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Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - UPSC MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4

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Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding Model Code of Conduct.

  1. The Model Code of Conduct is the set of norms that has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code.
  2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into force immediately on the announcement of the election schedule by the Election commission.
  3. The rules cease to exist on the polling day.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 1
  • The Model Code of Conductis a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections mainly with respect to speeches, polling day, polling booths, portfolios, election manifestos, processions, and general conduct. This set of norms has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code in its letter and spirit.
  • The Model Code of Conduct comes into force immediately on the announcement of the election schedule by the commission for the need of ensuring free and fair elections.
  • Its main purpose is to ensure that ruling parties, at the Centre and in the States, do not misuse their position of advantage to gain an unfair edge.
Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding Mangalagiri Sarees and Fabrics.

  1. Mangalagiri Sarees and Fabrics are produced by performing handicraft weaving in the State of Andhra Pradesh.
  2. It has received the geographical indication tag.
  3. The unique feature of Mangalagiri fabric is that it does not undergo any process of dyeing.
  4. The Nizam design is a characteristic of the fabric.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 2
  • Mangalagiri Sarees and Fabrics are produced by performing handicraft weavingin Mangalagiri, a town in Guntur district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
  • It was registered as one of the handicrafts in the geographical indication from Andhra Pradesh by Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. 
  • The Mangalagiri fabric is produced by weaving with the help of pitlooms from combed yarn by warp and woof interlacing.
  • The fabric then undergoes the process of dyeing.
  • The Nizam design is another characteristic of the fabric.
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Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC).

  1. ONDC is an interoperable network that seeks to democratise digital commerce in India.
  2. ONDC eliminates the need for buyers and sellers to use the same application, and promotes the discoverability of local digital stores across industries.
  3. The ONDC entity, a not-for-profit company incorporated under the Companies Act 2013, manages and operates the ONDC Network.
  4. ONDC has been endorsed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 3

ONDC is an interoperable network based on the BeckN protocol that anyone can piggyback on. It seeks to break down silos in digital commerce by enabling platforms of varying configurations (big or small) to connect and operate seamlessly on it.

It comprises different entities called ‘Network Participants’, including Buyer Applications, Seller Applications, and Gateways that perform the search and discovery function. Imagine a scenario where all the large e-commerce platforms, from food delivery to clothing and fashion to conveyance, are accessible in one place, along with your neighbourhood start-ups, shops, and kirana stores.

How does this help, and why is it significant?
By moving the exchange of goods and services from a platform-centric approach to a network-centric approach, ONDC eliminates the need for buyers and sellers to use the same application, and promotes the discoverability of local digital stores across industries.

What is ONDC’s inclusive governance approach?
The ONDC entity, a not-for-profit company incorporated under Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013, manages and operates the ONDC Network.

It is responsible for building and maintaining the underlying infrastructure (common registries and protocols) as well as defining the rules of engagement and code of conduct for the Network Participants through the ONDC Network Policy and the ONDC Network Participant Agreement.

To what extent will the government be involved in ONDC?
ONDC has been endorsed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry. DPIIT is not involved in ONDC’s funding, but is at the forefront of its evangelisation through light-touch governmental oversight.

To ensure a market+community driven approach to decision-making, the board includes representatives from banks, the government, and independent industry and civil society members.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 4

Which of the following is/are the objectives of Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)?

  1. Correcting the imbalances in the availability of affordable healthcare facilities in the different parts of the country.
  2. Providing universal access to public health services and universal immunisation.
  3. Augmenting facilities for quality medical education in the country.

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 4

PMSSY was announced in 2003 with objectives of correcting regional imbalances in the availability of affordable/ reliable tertiary healthcare services and also to augment facilities for quality medical education in the country.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 5

Consider the following statements.

  1. Ganga Praharis are motivated and trained volunteers from among the local communities working for biodiversity conservation and cleanliness of the Ganga River.
  2. Ganga Praharis are constituted by the National Mission for Clean Ganga and the Wildlife Institute of India (NMCG-WII) under the Namami Gange programme.
  3. The United Nations has recognised the Namami Gange initiative as one of the top 10 World Restoration Flagships involved in reviving the natural world.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 5

Ganga Prahari (guardian): This is a task force of volunteers constituted by the National Mission for Clean Ganga and the Wildlife Institute of India (NMCG-WII) under the Namami Gange programme to cover 8.61 billion sq. km of the river basin.

