UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly  >  Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - UPSC MCQ

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

25 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 for UPSC 2024 is part of Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly preparation. The Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 below.
Solutions of Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 questions in English are available as part of our Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly for UPSC & Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 solutions in Hindi for Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 | 25 questions in 30 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding Soil microbiomes.

  1. Soil microbiomes provide a habitat for microorganisms that benefit the environment by delivering important ecosystem functions.
  2. They work as a reservoir of human pathogens that induce antibiotic resistance genes (ARGs).
  3. Grazing herbivores are exposed to soil microbiomes via direct ingestion.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 1
  • Soil microbiomes play a crucial role in maintaining healthy water and environmental stability. Moreover, they underpin global food security that eventually affects the overall sustainability of terrestrial life in multiple ways, the experts said in a study published in the journal Nature Communications on June 3, 2023.
  • These microbiomes provide a habitat for microorganisms that benefit the environment by delivering important ecosystem and host functions. But they also work as a reservoir of human pathogens that induce antibiotic resistance genes (ARGs) and are sources of organic and inorganic pollutants.
  • Soil microbiomes impact human and animal immune systems by interacting with them through food chains. They also directly influence the quality of the environment through air and water.
  • Soil, for instance, “is a direct source of plant microbiomes, including beneficial and pathogenic microorganisms. Grazing herbivores are exposed to soil microbiomes via direct ingestion or the consumption of plant microbiomes, which provides a microbial source for the gut microbiome that can impact overall health and immune-system priming”.

 

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 2

In India, the Sahitya Akademi Awards are provided for which of the categories?

  1. Poetry anthology
  2. Novels
  3. Short story collections
  4. Essays
  5. Literary study

How many of the above options is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 2
  • The names of the recipients of the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Awards were announced recently.
  • The list of works that were deemed eligible by the Akademi for awards includes six novels, nine poetry anthologies, five short story collections, three essays, and one literary study.
  • The award was presented in the shape of a casket containing an engraved copper plaque. It also included a cash prize – a lump sum of Rs 1,00,000.
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 3

Arrange the following from North to South.

  1. Gulf of Finland
  2. Gulf of Gdansk
  3. Gulf of Bothnia
  4. Gulf of Riga

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 3

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 4

Consider the following statements.

  1. The 2023 Global Survey on Persons with Disabilities and Disasters was conducted by World Bank.
  2. Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) 2015–2030recognizes Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) and emphasises the need for their inclusion in all DRR policies and practices.
  3. National Disaster Management Authority’s (NDMA) guidelines was the first comprehensive set of guidelinesissued by any country globally on disability-inclusive disaster risk reduction (DiDRR).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 4

Statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) conducted the 2023 Global Survey on Persons with Disabilities and Disasters, following up on the 2013 survey.
  • Sendai Framework for DRR 2015–2030 recognizes Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) as contributing stakeholders and emphasises the need for their inclusion in all DRR policies and practices.

India’s Initiatives:

  • September 2019: NDMA came out with comprehensive guidelines under the title, ‘National Disaster Management Guidelines on Disability-Inclusive Disaster Risk Reduction, 2019’ (NDMA 2019). This was the first comprehensive set of guidelines issued by any country globally on disability-inclusive disaster risk reduction (DiDRR).
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Pontus Plate’, that was recently in news

  1. Pontus plate is a long-lost tectonic plate that disappeared millions of years ago.
  2. It was subducted beneath the Australian and Chinese plates.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 5
  • Scientists have recently rediscovered the “Pontus plate,” a long-lost tectonic plate that disappeared about 20 million years ago.
  • This plate was approximately a quarter the size of the Pacific Ocean and once existed beneath an ancient ocean known as the Pontus Ocean.
  • The rediscovery of the Pontus plate was accidental, occurring during a study of rocks in Borneo. Researchers had originally been studying the Pacific plate when they came across rock fragments that didn’t fit with known plates’ magnetic properties.
  • This plate formed at least 160 million years ago, possibly even earlier, and eventually disappeared as it was subducted beneath the Australian and Chinese plates.
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI).

