SSC CHSL Mock Test -12


100 Questions MCQ Test SSC CHSL Mock Test Series | SSC CHSL Mock Test -12


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This mock test of SSC CHSL Mock Test -12 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC CHSL Mock Test -12 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC CHSL Mock Test -12 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC CHSL Mock Test -12 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC CHSL Mock Test -12 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. If there is no error choose option 4 ‘No error’ as the answer.

Q. In 2018, the two countries (1)/ had pledged to further deepen ties (2)/ and share a common ground on the trade war.(3)/ No error (4)

Solution:

The error lies in part 2 of the sentence as the past perfect tense 'had pledged' is incorrect here and must be replaced with the verb in simple past tense 'pledged'. Past perfect tense is used to denote an activity after which something took place. Eg: She had slept off when I reached home. Simple past tense is used to refer to an activity which took place in the past. It should read as:' In 2018, the two countries pledged to further deepen ties...'

QUESTION: 2

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. If there is no error choose option 4 ‘No error’ as the answer.

Q. I was shocked (1)/ to see that the children (2)/ had used up all the coffee.(3)/ No error (4)

Solution:

The sentence has no error and has been structured correctly. Option 4 is thus the correct answer. The phrasal verb 'use up' means 'to utilize.'

QUESTION: 3

Fill in the blanks.

Q. There were numerous discrepancies in the norms ________ by Revenue officials in the field survey and analysis.

Solution:

The sentence suggests that the blank should contain a verb as it is used with the preposition 'by'.
So, both options 1 and 2 are viable answers.

Looking at the context, the blank should mean 'taken or accepted'.
To adapt- to modify
To adopt- to take as one's own

The norms would have to be adapted 'from' something or adapted 'to' something else. This meaning is not suggested by the sentence.
The only word that gives the intended meaning is 'adopted'.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 4

Fill in the blanks.

Q. _______ this was prohibited, the practice continues and urged officials to take steps to disconnect the power supply to the violators.

Solution:

There are two different sentences, suggesting that the blank should contain conjunction to join them.

Looking at the context, it is clear that the conjunction should mean 'despite' or 'although'. (As one sentence is negatively dependent on another)

The only word that gives this meaning is 'though'.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 5

Tarun exclaimed that the food was great.

Solution:

In the direct speech, the quotes must be used and the tense needs to be changed as well. The sentence mentions the word 'the' and not 'that' thus 'this' would be incorrect here. The correct tense here is simple present as the tense in indirect speech is simple past. Option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 6

A sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Q. Terry was picked on by the other children due to his race and size.

Solution:

The original sentence is in passive voice and so the answer has to be active voice, thus the pattern would be –

Subject (Other children)+ Verb (pick)+ Object (Terry)

Option ‘a’ is eliminated as it changes the position of the subject with the object and vice versa. Option b eliminates one of the factors for which Terry was picked on – ‘his size’ – and thus is incomplete and cannot be the answer. Option c is in the present tense while the original sentence is in the past tense and so the answer too should be in the past tense and so option c too is wrong.
Thus, option d is the correct option.        

QUESTION: 7

The panic-stricken Pakistani Prime Minister wrote to the president of the United States of America for political assistance and peculiarity aid.

Solution:

The correct answer is 'pecuniary aid'. 'Pecuniary' means 'relating to money'.

The meaning of other options:
Peculiar- different to what is normal or expected; strange.

Perennial- lasting or existing for a long or apparently infinite time; enduring or continually recurring.

Provisionary- arranged or existing for the present; provisional.
Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.  

QUESTION: 8

Below are some alternatives which may be used to improve the sentence by replacing the word in underline. You may choose options 1,2, 3 or 4.

Q. My friends disapproved me from attending my ex-girlfriend's marriage.

Solution:

With approval and disapproval, we can't use 'from'. So the given sentence is definitely wrong although it gives us an idea what the sentence seeks to convey. The correct word here is 'dissuade'. It means to discourage someone.
Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.   

QUESTION: 9

Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers. A suitable publisher should be chosen, by a study of his list of publications or an examination in the bookshops of the type of books in which he specializes. It is a waste of time and money to send the typescript of a novel to a publisher who publishes no fiction, or poetry to one who publishes no verse, though all too often this is done.

