the field as

Solution: For the irrigation of a crop, the base period B (in days), depth of water ∆ (in metres) are related to the duty D (in ha/cumec) at the field as

(D = 0.64B/∆)

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 136

In designing hydraulic structures in alluvial rivers, the equation used to calculate the normal depth of scouring R for discharge intensity of (qm3/s/m) is.

Solution: In designing hydraulic structures in alluvial rivers, the equation used to calculate the normal depth of scouring R for discharge intensity of (qm3/s/m) is.(R = 1.35(q2/f)1/3)

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 137

An earthen channel has been designed on Lacey formulae to carry a full supply discharge of 30 m2/s. The median size of the soil is 0.3 mm. the mean velocity of flow at this discharge is

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 138

The ratio between peak hourly water demand and maximum daily demand (per hour, of course) is.

Solution: The ratio between peak hourly water demand and maximum daily demand (per hour, of course) is 1.5

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 139

The ozonation in drinking water helps to remove

Solution: Because of its excellent disinfection and oxidation qualities, ozone is widely used for drinking water treatment. Ozone can be added at several points throughout the treatment system, such as during pre-oxidation, intermediate oxidation, or final disinfection. Usually, it is recommended to use ozone for pre-oxidation before a sand filter or an active carbon filter (GAC). After ozonization, these filters can remove the remaining organic matter (important for final disinfection).

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 140

The total water consumption, including domestic, commercial and industrial demands for average Indian people is.

Solution:

The quantity of water required for domestic use mainly depends on the habits, social status, climatic conditions, and customs of the people. In India, on an average, the domestic consumption of water under normal conditions is about 135 litres/day/capita as per IS: 1172-1171.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 141

The curve provided at the change of gradient is called-

Solution: When an up gradient of a highway meets a downgrade, the vertical curve is provided.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 142

To provide a cant in rails, wooden sleepers are cut to a slope at the rail, which is known as-

Solution: Adzing of Wooden Sleepers

To enable the rails to be slightly tilted inwards at a cant of 1 in 20, wooden sleepers are required to be cut to this slope at the rail seat before laying. This process of cutting the wooden sleeper at a slope of 1 in 20 is known as 'adzing of the wooden sleeper.’

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 143

If α is the angle of crossing, then the number of crossing 'N' according to the centre line method is given by

Solution: If α is the angle of crossing, then the number of crossing 'N' according to the centre line method is given by (1/2 cot α/2)
QUESTION: 144

The recommended camber for water-bounding Macadam road is

Solution: The recommended camber for water-bounding Macadam road is 1 in 33 to 1 in 40

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 145

Identify which of the following items is not considered while designing rigid pavements.

Solution: Edge of panel items are not considered when designing rigid pavements.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 146

The ideal form of the curve for the summit curve is

Solution: The ideal form of the curve for the peak curve is a parabola.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 147

Camber in the road is provided for

Solution: Camber: Camber is the transverse slope provided to the road surface for the drainage of the rainwater for the better performance of the road. Parabolic camber is provided by giving a parabolic shape to the surface of the road.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 148

The alum added as a coagulant in water treatment functions better when the raw water is

Solution: To accomplish this, the water is treated with aluminum sulphate, commonly called alum, which serves as a flocculant. Raw water often holds tiny suspended particles that are very difficult for a filter to catch. The alum promotes the coagulation of fine particles, which helps resolve problems of color as well as turbidity.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 149

The 'safe water' does not contain any

Solution: Safe water is not necessarily pure; it has some impurities in it. It contains some traces of salts such as magnesium, calcium, carbonates, bicarbonates, and others. The degree of purity and safety is a relative term and debatable. Clean/pure water has no minerals, and it only contains H and O.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 150

Which of the following gases is responsible for acid rain?

Solution: Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when compounds like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released into the air. These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants, known as acid rain.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 151

Which eccentric load, if placed within the central core shown in the figures below, does not produce tension in the column cross-section?

Solution:

The eccentric load within the central core shown in the area below does not cause strain in the column cross-section.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 152

The bending stress on a prismatic beam is given by

Solution:

σb − Bending stress

M − Calculated bending moment

y − Vertical distance away from the neutral axis

I − Moment of inertia around the neutral axis

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 153

If the column ends are effectively held in position and restrained against rotation at both ends, then the effective length is

Solution: If the column ends are effectively positioned and restrained against rotation at both ends, the effective length is L / 2.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 154

The modulus of elasticity of steel is

Solution: The modulus of elasticity is material-dependent. For example, the modulus of elasticity of steel is about 200 GPa (29,000,000 psi), and the modulus of elasticity of concrete is around 30 GPa (4,350,000 psi). The modulus of elasticity of aluminum is 69 GPa (10,000,000 psi).