  1. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is a United Nations agency that aims to promote research and knowledge sharing in the fields of infrastructure risk management.
  2. Multilateral development banks, the private sector and academic institutions are part of the Coalition.
  3. India is not part of the Coalition.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 6

Only Statement 2 is correct.

The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is an international coalition of countries, United Nations (UN) agencies, multilateral development banks, the private sector, and academic institutions, that aims to promote disaster-resilient infrastructure. Its objective is to promote research and knowledge sharing in the fields of infrastructure risk management, standards, financing, and recovery mechanisms. It was launched by the Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the 2019 UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding Psyche Mission.

  1. Psyche Mission was launched by European Space Agency to study an asteroid ‘Psyche.’
  2. For the first time, the mission will examine a celestial body primarily composed of rock and ice.
  3. It aims to gain insights into the internal structure of terrestrial planets, including Earth.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 7

Only Statement 3 is correct.

  • NASA has launched a spacecraft called ‘Psyche’ on a six-year mission to study a unique metal-rich asteroid also named ‘Psyche.’
  • This asteroid orbit the Sun between Mars and Jupiter.
  • The primary goal of the Psyche mission is to explore the iron core, a previously unexplored aspect of planet formation.
  • For the first time, the mission will examine a celestial body primarily composed of metal rather than rock and ice.
  • Additionally, it aims to gain insights into the internal structure of terrestrial planets, including Earth, by directly studying the interior of a differentiated body, which would otherwise remain hidden.
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding White phosphorus.

  1. White phosphorus is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures.
  2. It is used by militaries to create smokescreens due to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production.
  3. It is categorized as an “incendiary weapon” and is banned by international conventions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 8

Statement 3 is incorrect.

About White phosphorus:

  • It is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures, exceeding 800 degrees Celsius (1,500 degrees Fahrenheit).
  • It can melt metal and is often used by militaries to create smokescreensdue to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production that can last for about seven minutes.
  • White phosphorus is harmful to humans and can cause severe burnspenetrating down to the bone.The chemicals can be absorbed by the body, leading to dysfunction in multiple organs, including the liver, kidneys, and heart
  • White phosphorus munitions can be delivered through artillery shells, bombs, rockets, or grenades. This substance is colourless, white, or yellow and emits a garlic-like odour.

While white phosphorus is not banned by international conventions, it is not categorized as an “incendiary weapon” intended to cause fires or burns.

Instead, it is considered a multipurpose munition. Protocol III of the 1980 Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons prohibits incendiaries or the use of other substances to attack civilian populations, but it allows militaries to argue that white phosphorus is used only as a smokescreen, signal, or to illuminate a target.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding Green Credit Program (GCP).

  1. Green Credit Program (GCP) is a market-based mechanismdesigned to incentivize voluntary environmental actions across various sectors.
  2. To obtain Green Credits, individuals and entities must register their activities through the central government’s dedicated app/website.
  3. Ministry of Finance is responsible for the implementation, management, monitoring, and operation of Green Credit Program.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 9

Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • Green Credit Program (GCP) notified on 13th October, 2023 is an innovative market-based mechanism designed to incentivize voluntary environmental actions across diverse sectors, by various stakeholders like individuals, communities, private sector industries, and companies. The GCP’s governance framework is supported by an inter-ministerial Steering Committee and The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) serves as the GCP Administrator, responsible for program implementation, management, monitoring, and operation.
  • In its initial phase, the GCP focuses on two key activities: water conservation and afforestation.
  • The Green Credit Registry and trading platform, being developed by ICFRE along with experts, would facilitate the registration and thereafter, the buying and selling of Green Credits.
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding Ecomark Scheme.