A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it (writers have been known to send out such letters of inquiry in duplicated form, an approach not calculated to stimulate a publisher’s interest).

It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript and finally it must be understood that although every reasonable care is taken of material in the Publishers’ possession, responsibility cannot be accepted for any loss or damage thereto.

Authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication of their work. If an MS is worth publishing, a reputable publisher will undertake its publication at his own expense, except possibly for works of an academic nature. In this connection, attention is called to the paragraphs on Self-publishing and vanity publishing, at the end of this section.

Q. Should care be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers?

Solution:

Option 1. As it is mentioned in the passage that a suitable publisher should be chosen otherwise it is a waste of time and money. The answer is in the first paragraph of the passage: Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers.

QUESTION: 10

Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers. A suitable publisher should be chosen, by a study of his list of publications or an examination in the bookshops of the type of books in which he specializes. It is a waste of time and money to send the typescript of a novel to a publisher who publishes no fiction, or poetry to one who publishes no verse, though all too often this is done.

A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it (writers have been known to send out such letters of inquiry in duplicated form, an approach not calculated to stimulate a publisher’s interest).

It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript and finally it must be understood that although every reasonable care is taken of material in the Publishers’ possession, responsibility cannot be accepted for any loss or damage thereto.

Authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication of their work. If an MS is worth publishing, a reputable publisher will undertake its publication at his own expense, except possibly for works of an academic nature. In this connection, attention is called to the paragraphs on Self-publishing and vanity publishing, at the end of this section.

Q. According to the writer:

Solution:

Option 2. As it is mentioned in the passage that care should be taken when submitting manuscripts also it is mentioned authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication. So option 1 is wrong.
The answer is in the first paragraph of the passage: Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers.

QUESTION: 11

Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers. A suitable publisher should be chosen, by a study of his list of publications or an examination in the bookshops of the type of books in which he specializes. It is a waste of time and money to send the typescript of a novel to a publisher who publishes no fiction, or poetry to one who publishes no verse, though all too often this is done.

A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it (writers have been known to send out such letters of inquiry in duplicated form, an approach not calculated to stimulate a publisher’s interest).

It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript and finally it must be understood that although every reasonable care is taken of material in the Publishers’ possession, responsibility cannot be accepted for any loss or damage thereto.

Authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication of their work. If an MS is worth publishing, a reputable publisher will undertake its publication at his own expense, except possibly for works of an academic nature. In this connection, attention is called to the paragraphs on Self-publishing and vanity publishing, at the end of this section.

Q. As per the passage:

Solution:

Option 4. As the statements mentioned in the passage are against the one mentioned in the options. The answer is in the second and the third paragraph of the passage, in the lines: 'A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it...' and 'It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript...'.

QUESTION: 12

Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers. A suitable publisher should be chosen, by a study of his list of publications or an examination in the bookshops of the type of books in which he specializes. It is a waste of time and money to send the typescript of a novel to a publisher who publishes no fiction, or poetry to one who publishes no verse, though all too often this is done.

A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it (writers have been known to send out such letters of inquiry in duplicated form, an approach not calculated to stimulate a publisher’s interest).

It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript and finally it must be understood that although every reasonable care is taken of material in the Publishers’ possession, responsibility cannot be accepted for any loss or damage thereto.

Authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication of their work. If an MS is worth publishing, a reputable publisher will undertake its publication at his own expense, except possibly for works of an academic nature. In this connection, attention is called to the paragraphs on Self-publishing and vanity publishing, at the end of this section.

Q. What should be the title of the passage?

Solution:

Option 1. As precautions to be taken by authors most aptly describes the content of the passage, it should be the most suitable title for the passage so option 1 is correct.

QUESTION: 13

Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers. A suitable publisher should be chosen, by a study of his list of publications or an examination in the bookshops of the type of books in which he specializes. It is a waste of time and money to send the typescript of a novel to a publisher who publishes no fiction, or poetry to one who publishes no verse, though all too often this is done.

A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it (writers have been known to send out such letters of inquiry in duplicated form, an approach not calculated to stimulate a publisher’s interest).

It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript and finally it must be understood that although every reasonable care is taken of material in the Publishers’ possession, responsibility cannot be accepted for any loss or damage thereto.

Authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication of their work. If an MS is worth publishing, a reputable publisher will undertake its publication at his own expense, except possibly for works of an academic nature. In this connection, attention is called to the paragraphs on Self-publishing and vanity publishing, at the end of this section.

Q. Out of the given options, choose the one/s most similar in meaning to the given word.

Manuscript

Solution:

Option 4.

Document means a piece of written, printed, or electronic matter that provides information or evidence or that serves as an official record.

Text means a book or other written or printed work, regarded in terms of its content rather than its physical form.

Typescript means a typed copy of a text.

QUESTION: 14

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

Incorrigible

Solution:

Correct Option - 1

Firstly, let's find the meaning of the given word incorrigible :- not able to be changed or reformed, incurable.

Now, let us see the meanings of the following words :-

Habitual - done constantly or as a habit.
Incisive - intelligently analytical and clear-thinking.
Furtive - secretive, sly.
Oblivious - lacking consciousness or awareness of something.

The word 'incorrigible' is often used to describe a person whose former habits cannot be changed. Here, option 1, i.e. habitual is the most similar in meaning to the given word. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer. 

QUESTION: 15

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

Meticulous

Solution:

Correct Option - 3
Firstly, let's find the meaning of the given word meticulous :- very careful and precise.

Now, let us see the meanings of the following words :-

Intrepid - fearless, adventurous.
Ignorant - lacking knowledge or awareness.

Scrupulous - careful, thorough and extremely attentive to detail.
Notorious - infamous or ill repute.

Here, option 3, i.e. scrupulous is the most similar in meaning to the given word. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 16

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Expounded

Solution:

Let's find the meaning of the given word Expounded: present and explain (a theory or idea) in detail.
Now, check the meanings of following words:

Explicate: analyze and develop (an idea or principle) in detail.

Stifle: restrain (a reaction) or stop oneself acting on (an emotion).

Annotate: give an explanation.
Illustrate: give an explanation with examples.

Here, word stifle is the most opposite word for the given word. Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 17

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Querulous

Solution:

Let's find the meaning of given word Querulous: complaining in a rather petulant or whining manner or bad-tempered.
Now, check the meanings of following words:

Miserable: unhappy or uncomfortable.
Grumpy: bad-tempered and sulky.

Cheerful: noticeably happy and optimistic.

Cantankerous: bad-tempered, argumentative, and uncooperative.

Here, word cheerful is the most opposite word for given word. Hence, option 3 is the correct option.

QUESTION: 18

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Q. I really wish that I could babysit for you tonight, but I'm afraid my hands are full at the moment.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2, i.e., 'very busy'.

The sentence suggests that someone really wished that they could babysit for someone else that night, but couldn't do it because they were very busy at the moment.

The idiom 'hands are full' is used to indicate that someone is too busy or has too much going on to be able to do or become involved with anything else.

The only option that carries a similar meaning is option 2, making it the correct answer.

QUESTION: 19

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Q. If you see a bad habit begin to develop, try to nip it in the bud so that it does not become ingrained. 

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., 'to stop it at an early stage'.

The sentence suggests that if you see a bad habit begin to develop, try to make it fail before it could even mature so that it does not become ingrained.

The idiom 'nip it in the bud' means to stop something at an early stage. Just like removing the bud from a plant would prevent the flower to bloom, similarly, by removing something at an early stage it would not get mature.

The only option that suggests a similar meaning is option 1, making it the correct answer.

QUESTION: 20

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelled. Find the incorrectly spelled word.

Solution:

The correct option is 2, i.e., vestibuel
Let’s find out the meaning of the given words –

Understanding – the act of comprehending or making sense of something

Vestibule - a chamber or area that is usually near the outer door of a building

Wonder - this is a feeling of admiration and amazement that is usually caused by something beautiful and amazing

Xenophobia - this  is a strong dislike or hate or even fear of people from other countries which may lead to discrimination

QUESTION: 21

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelled. Find the incorrectly spelled word.

Solution:

The correct option is 1, i.e., carcinogenec
Let’s find out the meaning of the given words –

Carcinogenic – some substance that has the ability to cause cancer

Delicious – am adjective usually used to describe something edible, it means that something tastes very good

Effervescent – the quality of a liquid to give off bubbles or being fizzy

Gregarious – the quality of being very sociable and being fond of company

QUESTION: 22

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Q. Beyond belief or understanding

Solution:

The correct word here is ''incredible'' which means ''Beyond belief or understanding.''

