SSC CHSL Mock Test -10


100 Questions MCQ Test SSC CHSL Mock Test Series | SSC CHSL Mock Test -10


Description
This mock test of SSC CHSL Mock Test -10 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC CHSL Mock Test -10 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC CHSL Mock Test -10 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC CHSL Mock Test -10 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC CHSL Mock Test -10 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free from error, click the 'No error' option.

Q. Employing constitutional institutions to shut (A) / down opposition does not augur well for the country or the (B) / office of the Prime Minister on any such executive post at the top. (C) / No Error (D)

Solution:

The error lies in part C.
The sentence uses the incorrect form ‘on'.

The sentence is suggesting that using institutions against opposition does not fare well for the office of the Prime Minister.

So using the preposition 'on' (in Part C) here does not make the sentence meaningful. The correct word here should be the conjunction 'or' which relates the Office of the Prime Minister with 'executive posts at the top'.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

To augur- To fare, to be a sign or warning of something.
e.g. The current weather seems to augur a harsher winter. 

QUESTION: 2

In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free from error, click the 'No error' option.

Q. Named after the legendary Indian bowler Vinoo Mankad, ‘Mankading’ (A) / is a method of 'run out' where a bowler dismisses a non-striker (B) / by hitting the bails before bowling when the letter is outside the crease. (C) /  No Error (D)

Solution:

The error lies in part C.
The sentence uses the incorrect form ‘letter'.

The sentence uses the word to refer to a 'non-striker' which is the second thing of the two things mentioned in the previous part (first is the 'bowler').

When the sentence refers to two things at the same time, adjectives such as 'former' (first one) and 'latter' (the second one) are used.

Given the context, the correct word here should be 'latter' which basically means something which comes after something.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 3

In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free from error, click the 'No error' option.

Q. Any increase in the sample size of (A) / the verified of VVPAT slips would only lead (B) /  to a very negligible gain in the confidence level. (C) / No Error (D)

Solution:

The error lies in part B.
The sentence uses the incorrect form ‘verified'.

Since the sentence uses the preposition 'of' with the above-given word, it cannot be in its verb form 'verfied'. As it is used with a preposition, it should be in its noun form 'verification'.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 4

In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free from error, click the 'No error' option.

Q. China’s Parliament took up on Friday a draft (A) / foreign investment law that could help smooth out trade talks (B) / with the U.S. as the world’s top two economies angle towards a deal. (C)  / No Error (D)

Solution:

The sentence has no grammatical errors.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 5

In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option ‘No improvement’.

Q. When long the work had been finished and it was time for tea. 

Solution:

The sentence uses the form When, which is incorrect and needs improvement.

The context suggests that the underlined part should mean 'soon'. It shows two different time periods in the same sentence.

Since the sentence uses the adverb 'long' and the conjunction 'and', we cannot use 'when'.

Using the preposition 'before' makes the phrase 'before long', which means 'soon' or 'not long after' something.

The only alternative that improves the sentence is before.

None of the other alternatives can make the sentence meaningful.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 6

In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option ‘No improvement’.

Q. As you were anxious to sell your land was already known to my lawyers.  

Solution:

The sentence uses the form As you were, which is incorrect and needs improvement.

The sentence uses the singular simple past tense verb 'was' to refer to the first part of the sentence.

This means, it was the 'fact' that you were anxious to see your land; that 'was' known. 

The only alternative that improves the sentence is That you were.

None of the other alternatives can make the sentence meaningful.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 7

In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option ‘No improvement’.

Q. If you had started on the assignment early, you can be finished by now.   

Solution:

The sentence uses the form can be, which is incorrect and needs improvement.

The sentence uses the conditional conjunction 'if you had', showing that the second sentence is dependent on the conditional existence of the first.

The second sentence, then, must contain a verb that shows this conditional future outcome, if the thing given by the first sentence occurs.

This can only be given by a modal verb.

Should shows a duty, and shall shows a future tense which do not fit the context.

Only modal verb 'would' reflects the conditional future possibility. 

The only alternative that improves the sentence is Would have.

None of the other alternatives can make the sentence meaningful.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 8

Fill in the blanks.

Q. The media solidarity is remarkable because this is _______ the first time that this government faced the power of a hostile media.

Solution:

The sentence suggests that the blank should contain an adverb, as it is used directly after the verb.
Given the context, the word should mean 'possibly'.

The only word that gives this meaning is 'perhaps'.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 9

Fill in the blanks.

Q. For the entire period of its first four years and some more, the government carried _______ as if no scandal had touched it.

Solution:

The sentence suggests that the blank should contain a preposition to be used with the main verb.

Given the context, the word should be 'on', making the verb phrase 'carrying on', meaning 'continuing something'.

The only word that gives this meaning is option 4.
Therefore, the correct answer is option  4.

QUESTION: 10

Fill in the blanks.

Q. In this context, it is _______ to revisit the past and examine how the media treated the previous governments.

Solution:

The sentence suggests that the blank should contain an adjective, as it is used with the verb 'is'.
Given the context, the word should mean 'useful'.
The only word that gives this meaning is 'instructive'.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 11

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

Q. ''Will you marry me?'', Hiten said to Deepa.

Solution:

The rule when converting direct speech to indirect is to pay attention to each word and change it accordingly. Whenever there is a question in the sentence, the verb 'said' becomes 'asked' in reported speech.

In case of non wh-questions such as 'have you? or 'will you', which indicate a possibility of something happening, the conditional nature is shown by using 'if' after 'asked'.