  1. It provides accreditation and labelling for household and consumer products that meet specific environmental criteria.
  2. The scheme seeks to ensure accurate labelling and prevent misleading information about products.
  3. The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) administers the Ecomark Scheme.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 10

Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • The Ecomark Scheme provides accreditation and labelling for household and consumer products that meet specific environmental criteria while maintaining quality standards as per Indian norms. Products accredited under the Ecomark Scheme will adhere to specific environmental criteria, ensuring minimal environmental impact. It will build consumer awareness of environmental issues and encourage eco-conscious choices. It will also motivate manufacturers to shift towards environmentally friendly production. The scheme seeks to ensure accurate labelling and prevent misleading information about products.
  • The Central Pollution Control Board administers the Ecomark Scheme in partnership with Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), which is the national body for standards and certification.
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 11

A new species of toad, called Bufoides bhupathyi, has been discovered in the Dampa tiger reserve, located in

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 11
  • A new species of toad, called Bufoides bhupathyi, has been discovered in the Dampa tiger reserve of Mizoram.
  • This marks the third species in a genus found in the north-eastern region of India.
  • The previous two species, Bufoides meghalayanus and Bufoides kempi, were found in Meghalaya.
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding Kulasekarapattinam, that was recently in news

  1. Kulasekharapatnamis a town in Kerala.
  2. It was an ancient port that was contemporaneous to the existence of Kollam, Cheran, and Pandyan ports.
  3. ISRO is establishing a second spaceport here, dedicated to Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs) developed by the private sector.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 12

Statement 1 is incorrect.

ISRO is establishing a second spaceport in Kulasekarapattinam, Tamil Nadu, dedicated to Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs) developed by the private sector.
The SSLV is a cost-effective, flexible launch vehicle capable of deploying around 500kg satellites in a 500-km orbit.
Kulasekharapatnam is a town in the Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu. It was an ancient port dating to the 1st century AD and was contemporaneous to the existence of Kollam, Cheran, and Pandyan ports
.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 13

Major Jute producing states in India include

  1. West Bengal
  2. Bihar
  3. Assam
  4. Kerala
  5. Andhra Pradesh

How many of the above options is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 13

Option 4 is incorrect.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding International Olympic Committee (IOC).

  1. The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is a non-governmental sports organization that governs National Olympic Committees.
  2. The UN General Assembly has granted the IOC Permanent Observer status.
  3. The IOC Session is the annual meeting of IOC members where each member has one vote, and its decisions are final.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 14

The International Olympic Committee (IOC) has made amendments to the Olympic Charter to strengthen its human rights commitments during its 141st Session. These changes include additional wording in the Fundamental Principles of Olympism.

The International Olympic Committee (IOC) (founded: 1894; HQ: Lausanne, Switzerland) is a non-governmental sports organization responsible for organizing the Olympic Games and governs National Olympic Committees (NOCs). In 2009, the UN General Assembly granted the IOC Permanent Observer status. The IOC Session is the annual meeting of IOC members where each member has one vote, and its decisions are final.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding Seafloor spreading.

  1. Seafloor spreading does not occur along mid-ocean ridges.
  2. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge separates the North American plate from the Eurasian plate, and the South American plate from the African plate.
  3. The Cocos Plate is a young oceanic tectonic plate beneath the Atlantic Ocean.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 15

Only Statement 2 is correct.

Seafloor spreading occurs along mid-ocean ridges—large mountain ranges rising from the ocean floor. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge, for instance, separates the North American plate from the Eurasian plate, and the South American plate from the African plate.

The East Pacific Rise is a mid-ocean ridge that runs through the eastern Pacific Ocean and separates the Pacific plate from the North American plate, the Cocos plate, the Nazca plate, and the Antarctic plate.

The Southeast Indian Ridge marks where the southern Indo-Australian plate forms a divergent boundary with the Antarctic plate.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 16

Consider the following statements.

  1. Sovereign equality means all states are equal under international law in spite of inequalities between them in areas such as military power, geographical and population size and economic development.
  2. The UN Charter does not recognise the principle of Sovereign equality, but recognises the doctrine of collective security.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 16

Sovereign equality is juridical in nature, i.e., all states are equal under international law in spite of inequalities between them in areas such as military power, geographical and population size, levels of industrialisation and economic development. Sovereign equality, along with collective security, is a fundamental principle of the UN. The UN Charter states that the primary objective of the UN is to save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.