Irrevocable: not able to be changed, reversed, or recovered; final.

Irrecoverable: not able to be recovered, regained, or remedied.

Improbable: not likely to be true or to happen. 

QUESTION: 23

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Q. Incapable of being affected

Solution:

The correct word is ''impervious'' as it means ''​incapable of being affected.''

Infested: be present (in a place or site) in large numbers

Perjury: the offence of wilfully telling an untruth or making a misrepresentation under oath

Affectionate: readily feeling or showing fondness or tenderness.

QUESTION: 24

In the given question, the first and the last parts of the sentence have been numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the following sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then mark the correct answer from the options given below.

1. Supercomputers are
P. comes from the fact that
Q. they are made up of hundreds of
R. extremely powerful, gigantic
S. computers whose large size
6. thousands of processor cores.

Solution:

Whenever a part of a sentence ends with 'are', we can be sure that the next part must begin with a noun or an adjective. Only R follows this condition. There are two options that begin with R, viz, option 3 and 4. So, the next part must be checked to see the order. R only gives adjectives, which means, the next part must begin with a noun. Only S begins with a noun 'computers'. And only option 4 gives us the correct order. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4. The complete sentence will be:

Supercomputers are extremely powerful, gigantic computers whose large size comes from the fact that they are made up of hundreds of thousands of processor cores.

QUESTION: 25

In the given question, the first and the last parts of the sentence have been numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the following sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then mark the correct answer from the options given below.

1. While reading
P. are important for
Q. pronunciation and listening
R. for written communication,
S. and writing are important
6. oral communication.

Solution:

Upon checking the given sentence, we can see that it talks about both oral and written communication. When unsure about the order, each part must be checked against the first part. Only R and S may form meaningful succession. But, if we use R as the second part, the rest of the sentence ceases to be meaningful. So, S must be correct. There are two options 3 and 4, that begin with S. Both conclude that R must be the next part. But, option 4 fails to form a meaningful sentence. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3. The complete sentence will be:

While reading and writing are important for written communication, pronunciation and listening are important for oral communication.

QUESTION: 26

In the following question, select the wrong term from the given alternatives.

X6N, Q8P, K10R, B14U

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:
X - 7 = Q; Q - 6 = K; K - 5 = F
Number series followed is: 6 + 2 = 8; 8 + 2 = 10; 10 + 2 = 12
N + 2 = P; P + 2 = R; R + 2 = T
Hence, B14U is odd one out.

QUESTION: 27

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

TN : YS :: JK : ?

Solution:

The logic here is as follows,
T + 5 = Y, N + 5 = S
Similarly;
J + 5 = O, K + 5 = P
Thus JK is related to OP.

QUESTION: 28

In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Except option 3, rest of the alternatives follow a particular pattern.
Thus, the answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 29

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

13, 16, 20, 23, 27, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, 30 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 30

Find the wrong term in the following series.

D, H, K, P, T, X

Solution:

The pattern of series is:

Thus, instead of ‘K’ it should be ‘L’.

QUESTION: 31

In the following question, select the related figure from the given alternatives.

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,
Figure 1 is the brand identity (company logo) of LG.
Similarly,
In the second relation, the 1st figure is the brand identity of UBER.
Hence, UBER is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 32

In a certain language, GAMER is written as KWQAV, what would be the similar code for the word ROUGH?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, VKYCL is the correct answer

QUESTION: 33

A series is given with two terms missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

C6, O30, M26, P32, O_, _38, E10 

Solution:

The pattern followed in the series is,


So, the missing terms in the series are 30 and S.

QUESTION: 34

In a certain code language, “WEBPAGE” is written as “12@*542” and “SPACE” is written as “%*572”. How is “CAGE” written in that code language?

Solution:

WEBPAGE is coded as,

SPACE is coded as,

Thus code for CAGE will be,

Thus CAGE is coded as 7542.

QUESTION: 35

If X is R, Y is Z, W is M, N is U, D is F and P is O then what would be the code for the word WNDXYP?

Solution:


Hence, ‘WNDXYP’ is written as,

Hence, ‘MUFRZO’ is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 36

An auto-rickshaw picks a passenger and travels North 6.5 km, then it turns to its left and rides for another 1.5 km, then it turns South and rides for 2.5 km, then it turns to its left and rides 1.5 km. Where is the auto now with respect to its starting position?