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 155

Identify the erroneous statement. Mild steel

Solution: Mild Steel has a small percent elongation at failure.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 156

The maximum numerical value of Poisson’s ratio is

Solution: The Poisson's ratio of a stable, isotropic, linear elastic material must be between −1.0 and +0.5 because of the requirement for Young's modulus, the shear modulus, and bulk modulus to have positive values. Most materials have Poisson's ratio values ranging between 0.0 and 0.5.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 157

The angle between the principal plane and the plane of maximum shear is

Solution:

The plane on which normal stress attains its maximum and minimum values are called principal planes. The shear stress on the principal plane is zero.

The planes of maximum and minimum normal stresses are at an angle of 90° to each other.

Planes of maximum stress occur at 45° to the principal planes.

QUESTION: 158

For such element only under normal stresses, the radius of the Mohr circle is

Solution: Radius of Mohr's circle

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 159

The modulus of elasticity of steel is more than that of concrete. It indicates that steel is

Solution: The modulus of elasticity of steel is about 200 GPa or 29,000,000 psi, and the modulus of elasticity of concrete is around 30 GPa or 4,350,000 psi. The modulus of elasticity of aluminum is 69 GPa or 10,000,000 psi.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 160

Maximum shear stress produced on a solid circular shaft under torque is

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 161

The working stress of a material is expected to be

Solution: The working stress of a material is expected to be less than the yield stress. If working stress is more than the eld stress, then the material will fail.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 162

The relationship between Young's modulus, E, shear modulus, G, and Poisson's ratio, v, is given by

Solution:

The relationship between Young's modulus, E, shear modulus, G, and Poisson's ratio, v, is given by

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 163

Two blocks A and B, each of mass m, are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Two horizontal forces F and 2F, are applied on blocks A and B, respectively, as shown in Figure. Block a does not slide on block B. Then the normal reaction acting between the two blocks in (assume no friction between the blocks).

Solution: Consider Both masses as a system,

Total force on system FT​ = 2F − F = F (Left side)

Mass of system M = 2m

Acceleration of two mass system is a = f/2m towards left free body diagram is

N cos 60 − F = ma

N = 3F

Normal reaction acting between two blocks = N = 3F

Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 164

Which of the following compound are used as a waterproofing agent in concrete?

(A) Mastic Asphalt

(B) Calcium chloride

(C) Gypsum

(D) Silica Fume


Solution: Mastic asphalt is a mixture of coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filler, and bitumen and mostly used as a waterproofing agent. Calcium chloride is used as an accelerator and gypsum as a retarder. Silica fume enhances Cementitious property and abrasion resistance.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

QUESTION: 165

According to IS: 383, the coarsest sand falls under the grading zone

Solution: According to IS: 383, coarse sand grading zones fall under II.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 166

The initial setting time of fresh concrete should be

Solution: The time at which cement paste loses its plasticity is known as the initial setting time of the concrete. As per IS specification, the minimum initial setting time is 30 minutes for ordinary portland cement.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 167

Find the wrong statement.

In Le Chatelier's apparatus we

Solution:

In Cement Mortar and Cement Concrete, the volume expands due to the unburnt lime (CaO) and Magnesia (MgO).

Le Chatelier Apparatus test is used to determine the presence of unburnt lime (CaO).

The cracks developed in the structure are mostly due to the unburnt lime because it increases the volume of the cement.

Lime and magnesia also react with water, and thus increase in volume occurs in the cement,

which is also a reason for cracks in the structures.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 168

Find the odd entry among silica fume, rice husk ash, metakaolin, and ground granulated blast furnace slag with respect to cement production.

Solution: GGBFS confirming IS 12089 chemical requirements can be used as a mineral admixture as a part replacement to cement, whereas the other three are used as a cementitious material.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 169

To estimate the 28-day crushing strength of concrete cubes from 7-day cube strength, we multiply the 7-day cube strength by

Solution: To estimate the 28-day crushing strength of concrete cubes from 7-day cube strength, we multiply the 7-day cube strength by 1.5.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 170

The maximum deflection of the cross-sectiontip of a cantilever beam with concentrated load P at the free end is

Solution: The maximum deflection of the tip of the cantilever beam with concentrated load P at the free end is Pl3/3EI

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 171

The shape of the bending moment diagram of a beam subjected to bending moment at the end of a cantilever beam is

Solution: Sagging moment is positive and hogging moment is negative. The above is the shear force diagram. Since it is a pure bending case, i.e., no force is applied on it, so beam purely bends in the form of a circular arc.
QUESTION: 172

Identify which grade of cement is not available in the Indian market.