The sentence contains the future tense verb 'will', which, in reported speech becomes 'would'.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 12

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

Q. Saurabh said to Kumar, ''Nice to meet you.''

Solution:

The rule when converting direct speech to indirect is to pay attention to each word and change it accordingly. The verb 'said' becomes 'told' in reported speech. The phrase '(It is) Nice to meet you' does not use but intends the usage of 'it is'.  

So, when converting it to indirect speech, the simple present tense 'it is' would be changed to simple past tense 'It was'.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 13

In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Q. The boys sang the song beautifully.

Solution:

The sentence is in active voice thus in passive voice the object 'song' must be written before the subject 'boys' In active voice :
Subject+verb+object
In passive voice:
Object+verb+subject

The tense here is simple past thus 'was sung' is the correct verb to be used here. Option 4 is the correct answer. The other options use incorrect tenses or change the meaning of the sentence

QUESTION: 14

I have flown this plane for seven years.

Solution:

In a conversion from active to passive voice, the subject and the object gets interchanged. In this context option 4 is correct grammatically and conceptually. Option 1 and 3 are grammatically incorrect and option 3 is not the right conversion.

QUESTION: 15

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Q. She always took her medicines on time.

Solution:

In a conversion from active to passive voice, the subject and the object gets interchanged. In this context option 2 is the correct answer conceptually and grammatically. Options 1 and 3 are grammatically incorrect and option 4 is not right conversion.

QUESTION: 16

Read the following group of sentences. The first and the last are numbered 1 and 6 while all others are given by P,Q,R and S. Arrange these four parts in proper order to form a meaningful sentence/paragraph.
1. With the scientific revolution
P. known as the Enlightenment 
Q. and the great cultural movement
R. of the 16th and 17th centuries,
S. which followed, a problem 
6. arose for this way of thinking.

Solution:

The part Q talks about 'the great cultural movement', which must be associated with some specific movement, as shown by the use of article 'the'.

Now, the part P talks about something known as 'Enlightenment'. So, they must be connected.
So, QP is the correct order.

This order is only reflected by option 3, which gives the order RQPS.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 17

Read the following group of sentences. The first and the last are numbered 1 and 6 while all others are given by P,Q,R and S. Arrange these four parts in proper order to form a meaningful sentence/paragraph.
1. There is also the indisputable 
P. not enjoyed by other countries, which 
Q. fact that no two nations are alike, 
R. and in the 18th and 19th century, 
S. England had some natural advantages
6. also contributed to its economic success.

Solution:

The first part of the sentence ends with the adjective 'indisputable', indicating that it must be associated with some noun.

So, the next part must begin with a noun. This is only shown by Q and S, which give the nouns 'fact' and 'England' respectively.

Given the context, only 'indisputable fact' is appropriate here.
So, Q must be the first part of the correct order.

Out of the given options, only option 4 begins with Q, with the order QRSP.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 18

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

__________ the course of the development of different life-forms heredity—which, in plain English, is unconscious memory generated in the first life-form and __________ through all the different species—is the sole factor in the __________ of the parent properties; while adaptation to surrounding conditions and circumstances, natural selection in the struggle __________ existence, and partner selection in the struggle of the males for __________ are the principal factors in the differentiation of species.

Q. __________ the course of the development of different life-forms heredity

Solution:

Out of the given alternatives, only “In” makes grammatical sense in the context of the sentence. Since Into means expressing movement or action with the result that someone or something becomes enclosed or surrounded by something else. Inside refers to the inner side or surface of something and onto is the variant from of ‘on to’

QUESTION: 19

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

__________ the course of the development of different life-forms heredity—which, in plain English, is unconscious memory generated in the first life-form and __________ through all the different species—is the sole factor in the __________ of the parent properties; while adaptation to surrounding conditions and circumstances, natural selection in the struggle __________ existence, and partner selection in the struggle of the males for __________ are the principal factors in the differentiation of species.

Q. in the first life-form and _________ through all the

Solution:

From the given alternatives “transmitted” which is the past participle of transmit meaning to cause (something) to pass on from one person or place to another, is the correct answer. Since the sentence is framed in past tense transmitted makes grammatical sense in the context of the sentence.

QUESTION: 20

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

__________ the course of the development of different life-forms heredity—which, in plain English, is unconscious memory generated in the first life-form and __________ through all the different species—is the sole factor in the __________ of the parent properties; while adaptation to surrounding conditions and circumstances, natural selection in the struggle __________ existence, and partner selection in the struggle of the males for __________ are the principal factors in the differentiation of species.

Q. sole factor in the _________ of the parent properties

Solution:

From the given alternatives “preservable” is a wrong word. “Preserve” and “preserving” don’t make sense in the context of the statement and are therefore not the correct answers. So option 3 “preservation” is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 21

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

__________ the course of the development of different life-forms heredity—which, in plain English, is unconscious memory generated in the first life-form and __________ through all the different species—is the sole factor in the __________ of the parent properties; while adaptation to surrounding conditions and circumstances, natural selection in the struggle __________ existence, and partner selection in the struggle of the males for __________ are the principal factors in the differentiation of species.

Q. natural selection in the struggle _________ existence, and partner selection

Solution:

From the given options “for” is correct answer as it makes grammatical sense in the context of the statement.