The UN Charter contains the doctrine of collective security in Article 39: “The Security Council shall determine the existence of any threat to the peace, breach of the peace, or act of aggression and shall make recommendations, or decide what measures shall be taken in accordance with Articles 41 and 42, to maintain or restore international peace and security.”

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding “Neo banks” sometimes seen in news.

  1. Neo banks are financial institutions with only an online presence and function digitally.
  2. Neo banks have to apply for a banking license with RBI.
  3. Neo banks offer banking services like savings accounts, small loans and debit cards.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 17

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Neo banks are financial institutions with only an online presence and function digitally.
  • They offer all traditional bank services via a digital setup or mobile apps without having any physical branches.
  • These are 100% digital banks. They cannot apply for a banking license. The expertise of these neo banks lies in tying technology and artificial intelligence together to offer personalized financial services to customers. It is offered at a minimal cost.
  • Neo banks offer limited products like savings accounts, small loans, debit cards, etc. and not all services of banks.
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 18

Consider the following pairs:

  1. Adjournment motions : Discuss an urgent matter.
  2. Half-an-hour discussions : Obtain further information from the government about a question answered in the House
  3. Short duration discussions : debate matters of public importance.

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 18
  • Adjournment motions are used to adjourn the normal proceedings of the House to discuss an urgent matter. The motion is voted on at the end of the discussion.
  • Short duration discussions are used to debate matters of public importance.
  • Half-an-hour discussions are used to obtain further information from the government about a question answered in the House
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 19

Consider the following pairs.

  1. Absolute humidity: the mass of water vapour in a given volume of the air and water vapour mixture
  2. Specific humidity: It is equal to the mass of the moisture divided by the mass of air
  3. Relative humidity: it factors in the amount of vapour that air can hold at different temperatures.

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 19

Humidity is the amount of moisture in the air around us, and there are three ways to track it. The most common of them is absolute humidity: the mass of water vapour in a given volume of the air and water vapour mixture, expressed as kg/m3. The second is specific humidity, equal to the mass of the moisture divided by the mass of air. It is expressed as a dimensionless number (but sometimes also as grams per kilogram, among other similar units.

The third way is relative humidity: it is important because it factors in the amount of vapour that air can hold at different temperatures. 

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 20

Which of the following animal is often referred to as the “Ghost of the Mountains”? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 20

Snow leopard, often referred to as Ghost of the Mountains because of its coat that helps it blend in a snowy-rocky environment.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 21

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, gives RBI the sole right to issue banknotes in India.
  2. Any change in design of a currency note has to be approved by the RBI’s Central Board and the central government.
  3. The RBI’s Department of Currency Management headed by the RBI Governor has the responsibility of administering the core function of currency management.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 21

Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • Changes in the design and form of bank notes and coins are decided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the central government. Any change in design of a currency note has to be approved by the RBI’s Central Board and the central government. Changes in the design of coins are the prerogative of the central government.
  • Section 22 of The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, gives RBI the “sole right” to issue banknotes in India. Section 25 states that “the design, form, and material of bank notes shall be such as may be approved by the Central Government after consideration of the recommendations made by the [RBI’s] Central Board”.
  • The RBI’s Department of Currency Management — headed by Deputy Governor  — has the responsibility of administering the core function of currency management. According to the RBI website, the Department addresses policy and operational issues relating to the “designing of banknotes; forecasting demand for notes and coins; ensuring smooth distribution of banknotes and coins throughout the country and retrieval of unfit notes and uncurrent coins from circulation; ensuring the integrity of bank notes”, etc.
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding

  1. First generation biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oil, or animal fats.
  2. Second generation biofuels are produced from micro-organisms like algae.
  3. Third generation biofuels are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 22

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Biofuels are liquid or gaseous fuels primarily produced from biomass, and can be used to replace or can be used in addition to diesel, petrol or other fossil fuels for transport, stationary, portable and other applications. Crops used to make biofuels are generally either high in sugar (such as sugarcane, sugarbeet, and sweet sorghum), starch (such as maize and tapioca) or oils (such as soybean, rapeseed, coconut, sunflower).