Solution: 23 grade of cement is not available in the Indian market.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 173

Rapid setting cement contains a relatively higher proportion of

Solution: Large proportion of lime is the distinguishing feature of rapid hardening cement. Rapid hardening cement is burnt at a higher temperature than that of the OPC under more controlled conditions.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 174

Study the following statements:

I. For constant w/c ratio, finer sand decreases the workability.

II. Creep is the deformation of concrete under sustained loading.

The correct statement (s) is/are

Solution: For a constant water/cementitious material ratio, an increase in the aggregate/cementitious material ratio will decrease workability; more cementitious material is needed when finer aggregate gradings are used. A fine aggregate deficiency results in a mixture that is harsh, prone to segregation, and difficult to finish. On the contrary, an excess of fine aggregate will lead to more permeable and less economical concrete, although the mixture will be easily workable.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 175

All R.C. columns must be designed for a minimum eccentricity of

Solution:

As per Is 456: 2000, Clause 25.4

All columns shall be designed for minimum eccentricity equal to the unsupported length of column / 500 plus lateral dimension / 30, subject to a minimum of 20 mm. The minimum eccentricity is incorporated in the design equation recommended in IS 456 for axially loaded compression members.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 176

The thermal expansion coefficient of steel α is

Solution: The thermal expansion coefficient of steel αis 12×10-6/0C and close to α concentre.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 177

Maximum spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery the RC column shall not exceed

Solution: As per IS 456: 2000, Clause 26.5.3.1

The spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of the column shall not exceed 300 mm. In a pedestal of a column, the area of the longitudinal reinforcement shall not be less than 0.15% of the gross area.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 178

The tensile strength of concrete in flexure and per IS: 456 is where (fck) is the characteristic strength of concentre.

Solution: The tensile strength of concrete in flexure and per IS: 456 is 0.7√fck, where (fck) is the characteristic strength of concentre.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 179

Low workability of concrete conforms to a slump of

Solution: Low workability of concrete conforms to a slump of 25-75 mm.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 180

Find mild and moderate exposures, if 20mm down coarse aggregates are used, minimum cement content per cubic metre of concrete must not be less than

Solution: If 20mm down coarse aggregates are used, the minimum cement content per cubic metre of concrete must not be less than 300 kg.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 181

The bond strength of concrete increases with

Solution: Convert that length into kilograms or Tons. This can be done by multiplying cross section area of steel by its total length by the section tip density of steel which 7850 kg/m3—total steel quantity of column equal to the sum of both main and stirrup steels.

Results show that up to 2% of rust increases the bond strength regardless of concrete strength and diameter of reinforcing bar like the existing data. It might result from the roughness due to rust. As expected, the bond strength increases as the compressive strength of concrete increases and the diameter of the bar decreases.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 182

The increased rate of strength gain of rapid hardening cement is achieved by

Solution: The increased rate of strength gain of rapid hardening cement is achieved by a higher content of C3S.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 183

Bulking of sand is maximum if the percentage of moisture content is of the order of

Solution: For a moisture content percentage of 5 to 8, there will be an increase in volume up to 20 to 40 percent depending upon the sand. If the sand is finer, there will be more increase in volume. This is known as bulking of sand.
QUESTION: 184

If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economically by

Solution: If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economically by using thinner bars but more in number.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 185

The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of the bar nor less than

Solution: For Mild exposure – 20 mm

For Moderate exposure – 30 mm

However, if the diameter of the bar does not exceed 12 mm, or cover may be reduced by 5 mm. Thus for main reinforcement up to 12 mm diameter bar and for mild exposure, the nominal cover is 15 mm.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 186

Total pressure on the vertical face of retaining wall of height h, per unit run, exerted by the retained earth weighing ω per unit volume and angle of repose is ϕ given by

Solution: Total earth pressure is given by, (H2γKa/2)

here (γ=w and Ka=1−sin⁡ϕ/1+sin⁡ϕ)

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 187

Maximum spacing of side face reinforcement of beams having a depth of web more than 750 mm is

Solution: Beams exceeding the depth of 750 mm and subjected to bending moment and shear shall have side face reinforcement. The total area of side face reinforcement shall be at least 0.1 percent of the web area and shall be distributed equally on two faces at a spacing not exceeding 300 mm or web thickness, whichever is less.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 188

The modulus of rupture of concrete gives

Solution: Modulus of rupture obtained by performing Fracture test on concrete gives the theoretical maximum tensile stress under bending on the concrete specimen.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 189

A flat slab is supported on

Solution: Flat slab is a reinforced concrete slab supported directly by concrete columns without beams. A flat slab is defined as a one-sided or two-sided support system with a sheer load of the slab being concentrated on the supporting columns and a square slab called drop panels.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 190

According to IS: 456 - 2000, side-face reinforcement should be provided when the depth of the web of a beam exceeds

Solution: Side face reinforcement in the web of the beam provided when the depth of the web in a beam exceeds 750 mm.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 191

The outstand of web stiffeners in terms of the thickness of flat 't' should be

Solution: The outstanding number of web strainers should be 12t in terms of flat 'T' thickness.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 192

When two plates are placed end-to-end and are joined by two cover plates, the joint is known as

Solution: When two plates are placed end-to-end and are joined by two cover plates, the joint is known as a double cover butt joint.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 193

As per codal provisions, the effective buckling length of a cantilever steel column of length L is given by

Solution: According to the codal provisions, the effective buckling length of a cantilever steel column of L is given by 2L.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 194

Diameter of a rivet hole should be greater than the nominal diameter of the rivet by about