Since 2014, Namami Gange has aimed to clean the river, ecosystem, and the villages around, home to 40% of India’s population at 520 million and 2,500 species of flora and fauna. The United Nations in December 2022 recognised the initiative as one of the top 10 World Restoration Flagships involved in reviving the natural world — a project that has seen the Central government invest $5 billion.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 6

Renke commission, sometimes seen in news is related to

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 6

Who are de-notified, nomadic and semi-nomadic tribes?
These are communities who are the most vulnerable and deprived. Denotified tribes (DNTs) are communities that were ‘notified’ as being ‘born criminal’ during the British regime under a series of laws starting with the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871. Nomadic and semi-nomadic communities are defined as those who move from one place to another rather than living at one place all the time.

A National Commission for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (NCDNT) was constituted in 2006 by the then government. It was headed by Balkrishna Sidram Renke and submitted its report in June 2008, in which it said, “It is an irony that these tribes somehow escaped the attention of our Constitution makers and thus got deprived of the Constitutional support unlike Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.”

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 7

Consider the following statements.

  1. An ordinance promulgated by the president cannot negate a Constitution Bench judgment of the Supreme Court of India.
  2. The Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCTD) has competence over all entries in List II and List III of the seventh schedule to the constitution of India.
  3. The executive power of NCTD is co-extensive with its legislative power.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 7

Only statement 3 is correct.

On May 19, 2023, the President of India exercised legislative power under Article 123 of the Constitution, during the period Parliament was in recess, to promulgate The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance, 2023 (Ordinance). The ordinance negates a Constitution Bench judgment of the Supreme Court of India, which was delivered on May 11, that brought “services” under the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCTD).

While interpreting Article 239AA(3)(a), the Court ruled, inter alia, that these were the points: The Legislative Assembly of the NCTD has competence over entries in List II and List III, except for expressly excluded entries of List II (entries 1, 2, 18 are excluded); the executive power of NCTD is co-extensive with its legislative power, that is, it shall extend to all matters with respect to which it has power to legislate; the Union of India has executive power only over three entries in List II over which the NCTD does not have legislative competence (entries 1, 2, 18).

Thus, essentially, the Court interpreted that out of the 66 entries in List II (the State list), while the executive power of the Government of NCTD covers 63 entries, that of the Union of India is restricted to the remaining three: public order (entry 1), police (entry 2) and land (entry 18).

Consequently, executive power over “services” (entry 41) can be exercised exclusively by the Government of the NCTD. This interpretation of the Court is consistent with the wordings in Article 239AA(3)(a). But, this interpretation was negated by the Union of India, acting through its Council of Ministers under Article 74, by triggering extraordinary legislative power of the President under Article 123 in the promulgation of an ordinance on May 19.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding Exclusive economic zones (EEZs).

  1. EEZs is the distance up to which a coastal nation has jurisdiction over the ocean, including both living and non-living resources.
  2. It generally goes to 200 nautical miles beyond a nation’s territorial sea.
  3. Due to their relatively small size, most of the pacific island countries does not have any exclusive economic zones (EEZs).

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 8

The correct statements regarding Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) are:
Statement 1: EEZs is the distance up to which a coastal nation has jurisdiction over the ocean, including both living and non-living resources.
- This statement is correct. An EEZ is an area beyond a nation's territorial sea where the coastal nation has special rights regarding the exploration and use of marine resources.
Statement 2: It generally goes to 200 nautical miles beyond a nation's territorial sea.
- This statement is correct. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) establishes that the EEZ extends up to 200 nautical miles from a nation's baseline.
Statement 3: Due to their relatively small size, most of the Pacific island countries do not have any exclusive economic zones (EEZs).
- This statement is incorrect. Most coastal nations, including Pacific island countries, have EEZs. The size of the EEZ may vary depending on the coastline and the presence of other neighboring countries.
Therefore, two of the above statements are correct. (Option B)
Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the word ‘sovereignty’ used in India’s Constitution.

  1. The word sovereignty appears in the beginning of the Preambleto the Constitution of India.
  2. Sovereignty is mentioned in the Constitution under Fundamental Duties.
  3. It is also mentioned in the oaths for positions like the Chief Justices, Union Ministers and Members of Parliament under the Third schedule of the Constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 9

The word sovereignty appears in the beginning of the Preamble to the Constitution of India, as the first attribute of the independent republic of India. Its placement as the first among the core principles of the republic underlines its importance in the Constitution.