QUESTION: 22

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

__________ the course of the development of different life-forms heredity—which, in plain English, is unconscious memory generated in the first life-form and __________ through all the different species—is the sole factor in the __________ of the parent properties; while adaptation to surrounding conditions and circumstances, natural selection in the struggle __________ existence, and partner selection in the struggle of the males for __________ are the principal factors in the differentiation of species.

Q. the struggle of the males for _________ are the principal factors

Solution:

The words “femininity”, “feminine” and “woman” don’t fit the context of the statement and would be incorrect. So the correct answer is “females”.

QUESTION: 23

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelled. Find the incorrectly spelled word.

Solution:

The correct option is 4, i.e., transcind
Let’s find out the meaning of the given words –

Placebo – a psychological trick that involves giving a medicine or treatment while leading the patient to believe that they are recovering while actually it is the knowledge of being treated that is improving their health

Quasi – something that seems to be something else, something that seems real but actually isn’t

Raisin -a dry fruit that is usually created by dehydrating grapes

Transcend – the activity of going beyond the limit or boundaries, to surpass

QUESTION: 24

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelled. Find the incorrectly spelled word.

Solution:

The correct option 2, i.e., umbryo
Let’s find out the meaning of the given words –

Stagnate – the loss of motion that leads to the object being in the same place

Embryo – the unborn baby, which in a human offspring happens at approximately 6-8 weeks after fertilization

Velvet – a material that I closely woven and is made of either cotton, silk or nylon

Whether – the expression of doubt when choosing between 2 options, or expressing enquiry

QUESTION: 25

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Find the incorrectly spelt word.

Solution:

The correct option is d, i.e., barell
Let’s find out the meaning of the given words –

Activate – the act of making something start or making it operational

Yearning – a feeling expressing intense longing (craving) for something,

Zodiac – a part of astrology that consists the 12 signs that represent the position of the Sun, the Moon and planets. E.g. Libra, Cancer, Aries, etc.

Barrel – a container that is cylindrical in shape with the sides bulging out and is usually made of wood with metal hoops to hold them in place

QUESTION: 26

In the following question, select the related letter/letters from the given alternatives.

STM : RSL : : VSF : ?

Solution:

In STM : RSL,
S – 1 = R; T – 1 = S; M – 1 = L
Thus, in VSF : ?,
V – 1 = U; S – 1 = R; F – 1 = E
Hence, ‘URE’ is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 27

Directions: The following questions are based on the three - digit numbers given below:

758, 159, 286, 537, 839

Q. If in each number, the first and third digit are interchanged which is the second highest number?

Solution:

Given numbers are:
758, 159, 286, 537, 839
Interchanging first and third digits:
857, 951, 682, 735, 938
Second highest number is 938.
Thus answer is 839.

QUESTION: 28

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series

Y7C, W16F, T34L, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,


Hence, the correct answer is P70U.

QUESTION: 29

Two aeroplanes start from the same strip. Aeroplane P flies 65 miles North, then turns left, and flies 45 miles and then lands. In the meanwhile aeroplane Q flies 80 miles West, then flies 40 miles South, then turns to its left, flies 35 miles and lands. Where is aeroplane Q with respect to aeroplane P?

Solution:


Hence, aeroplane Q is 105 miles South with respect to aeroplane P.

QUESTION: 30

If A + B means A is the mother of B; A / B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son of Band A - B means A is the daughter of B, which of the following means C is the niece of D?

Solution:

Refer the table:

1) D - C

Here, D is the daughter of C.
2) D x P – C

Here, C is either the grandmother or grandfather of D.
3) P + D / C

Here, D is the brother of C.
4) C - P / D

Here, C is niece is D.
Hence, the correct option is 4.

QUESTION: 31

If DISC is coded as 8749 and ACHE is coded as 3950, then HEAD is coded as?

Solution:

According to the given informatio following is coded as;

Similarly;

Hence, 'HEAD' is coded as '5038'.

QUESTION: 32

A box is termed as eraser, an eraser is termed as pen, a pen is termed as stick, and a stick is termed as plant. Then in the exam a student will write with________.

Solution:

In exam student write with Pen, and Pen is coded as Stick.
Hence, “Stick” is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 33

Which one of the following is the odd one?

0, 28, 124, 344, 728, 2198

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,
13 – 1 = 0;
3+ 1 = 28;
53 – 1 = 124;
73 + 1 = 344;
93 – 1 = 728;
113 + 1 = 1332 ≠ 2198
Hence, 2198 is the odd one out.

QUESTION: 34

Choose the odd one out from the given alternatives.

Solution:

All except Selenium are the metals, Selenium is a non – metal.
Hence, odd one is Selenium.

QUESTION: 35

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

372 : 42 : : 456 : ?

Solution:

According to the given information:
As 372 : 42 → 3 × 7 × 2 = 42;
Similarly,
456 : ? → 4 × 5 × 6 = 120;
Hence, 120 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 36

Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.

There are 4 persons A, B, C and D.
i) The total amount of money with A and B together is equal to the total amount of money with C and D together.
ii) The amount of money with B and D together is more than the amount of money with A and C together.
iii) The amount of money with A is twice than that of B.
iv) B has Rs 10 with him.