Biofuels are generally classified into three categories. They are

  • First generation biofuels – First-generation biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oil, or animal fats using conventional technology. Common first-generation biofuels include Bioalcohols, Biodiesel, Vegetable oil, Bioethers, Biogas.
  • Second generation biofuels – These are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass (stalks of wheat and corn, and wood). Examples include advanced biofuels like biohydrogen, biomethanol.
  • Third generation biofuels – These are produced from micro-organisms like algae.
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 23

Recently the Ministry of Jal Shakti released a document, which is the first such census of water bodies in India. According to it which of the following types of water bodies has the maximum share across India?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 23
  • A government report released last week has thrown light on the number of water bodies in India and what they are used for. The document, which was released by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, is the first such census of water bodies in India. The census has identified 24,24,540 water bodies in India.
  • Water bodies in this census are defined as any natural or man-made structures used for storing water for various purposes, such as irrigation, industry, fish farming, domestic use, recreation, religious activities, and groundwater recharge. They are classified as tanks, reservoirs and ponds. A structure that collects water from melting ice, streams, springs, rain, or drainage from residential or other areas, or stores water diverted from a stream, nala, or river, is also considered a water body.
  • Ponds comprise 59.5% (1,442,993) of water bodies, followed by tanks at 15.7% (381,805), reservoirs at 12.1% (292,280), water conservation projects such as percolation tanks and check dams at 9.3% (226,217), lakes at 0.9% (22,361), and other types at 2.5% (58,884).
Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 24

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 allows the Directorate of Enforcement (ED) to take cognizance of any offence under its schedule across the country.
  2. The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) cannot take cognizance of any offence in a state unless requested by the state government, or ordered by a court or the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 24

Unlike laws governing other agencies, particularly the CBI, the PMLA allows the ED to take cognizance of any offence under its wide-ranging schedule across the country, with or without the consent of state governments.

It has, therefore, been able to register money laundering cases against politicians or activists based on FIRs filed by state police forces — something the CBI is unable to do unless requested by the state government, or ordered by a court or the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 25

Consider the following statements.

  1. When water changes phase from liquid to vapour, it absorbs heat from the surface on which it lies.
  2. The lower the relative humidity of air, the more it is filled with moisture.
  3. When sweat evaporates from the human body, it absorbs heat from the skin and thereby cooling it.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 - Question 25

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • On a hot day, our body uses sweat to cool itself. Sweat is released via our skin to the surface. There, the liquid evaporates. When water changes phase from liquid to vapour, it absorbs heat from the surface on which it lies. So when sweat evaporates, it absorbs heat from the skin, cooling it.
  • The higher the relative humidity of air, the more it is filled with moisture. When air already contains a lot of moisture, it won’t easily accept more. This means that the sweat on your skin can’t evaporate. At the same time, the body keeps sweating because it is still expecting to cool itself.
  • As a result, if the relative humidity is high, you can sweat on a hot day even when you are sitting still – while your body also keeps accumulating heat. This can quickly become dangerous.
  • A relative humidity of 30-60% is generally considered to be comfortable. Environments that have lower levels than this typically use humidifiers to increase the humidity. When the level is higher, a fan will help move the air around you and help sweat evaporate better.
  • In both cases, drinking water is important.
39 videos|4330 docs|964 tests
Information about Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: December 22 to 31, 2023, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Up next

Download as PDF

Up next

How to Prepare for UPSC

Read our guide to prepare for UPSC which is created by Toppers & the best Teachers
Download the FREE EduRev App
Track your progress, build streaks, highlight & save important lessons and more!