Sovereignty is mentioned in the Constitution under Fundamental Duties, which are to be followed by all Indian citizens but cannot be legally enforced. Article 51A(c) states that it is the duty of all citizens “to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.”

It is also mentioned in the oaths for positions like the Chief Justices, Union Ministers and Members of Parliament under the Third schedule: “…I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India…”

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 10

Consider the following statements.

  1. An early or delayed onset of monsoon over Kerala has a direct impact on the monsoon performance over the rest of the season throughout the country.
  2. In the last 10 years, the onset of monsoon over Kerala has not happened on the normal date.
  3. El Nino has the effect of suppressing the Indian monsoon rainfall.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 10

The onset of monsoon over the Kerala coast is just a marker of the official beginning of the four-month monsoon season that brings more than 75 per cent of India’s annual rainfall. An early or delayed onset over Kerala does not in any way dictate monsoon performance over the rest of the season.

In fact, the onset over the Kerala coast is not even the start of the monsoon rains over India. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands start getting the rains at least two weeks before Kerala does. Sometimes, even parts of Kerala get rains for a few days before the onset is officially announced.

The onset is just a declaration that a set of criteria defined by the IMD to identify the arrival of the monsoon over the Indian mainland has been met. For this purpose, the IMD tracks rains at 14 selected meteorological stations on the Kerala coast. If at least 60 per cent of these stations, that is at least nine of them, get at least 2.5 mm rainfall for two consecutive days anytime after May 10, the onset is said to have occurred. There are a few other accompanying criteria, relating to wind speed and pressure, which need to be satisfied.

The monsoon then moves northwards, the speed of its movement dictated by local atmospheric conditions and the development of low-pressure areas.

The normal arrival dates at different locations in the country are known, but the progression of monsoon does not always follow these dates. Late arrival over Kerala sometimes delays the arrival at some other locations as well, but not always.

In the past five years, only once has the onset over Kerala happened on the normal date, in 2020. In the past 11 years, it has happened once more. On other occasions, the onset was either a few days earlier or later. But this has no correlation with the amount of rainfall during the monsoon season.

In 2016, for example, the onset happened on June 8, the most delayed in the past 12 years. The rainfall that year was normal, 97.5 per cent of the long period average.

Recent forecasts suggest that El Nino, the warming of the equatorial Pacific Ocean that impacts weather events worldwide, is likely to develop earlier than expected. El Nino has the effect of suppressing the Indian monsoon rainfall.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 11

Consider the following statements.

  1. Melanesia, Micronesia, and Polynesia are the major groups of Pacific Islands.
  2. Papua New Guinea is located north of Australia.
  3. Papua New Guinea is among the least populous Pacific Island nation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 11
  • The Pacific Islands are a group of islands in the Pacific Ocean. They are further categorized into three major island groups: Melanesia, Micronesia, and Polynesia.
  • Papua New Guinea’s location just north of Australia makes it strategically significant. It was the site of fierce battles during World War II, and with a population of nearly 10 million people, it’s one of the most populous Pacific Island nation.
Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 12

Which of the following is a measure that can be used by the Government to combat inflation? 

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 12

Increasing the rate of interest on savings and fixed deposits attracts people to park their money in the banks, which in turn helps to reduce inflation.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 13

The Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET) that aims at co-producing jet engines, long-range artillery and infantry vehicles, is between India and 

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 13
  • India and the U.S. are discussing possibilities of co-producing jet engines, long-range artillery and infantry vehicles under the Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET) announced earlier this year.
  • The INDUS-X is going to be a major initiative under iCET and the focus is firmly on advancing high-tech cooperation.
Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).

  1. Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is released by World Bank.
  2. The global MPI constructs on indicators spanning health, education and standard of living.
  3. The MPI ranges from 0 to 1, and higher values imply higher poverty.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 14

Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

  • The report produced by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
  • The global MPI constructs a deprivation profile of each household and person through 10 indicators spanning health, education and standard of living. All indicators are equally weighted within each dimension. The global MPI identifies people as multidimensionally poor if their deprivation score is 1/3 or higher.
  • The MPI is calculated by multiplying the incidence of poverty and the average intensity of poverty. The MPI ranges from 0 to 1, and higher values imply higher poverty. 
Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding Review Petition.

  1. The constitution of India does not mention anything about Review Petition.
  2. Usually a review takes place to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.
  3. It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 15

Statement 1 is incorrect.