Q. Which of the following conditions is true?

Solution:

From the above conditions we get the equations as follows,
i) A + B = C + D
ii) B + D > A + C
iii) A = 2B
iv) B = 10

Now we use the condition iii) i.e., A = 2B for further solving
Let us assume A as 20 and B as 10.
A = 2B
A = 2 × 10 = 20
Let us place the values of A and B in the 1st equation,

i) A + B = C + D
20 + 10 = C + D
30 = C + D
C = 30 – D
Now let us place the values of A and B in the 2nd equation, we get

ii) B + D > A + C
10 + D > 20 + C
D > 10 + C [i.e., D > C]
We know that [C = 30 – D], so replace the value of C in the equation [D > 10 + C]
D > 10 + C
D > 10 + 30 – D
2D > 40
D > 20

After solving, we find out that D consists of a value more than 20.
We already know that A = 20 and B = 10.
So, D > A > B and D > CTherefore, we finally get the condition as D > A > B > C.
Hence, “D > A > B > C” is true.

QUESTION: 37

Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.

There are 4 persons A, B, C and D.
i) The total amount of money with A and B together is equal to the total amount of money with C and D together.
ii) The amount of money with B and D together is more than the amount of money with A and C together.
iii) The amount of money with A is twice than that of B.
iv) B has Rs 10 with him.

Q. Which of the following persons has the second highest amount of money?

Solution:

From the above conditions we get the equations as follows,
i) A + B = C + D
ii) B + D > A + C
iii) A = 2B
iv) B = 10

Now we use the condition iii) i.e., A = 2B for further solving
Let us assume A as 20 and B as 10.
A = 2B
A = 2 × 10 = 20

Let us place the values of A and B in the 1st equation,
i) A + B = C + D
20 + 10 = C + D
30 = C + D
C = 30 – D

Now let us place the values of A and B in the 2nd equation, we get

ii) B + D > A + C
10 + D > 20 + C
D > 10 + C [i.e., D > C]

We know that [C = 30 – D], so replace the value of C in the equation [D > 10 + C]
D > 10 + C
D > 10 + 30 – D
2D > 40
D > 20

After solving, we find out that D consists of a value more than 20.
We already know that A = 20 and B = 10.
So, D > A > B and D > C
Therefore, we finally get the condition as D > A > B > C.
Hence, A has the second highest amount of money.

QUESTION: 38

Direction: Arrange the given words in the order in which they will be arranged in a dictionary and choose the one that comes Third.

i) Depot
ii) Dense
iii) Demure
iv) Denial
v) Depart

Solution:

On arranging given word as per dictionary order,
iii) Demure
iv) Denial
ii) Dense
v) Depart
i) Depot
Hence, “Dense” is comes third according to the dictionary.

QUESTION: 39

If you will arrange the following options, it will give you a meaningful word. Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution:

On arranging the given alternatives, we get:
1) OGIIDN → INDIGO
2) TEIOLV → VIOLET
3) EEGIB → BEIGE
4) EARGNO → ORANGE
Out of the seven colours Indigo, Violet and Orange are three colours of the rainbow whereas Beige is not the colour of the rainbow.
Hence, 'EEGIB' is the odd one.

QUESTION: 40

From the given alternatives, find the word which can be formed from the letters used in the given word.

EXUBERANT

Solution:

1) EXCAVATE - the letter C is not present in EXCAVATE, so can’t be formed.
2) ABHORRENT - the letter O is not present in EXCAVATE, so can’t be formed.
3) EXULTANT - the letter L is not present in EXCAVATE, so can’t be formed.
4) BERATE - can be formed.
Hence, the word BERATE can be formed from the letters used in EXUBERANT.

QUESTION: 41

In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:
Some seasons are summer.
No month is season.
Some years are leap.

Conclusions:
I. No leap is year.
II. Some months are summer.
III. Some summer are not months.

Solution:

Conclusions:
I. No leap is year → False (As Some years are leap)

II. Some months are summer → False (As Some season are summer and No month is season → It can be true but it is not definite)

III. Some summers are not month → true (As Some season are summer and No month is season)


Hence, only conclusion III follows.

QUESTION: 42

In each of the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:
I. All cups are vegetable.
II. All vegetable are pens.

Conclusions:
I. Some pens are vegetable.
II. Some pens are cups.

Solution:

The least possible venn diagram for the given statements will be as follows,

Conclusions:
I. Some pens are vegetable → follows.
II. Some pens are cups → follows.
Hence, both conclusions follow.

QUESTION: 43

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sing of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

Solution:


Hence, the answer is 32.

QUESTION: 44

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace ‘∗’ signs and to balance the given equation.

60 * 36 * 12 * 180

Solution:

Let us check each option,
1) 60 = 36 ÷ 12 × 180 → 60 ≠ 540 → False
2) 60 × 36 ÷ 12 = 180 → 180 = 180 → True
3) 60 ÷ 36 × 12 = 180 → 20 ≠ 180 → False
4) 60 × 36 = 12 + 180 → 2160 ≠ 192 → False
Hence, ‘×, ÷, =’ is correct sequence.

QUESTION: 45

The given Problem Figure is embedded in one of the given Answer Figures. Which is that Answer Figure?

Problem Figure

Solution:

The question figure is embedded in following figure: -


Hence, figure B is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 46

In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is / are definitely True and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement:
K = S ≥ M < T ≥ W > U = N

Conclusions:
I. K ≥ M
II. T > N
III. M < W
IV. S < T

Solution:

Given statement: K = S ≥ M < T ≥ W > U = N

Conclusions:
I. K ≥ M → True (as K = S ≥ M → K ≥ M)
II. T > N →True (as T ≥ W > U = N → T > N)
III. M < W → False (as clear relationship between M and W cannot be determined)
IV. S < T → False (as clear relationship between S and T cannot be determined)
Hence, both conclusions I and II are true.

QUESTION: 47

From amongst the figures marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in figure (X).

Solution:

In figure (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the star only, the other dot lies in the region common to the pentagon and circle all the geometrical shapes and the third dot lies only region of circle. Only figure (C) consists of above types of regions.
Hence, figure (C) is the correct one.

QUESTION: 48

From the given options, choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper?


Solution:

In the given figure, opposite faces are:

So, cubes 1, 2 and 4 cannot be formed when sheet of paper is folded.
Hence, answer is ‘Only 3’.

QUESTION: 49

How many minimum straight lines are required to make given figure?

Solution:

Total minimum straight lines = AB, CD, EF, GH, EI, FJ, GE, HF, GF, HE
Hence, answer is 10 minimum straight lines are required.

QUESTION: 50

Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?

Solution:


Hence, answer is option ‘2’.

QUESTION: 51

Rs. 750 invested for 3 months gave an interest of Rs. 18. What was the simple rate of interest per annum?

Solution:

P = 750
N = 1/4 year
Interest = PRN/100
⇒ 18 = (750 × R × 1/4) /100
⇒ 18 = 1.875 R
∴ R = 9.6%

QUESTION: 52

The surface area of three faces of a cuboid sharing a vertex are 20 m2, 32 m2 and 40 m2. What is the volume of the cuboid?

Solution:

The surface area of three faces of a cuboid sharing a vertex are 20 m2, 32 m2 and 40 m2,
⇒ L × B = 20 sq. Mt
⇒ B × H = 32 sq. Mt
⇒ L × H = 40 sq. Mt
⇒ L × B × B × H × L × H = 20 × 32 × 40
⇒ L2B2H2 = 25600
⇒ LBH = 160
∴ Volume = 160 m3

QUESTION: 53

If 3x2 + ax + 4 is perfectly divisible by x – 5, then the value of a is:

Solution:

3x2 + ax + 4 is perfectly divisible by x – 5,
⇒ 3 × 25 + 5a + 4 = 0
⇒ 5a = -79
∴ a = -15.8

QUESTION: 54

Two pipes, when working one at a time, can fill a cistern in 3 hours and 4 hours, respectively while a third pipe can drain the cistern empty in 8 hours. All the three pipes were opened together when the cistern was 1/12 full. How long did it take for the cistern to be completely full?

Solution:

Let the total amount of work in filling a cistern be 24 units. (LCM of 3, 4 and 8)

⇒ Work done by pipe 1 in 1 hour = 24/3 = 8 units.

⇒ Work done by pipe 2 in 1 hour = 24/4 = 6 units.

⇒ Work done by pipe 3 in 1 hour = 24/ (-8) = -3 units

⇒ Total work done in 1 hour = 8 + 6 – 3 = 11 units

∴ Time required to complete 11/12th of the work = 11/12 × 24/ 11 = 2 hours

QUESTION: 55

If cosec2A + cot2A = 31, find sinA where 0 < A < 90.

Solution:

cosec2A + cot2A = 31 (Given)     ---- (1)
cosec2A – cot2A = 1 (Identity)     ---- (2)
Adding equation (1) and (2) we get
2 cosec2A = 32
⇒ cosec2A = 16
⇒ sinA = 1/4

QUESTION: 56

What should come at the place of ‘?’ in the following question.

(45% of 360 + 25% of 1276) + 8% of 3100 = 64% of 1200 – 13 × ?

Solution:

Given,
⇒ (45% of 360 + 25% of 1276) + 8% of 3100 = 64% of 1200 – 13 × ?
⇒ (45/100 × 360 + 25/100 × 1276) + 8/100 × 3100 = 64/100 × 1200 – 13 × ?
⇒ (162 + 319) + 8 × 31 = 64 × 12 – 13 × ?
⇒ 481 + 8 × 31 = 64 × 12 – 13 × ?
⇒ 481 + 248 = 768 – 13 × ?
⇒ 729 = 768 – 13 × ?
⇒ 13 × ? = 39
⇒ ? = 39/13 = 3

QUESTION: 57

If A + B = 11 and (A – B)2 = 49 then find the value of expression {(A + B)3 – A3)(A2 + B2)} / (A4 – B4).

Solution:

Given,
⇒ A + B = 11
⇒ (A – B)= 49
⇒ A – B = 7

On solving, we get
⇒ A = 9 and B = 2
Given,
⇒ ? = {(A + B)3 – A3)(A2 + B2)} / (A4 – B4)
⇒ ? = {(A3 + 3A2B + 3AB2 + B3 – A3)(A2 + B2)} / (A4 – B4)
⇒ ? = {(3A2B + 3AB2 + B3)(A2 + B2)} / {(A2 – B2)(A2 + B2)}
⇒ ? = {(3A2B + 3AB2 + B3)} / (A2 – B2)

Put values of A and B, we get
⇒ ? = (3 × 81 × 2 + 3 × 9 × 4 + 8) / (81 – 4)
⇒ ? = 602/77
⇒ ? = 86/11

QUESTION: 58

Direction: The table given below shows the marks obtained by four students in 5 different subjects. The marks are given out of 100. Read the table carefully and answer the following questions.