A judgment of the Supreme Court becomes the law of the land, according to the Constitution. However, the Constitution, under Article 137, gives the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders. This departure from the Supreme Court’s final authority is entertained under specific, narrow grounds. So, when a review takes place, the law is that it is allowed not to take fresh stock of the case but to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.

Who can file a review petition?

It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. However, the court does not entertain every review petition filed. It exercises its discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 16

Consider the following statements.

  1. Forum shopping involves litigants or lawyers attempting to deliberately move their case to a particular judge or Court where they think the judgment could be more favourable.
  2. Bench hunting refers to petitioners managing to get their cases heard by a particular judge or court to ensure a favourable order.
  3. Supreme court ruling does not bar the practice of Forum shopping or Bench hunting.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 16

Statement 3 is incorrect.

What is practice of forum shopping?

When litigants or lawyers attempt to deliberately move their case to a particular judge or Court where they think the judgment could be more favourable, they are said to be “forum shopping.”

Even the US and UK courts have criticised the practice of forum shopping as something to be avoided or prohibited.

Last year, on March 22, an SC Bench of Justice S. Abdul Nazeer and Justice Krishna Murari in the case of ‘Vijay Kumar Ghai vs. State of W.B.’ termed forum shopping as a “disreputable practise by the courts” that “has no sanction and paramountcy in law”.

On March 28, the Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh High Court in ‘Dr. Khair-Un-Nisa and Ors vs. UT of Jammu and Kashmir and Ors’ imposed costs worth one lakh rupees on the petitioners for indulging in forum shopping by filing multiple petitions before different wings of the court, albeit having the same cause of action.

Similarly, “Bench hunting” refers to petitioners managing to get their cases heard by a particular judge or court to ensure a favourable order, the court added.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 17

Operation Shakti and Operation Smiling Buddha are related to 

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 17

On May 11, 1998, India conducted three nuclear bomb test explosions at the Indian Army’s Pokhran Test Range. Two days later, on May 13, two more bombs were tested.

Codenamed Operation Shakti (literally, “strength”), these tests would display India’s capability to build fission and thermonuclear weapons with yields up to 200 kilotons, helping India enter the highly guarded club of countries with capability to deploy nuclear weapons.

However, Pokhran-II, as the series of tests is more popularly known, was also the culmination of a long journey that began back in the 1940s-50s.

On May 18, 1974, India carried out its first nuclear test at the Pokhran test site. Pokhran-I, codenamed Operation Smiling Buddha, would be billed as a “peaceful nuclear explosion”, with “few military implications”.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 18

According to census 2011, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  1. A person aged seven and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate.
  2. A person, who can only read but cannot write, is not literate.

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 18

For the purpose of census 2011, a person aged seven and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate. A person, who can only read but cannot write, is not literate. In the censuses prior to 1991, children below five years of age were necessarily treated as illiterates.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding PARAKH initiative.

  1. PARAKH has been set up as the organisation under Central Board of Secondary Education.
  2. Its mandate is to work on bringing the school examination boards across the States and the Union Territories on a common platform.
  3. PARAKH will act as a common platform for interaction of all concerned stakeholders in order to promote equity in performance and equivalence in assessment of students.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 19

PARAKH has been set up as the organisation under NCERT. It will work on bringing the school boards across the States and the Union Territories on a common platform. As a first step, a workshop on school assessments, examination practices and equivalence of boards across the country was organised by the Ministry of Education and PARAKH in New Delhi. PARAKH will act as a common platform for interaction of all concerned stakeholders in order to develop a holistic approach that ensures a fair assessment system which promotes equity in performance and equivalence in assessment of students.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 20

Karthik Meiyappan, who secured hat-trick in the 2022 T20 World Cup, represents 

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 20

UAE spinner Karthik Meiyappan became the first bowler to take a hat-trick in the 2022 T20 World Cup.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 21

Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the issue of a writ of certiorari in India?

  1. There should be an officer or a tribunal having the judicial authority as per the law to decide on the cases affecting the rights of people.
  2. Such an officer or the tribunal must have acted in excess of judicial power, or without requisite jurisdiction.

Select the correct answer code: 

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 21

Certiorari is basically a tool for judicial control and restraint. As mentioned above, it is issued by the Supreme Court or the High Court to quash an order passed by an inferior court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial authority, whenever the authority has acted in excess of its power, or without requisite jurisdiction, or has violated the principles of natural justice. It is corrective in nature and is aimed at preventing overstepping by the judicial authorities.