Q. What is the difference in average marks scored by A and B together to the average marks scored by C and D together?

Solution:

Total marks scored by A = 427
⇒ Average marks of A = 85.4
Total marks scored by B = 433
⇒ Average marks of B = 86.6
⇒ Average marks of A and B together = 86
Total marks scored by C = 441
⇒ Average marks of C = 88.2
Total marks scored by D = 413
⇒ Average marks of D = 82.6
⇒ Average marks of C and D together = 85.4
∴ Required difference = 86 – 85.4 = 0.6

QUESTION: 59

Direction: The table given below shows the marks obtained by four students in 5 different subjects. The marks are given out of 100. Read the table carefully and answer the following questions.

Q. Marks scored by all the students in Science is what percent of marks scored by all the students in Eco?

Solution:

Total marks scored by all the students in Science = 330
Total marks scored by all the students in Eco = 338
∴ Required percentage = 330/338 × 100 = 97.63%

QUESTION: 60

Direction: The table given below shows the marks obtained by four students in 5 different subjects. The marks are given out of 100. Read the table carefully and answer the following questions.

Q. In which subject the total marks of all the students is minimum?

Solution:

Total marks of all the students in Science = 330
Total marks of all the students in Geography = 354
Total marks of all the students in Maths = 352
Total marks of all the students in Eco = 338
Total marks of all the students in English = 340
∴ In Science the total marks of all the students is minimum.

QUESTION: 61

Direction: The table given below shows the marks obtained by four students in 5 different subjects. The marks are given out of 100. Read the table carefully and answer the following questions.

Q. What is the ratio of average marks per student in Maths to the average marks per student in Geography?

Solution:

Total marks secured by all the students in Maths = 352
⇒ Average marks per student in Maths = 88
Total marks secured by all the students in Geography = 354
⇒ Average marks per student in Maths = 88.5
∴ Required ratio = 88 ∶ 88.5 = 176 ∶ 177

QUESTION: 62

The area of quadrilateral whose diagonal is 12 cm and the lengths of perpendiculars draws from opposite vertices are 5 cm and 3.5 cm respectively is

Solution:

Given,
The diagonal divides the quadrilateral into two triangles.

Area of quadrilateral = area of 1st triangle + area of 2nd triangle
= 1/2 × 12 × 5 + 1/2 × 12 × 3.5
= 30 + 21 = 51 sq. cm

QUESTION: 63

A person bought a cycle and sold it at a loss of 10%. If he had bought it for 20% less and sold it for Rs. 55 more, he would have had a profit of 40%. Find the profit percentage if he sold the cycle at Rs. 320.

Solution:

Suppose the cost price is Rs. x, then the selling price = 0.9x

If he had bought it for 20% less and sold it for Rs. 55 more, he would have had a profit of 40%
⇒ 0.8x × 1.4 = 0.9x + 55
⇒ 0.22x = 55
⇒ x = 250

∴ Profit percentage if he sold the cycle at Rs. 320 = [320 - 250] /250 = 28%

QUESTION: 64

In the given figure, AB is a diameter of the circle with centre O and XY is the tangent at a point C. If ∠ACX = 35°, then what is the value (in degrees) of ∠CAB?

Solution:

∠XAC is the exterior angle and will be equal to angle subtended by chord AC on the periphery
⇒ ∠CBA = ∠ACX = 35°
Now in triangle ABC
∠ACB would be 90°(Angle subtended by diameter on circumference)
∴ ∠CAB = 90 – 35 = 55°

QUESTION: 65

1224 is what percent of 4800?

Solution:

⇒ 1224 is x% of 4800
⇒ 1224 = x% × 4800

QUESTION: 66

Speed of a boat is 6 km/hr is still water and the speed of the stream is 1 km/hr. If the boat takes 12 hours to go to a place and come back, then what is the distance (in km) of the place?

Solution:

Given,
Speed of boat = u = 6 km/hr
Speed of stream = v = 1 km/hr
Speed of boat in downstream = (u + v) = 7 km/hr
Speed of boat in upstream = (u - v) = 5 km/hr
If the boat takes 12 hours to go to a place and come back,
The equation is

QUESTION: 67

A man travelled a distance of 80 km in 7 hrs, partly on foot at the rate of 8 km/hr and partly on bicycle at 16 km/hr. What is the distance travelled on the foot??

Solution:

Speed = Distance/Time
Total distance travelled = 80 km
Let the time taken on foot be x hrs
Distance travelled on foot = Speed × Time = 8x
Let the time taken on bicycle be (7 - x) hrs
Distance travelled on foot = Speed × Time = 16 × (7 - x)
Total distance travelled = 16 × (7 - x) + 8x
16 × (7 - x) + 8x = 80
112 - 8x = 80 ⇒ x = 4
Distance travelled on foot = 8x = 8 × 4 = 32 km

QUESTION: 68

The average of 21 numbers is 20. IF a number 40 is removed, then what will be the new average?

Solution:

Average of 21 numbers = 20
∴ total of 21 numbers = 21 × 20 = 420
After removing a number total of 20 numbers,
⇒ 420 - 40 = 380
∴ New average,
⇒ 380/20 = 19

QUESTION: 69

What is the x – intercept of the linear equation 18x + 25y – 900 = 0?

Solution:

x – intercept is the point at which the line crosses the x – axis, i.e. y = 0
Putting y = 0 in the equation,
⇒ 18x + 25(0) – 900 = 0
⇒ 18x = 900
⇒ x = 900/18 = 50
∴ x – intercept is 50

QUESTION: 70

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower at any point on the ground is 30° and moving 20 meters towards the tower it becomes 60°. The height of the tower is

Solution:


From the triangle

QUESTION: 71

What is the third proportional to 9 and 15?

Solution:

Third proportional means number c in a : b = b : c
⇒ Third proportional to 9 and 15 is 9 : 15 = 15 : c
⇒ c = 25
∴ Third proportional to 9 and 15 = 25

QUESTION: 72

If PA is the median of the equilateral triangle PQR and G be the centroid, then what is the ratio of (PG + GA) ∶ (PG - GA)?

Solution:

Since given triangle is equilateral
So, the ratio of centroid on median 2 : 1 or PG : GA = 2 : 1
(PG + GA) : (PG - GA) = 2 + 1/2 - 1 = 3 : 1

QUESTION: 73

A bottle contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1. When 2 litres of mixture is poured out, and the bottle is filled with 4.5 litres of milk, the ratio of milk and water becomes 4 : 1. How much mixture was there initially?

Solution:

Let the amount of milk be 3x and water be x
In one litre of the mixture, there is 3/4 litre of milk.
In one litre of the mixture, there is 1/4 litre of water.
Quantity of milk left in the mixture = 3x – 3/4 × 2
Quantity of water left in the mixture = x – 1/4 × 2

⇒ x = 5
∴ Total amount of mixture = 3x + x = 4x = 4 × 5 = 20 litres

QUESTION: 74

If N = 1529 × 1531 × 1533 then what is the remainder when N is divided by 13?

Solution:

We know that 1521 is divisible by 13.
Now, 1529 × 1531 × 1533 = (1521 + 8) (1521 + 10) (1521 + 12)

The required remainder is the remainder obtained when 8 × 10 × 12 i.e. 960 is divided by 13.
The remainder obtained when 960 divided by 13 is 11.
∴ Remainder = 11

QUESTION: 75

The HCF of 3/7, 5/14 and 17/28 is:

Solution:

HCF of 3/7, 5/14 and 17/28
= HCF of (3, 5, 17) / LCM of (7, 14, 28)
= 1/28

QUESTION: 76

To hear a distinct echo the time interval between the original sound and the reflected sound must be at least ________.

Solution:
  • Echo: It is the repetition of the original sound because of reflection by some surface.
  • Our brain retains a sound for 0.1 s. Thus, for us to be able to hear a distinct echo, the sound should take more than 0.1 s after starting from the source to get reflected and come back to us.
QUESTION: 77

The quantum theory of light was given by ________.

Solution:
  • The quantum theory of light was given by Plank.
  • The quantum theory of light states that all objects emit energy in the form of electromagnetic waves.
  • These waves are generated by the oscillations of charge found in the atom and molecules.
  • Max Karl Ernst Ludwig Planck's quantum theory of light states that the energy associated with atomic and molecular oscillation is qualified.
QUESTION: 78

Which among these glasses turns black in sharp light?

Solution:
  • Photochromatic glass turns black in sharp light.
  • They turn black due to the presence of silver chloride.
  • They are also known as light-adaptive glasses or variable tint glasses.
  • They are used as a light protector and eyes reliever.
  • Soda-lime glass is used for glass containers and windowpanes.
  • Quartz glass is also known as Silica glass as it is obtained by melting Silica and ultraviolet rays emerge out through it.
  • Lead crystal glass is used for making ornamental items.
QUESTION: 79

What is the formula of Methyl Isocyanate which was leaked in Bhopal gas tragedy?

Solution:
  • The chemical formula of Methyl Isocyanate is CH3NCO. 
  • Methyl Isocyanate was leaked during the Bhopal Gas Tragedy on the night of 2–3 December 1984 at the Union Carbide India pesticide plant in Bhopal.
  • Methyl Isocyanate is used in the production of rubbers and adhesives.
  • It is a colourless, poisonous, irritating material and is extremely hazardous to human health.
QUESTION: 80

Study of lizards is called ________.

Solution:
  • The study of lizards is known as Saurology.
  • The branch of botany that deals with the study of fruits is called Pomology.
  • An anthology is a term used in book publishing to describe a collection of literary works like stories, poems, songs, plays, etc, that have been selected by the compiler.
  • The study of soil is known as Pedology.
QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements regarding Keratin. 
I. It is a fibrous protein that helps in protection from external damages. 
II. It is responsible for the formation of fingernails in the human body. 
III. Keratin is produced by the keratinocytes. 

Q. Which among the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Keratin is produced by keratinocytes, the majority of cells in the epidermis layer of the human skin. 
  • It is a fibrous protein that protects the skin from various external damages. 
  • It also stiffens the epidermal tissues in order to form the fingernails. 
  • Keratin is a waterproofing protein and is present in majority of the skin of the human body. 
QUESTION: 82

Match the items given in column (A) with those in column (B).

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following is/are CORRECT?
I. GUI – Graphical User Interface
II. VDU – Visual Display Unit
III. ALU – All Logical Unit

Solution:

The full forms are;
ALU – Arithmetic Logic Unit
GUI – Graphical User Interface
VDU – Visual Display Unit

QUESTION: 84

Which kind of justice has not been said in the Preamble of Indian Constitution?

Solution:

A democratic polity, as stipulated in the Preamble, is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, that is, possession of supreme power by the people. As the power is in the public’s hand hence, democratic kind of justice has not been said in the Preamble of Indian Constitution.

QUESTION: 85

When was the National Commission for Backward Classes established?