For the issuance of the writ of certiorari, the following conditions must be fulfilled:

  • The existence of an officer or a tribunal having the judicial authority as per the law to decide on the cases affecting the rights of people.
  • Such an officer or the tribunal must have acted-
    • in excess of judicial power, or
    • without requisite jurisdiction, or
    • in violation of the principles of natural justice.
Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding Millets.

  1. Millets are climate-smart crops that are drought-resistant, growing in areas with low rain and infertile soil.
  2. They are hardier than other cereals.
  3. They are less extractive for the soil and can revive soil health.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 22
Statement Analysis:

The given statements are related to Millets, which are a group of small-seeded grasses that are widely cultivated as cereal crops or as fodder for animals. Let's analyze each statement:



  1. Millets are climate-smart crops that are drought-resistant, growing in areas with low rain and infertile soil: This statement is correct. Millets are known for their ability to thrive in harsh and arid conditions. They have deep roots that help them access water from lower soil layers, making them drought-resistant. They can also grow in areas with low rainfall and infertile soil, making them suitable for cultivation in regions where other crops may struggle.

  2. They are hardier than other cereals: This statement is correct. Millets are considered hardier than other cereals like rice and wheat. They can withstand adverse weather conditions, pests, and diseases better than many other crops. Their resilience makes them a valuable option for farmers in challenging environments.

  3. They are less extractive for the soil and can revive soil health: This statement is correct. Millets have a low nutrient requirement and do not deplete the soil of its nutrients as much as other crops. In fact, they can help improve soil health by acting as a cover crop and preventing soil erosion. Their deep root systems also contribute to soil aeration and organic matter accumulation.


Conclusion:

All three statements are correct. Millets are climate-smart crops that are drought-resistant, hardier than other cereals, and less extractive for the soil, making them a sustainable option for cultivation in challenging environments.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the history of civil service exams in India.

  1. Prior to the establishment of Civil Service Commission, civil servants for India were nominated by the East India Company.
  2. Thomas Macaulay Committee recommended that civil servants should be selected through a competitive exam.
  3. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to clear the Civil Service examination.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 23

The UPSC has its genesis in the Civil Service Commission set up by the British government in 1854. Prior to this, civil servants for India were nominated by the East India Company, and then trained at Haileybury College in London.

However, following a report by Lord Thomas Macaulay, it was decided that instead of nominations, civil servants should be selected through a competitive exam. Thus, the Civil Service Commission was set up, and for some years, exams were held only in London. It was a decade later, in 1864, that Satyendranath Tagore (brother of Rabindranath Tagore) became the first Indian to clear the exam. The exam started being held in India only from 1922, after the First World War.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 24

Consider the following statements.

  1. An MLA has the right to participate in proceedings of the House regardless of pendency of any petitions for disqualification.
  2. At present, the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India protects defectors as long as one-third of the members of a political party formed a separate group.
  3. The freedom of expression of legislators in the House, or intra-party dissent, fall within the purview of anti-defection laws.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 24

Passing a unanimous judgement on the various issues related to the split in Shiv Sena in June 2022, the Supreme Court made strong observations about the role of the then Governor of Maharashtra and the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly. 

Not intervening in the proceedings, the SC said the issue of disqualification ought to be decided as per established procedures in law and the Speaker is the appropriate authority for this under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which lays down the anti-defection law.

The court also clarified that an MLA has the right to participate in proceedings of the House regardless of pendency of any petitions for disqualification.

Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule protected defectors as long as one-third of the members of a political party formed a separate group. It was removed by the Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, 2003, which came into effect on January 1, 2004.

The court said that the power of the Governor to act without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers is of an extraordinary nature, and must be exercised with circumspection within the limits of law.

The court said that as per provisions of the Representation of the People Act, an association of individuals calling itself a political party has to be registered with the EC.

The freedom of expression of legislators in the House, or intra-party dissent, cannot fall within the purview of anti-defection laws.

Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 25

Which of the following situations can lead to inflation? 

Detailed Solution for Test: May 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 4 - Question 25

Demand-pull inflation is a period of inflation which arises from rapid growth in aggregate demand. It occurs when economic growth is too fast. If aggregate demand (AD) rises faster than productive capacity (LRAS), then firms will respond by putting up prices, creating inflation.

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