Solution:
  • The National Commission for Backward Classes was established on 14th August 1993.
  • It is a constitutional body(102nd amendment in the constitution to make it a constitutional body).
  • The National Commission for Backward Classes comes under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
QUESTION: 86

Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution deal with ________.

Solution:
  • The articles 23 and 24 of the constitution of India deals with the Right against Exploitation.
  • Article 23 states the prohibition of human trafficking and forced labor whereas article 24 states the prohibition of employment of children below the age of fourteen years in factories, mines, shops etc.
QUESTION: 87

Gandhi used the phrase ‘Post-dated cheque’ for which of the following?

Solution:

The Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II.

QUESTION: 88

Who amongst the following was known as ‘Punjab Kesari’?

Solution:

Lalajiwas Punjabi politician who is remembered as a leader in the Indian Independence movement. He was popularly known as Punjab Kesari and was part of the Lal Bal Pal trio.

QUESTION: 89

The famed painting of ‘Bharatmata’ which proved to be instrumental in freedom struggle was built by

Solution:

Bharat Mata, Abanindranath Tagore’s work dating back to 1905 depicts a saffron clad woman, dressed like a sadhvi, holding a book, sheaves of paddy, a piece of white cloth and a garland in her four hands.

QUESTION: 90

‘Swachh Bharat Mission’ aims to achieve an Open Defecation Free (ODF) India by which date?

Solution:
  • The “Swachh Bharat Mission ” is a campaign by the Government which aims to achieveopen defecation free(ODF) India by 2nd October 2019,the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • It was launched on 2nd October 2014.
  • Itinvolves cleaning of streets, roads,and construction of 90 million toilets in rural India at a projected cost of ₹1.96 lakh crore
QUESTION: 91

The Inland Waterways Authority of India launched a new portal named 'LADIS' on 15 February 2019. What does 'A' stand for in LADIS?

Solution:
  • The Inland Waterways Authority of India launched a new portal named 'Least Available Depth Information System' (LADIS) on 15 February 2019.
  • LADIS will ensure that real-time data on least available depths is disseminated for ship/barge and cargo owners.
  • This will help in better planning for the movement of ships.
  • It will be available for NW-1, NW-2, Indo-Bangladesh Protocol route, and NW-3.
QUESTION: 92

Which of the following is the capital of Bulgaria?

Solution:

QUESTION: 93

What is the full form of GNP?

Solution:
  • Gross National Product (GNP) simply refers to the GDP of a country plus the income from abroad in that year.
  • Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total value of all the goods and services that have been produced in a given year within a country.
QUESTION: 94

An area which supports the economy and export trade of a sea port is called its __________.

Solution:
  • An area which supports the economy and export trade of a seaport is called its Hinterland.
  • Hinterland is an area lying behind a port from which the products are delivered to a seaport for shipping them to some other place.
QUESTION: 95

Where is the White Desert of India situated?

Solution:
  • The White Desert of India is situated in Kutch, Gujarat.
  • It is the largest salt desert in the world.
  • Jodhpur city of Rajasthan is known as the "blue city".
  • Bikaner city of Rajasthan is known as the "camel country".
  • Jaisalmer city of Rajasthan is known as the "golden city".
  • The Great Indian Desert, also known as the Thar desert is located partly in Rajasthan state, northwestern India, and partly in Punjab and Sindh (Sind) provinces, eastern Pakistan. 
QUESTION: 96

Who won the Stuttgart’s Porsche Grand Prix title 2019?

Solution:
  • World number three tennis player Petra Kvitova (Czech Republic) beat Anett Kontaveit (Estonia) to win Stuttgart’s Porsche Grand Prix for her second title of the year.
  • Kvitova is a two-time Wimbledon champion.
  • The championship was held at Stuttgart, Germany.
QUESTION: 97

In which of these stadiums will be the first match of IPL 2019 played?

Solution:
  • Military bands will perform at the M. A. Chidambaram Stadium ahead of the opening fixture of the Indian Premier League (IPL).
  • BCCI will also contribute Rs. 20 crore for the welfare of the armed forces in the wake of the Pulwama terror attack, 
  • Indian players had also paid their respects by sporting Army camouflage caps in the third ODI in Ranchi.
QUESTION: 98

What is the theme of the World Kidney Day 2019?

Solution:
  • World Kidney Day (WKD) is observed annually on the second Thursday in March.
  • It is celebrated to create awareness on the importance of the kidneys and reducing the frequency and impact of kidney disease.
  • The theme of WKD 2019 is 'Kidney Health for Everyone Everywhere', which calls for universal health coverage for prevention and early treatment of kidney disease.
QUESTION: 99

A Delhi Police officer has been awarded 'Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant Award' in April 2019 for his book ________.

Solution:
  • A Delhi Police officer has been awarded 'Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant Award' for his book 'Samvidhan Kavya'.
  • Bureau of Police Research and Development gave the award to Special Commissioner of Police (Operations) Sunil Kumar Gautam for 2018-19.
  • The book presents the provisions of the Constitution in a simple and poetic form.
QUESTION: 100

Where will a World Heritage Centre be set up, housing spiritual camps of 45 countries?

Solution:
  • A World Heritage Centre will be set up in Mayapur, housing spiritual camps of 45 countries.
  • Mayapur is the global headquarters of ISKCON, in Nadia district of West Bengal.
  • The camp of each country will reflect its lifestyle, culture, dress, ambiance, and food.
  • The estimated cost of the centre is around 3000 crore.

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