Solution:

As per the given information,’

Hence, auto is 4 km north to its starting position.

QUESTION: 37

From the given alternatives, find the word which can be formed from the letters used in the given word.

UNABASHED

Solution:

1) ABACUS - the letter C is not present in UNABASHED, so it can’t be formed.

2) ASHAMED - the letter M is not present in UNABASHED, so it can’t be formed.

3) BASKED - the letter K is not present in UNABASHED, so it can’t be formed.

4) UNSHED - it can be formed.
Hence, UNSHED can be formed from the letters used in UNABASHED.

QUESTION: 38

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Males, Trees, Politicians

Solution:

Some Males can be Politicians but both of them have no relation with Trees.
So the Veen diagram will be as follows.


Hence diagram at option 4 correctly represents the relationship among the given classes.

QUESTION: 39

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix – I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘k’ can be represented by 42, 34 etc and ‘Z’ can be represented by 76, 59 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘SELF’.

Solution:

95, 23, 24, 41 = SELF
44, 43, 87, 95 = DCTS
04, 31, 85, 58 = CHON
24, 04, 66, 77 = LCQU
Clearly, the number set for the word ‘SELF’ is 95, 23, 24, 41.

QUESTION: 40

Direction: In the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement I: No cars are trucks
Statement II: All tata are cars
Conclusion I: All trucks are tata
Conclusion II: No tata are trucks

Solution:

The least possible diagram of this question is as follows,

Conclusion I: All trucks are tata → As no cars are trucks and all tata are cars, no trucks will be tata, hence false.

Conclusion II: No tata are trucks → As no cars are trucks and all tata are cars, no trucks will be tata, hence true.
Hence, only conclusion II follows.

QUESTION: 41

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Here the pattern followed is:
(1st row number + 2nd row number + 3rd row number) + 3 = 4th row number
(2 + 3 + 7) + 3 = 12 + 3 = 15.
(5 + 4 + 6) + 3 = 15 + 3 = 18.
Similarly,
(4 + 3 + 2) + 3 = 9 + 3 = 12.
Hence, 12 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 42

A shopkeeper sold a dress of Rs. 500 at 13% profit. What is the selling price of a dress?

Solution:

Cost Price = Rs. 500
Profit% = 13%
Profit = 13% of Rs. 500
= 0.13 × 500
= 65
Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit
= Rs. 500 + Rs. 65
= Rs. 565
Hence, selling price is Rs. 565.

QUESTION: 43

In the following question, arrange the given words in a meaningful order:
1. Rain
2. Vaporisation
3. Water
4. Cloud

Solution:

The meaningful order is as follows,
3) Water
2) Vaporisation
4) Cloud
1) Rain
The above given are the steps of the water cycle, first comes water which evaporates. This process is vaporisation. After that cloud is formed and then the rain comes.
Hence, 3241 is the correct order.

QUESTION: 44

From the given alternatives, according to the dictionary, which word will come at the LAST position?
1. Expiration
2. Expertise
3. Exposing
4. Exposed
5. Explosion

Solution:

According to the dictionary order,
Expertise
Expiration
Explosion
Exposed
Exposing
Hence, ‘Exposing’ will come at the LAST position.

QUESTION: 45

What should come in the given blank so as to make A > C and E > B always true?

A > B __ C < D < E

Solution:

A > B __ C < D < E

Let’s check ‘>’: A > B > C < D < E (A > C is satisfied, but E > B is not certain)

Let’s check ‘<’: A > B < C < D < E (E > B is satisfied, but A > C is not certain)

Let’s check ‘≥’: A > B ≥ C < D < E (A > C is satisfied, but E > B is not certain)

Let’s check ‘=’: A > B = C < D < E (A > C is satisfied and E > B is also satisfied)
Hence, “ = “ is the correct option.

QUESTION: 46

If 4 * 2 = 64 and 1 * 9 = 81, then 3 * 4 = ?

Solution:

The logic/pattern followed here is:
4 * 2 = (4 × 2)2 → 82 = 64;
1 * 9 = (1 × 9)2 → 92 = 81;
Similarly,
3 * 4 = (3 × 4)2 → 122 = 144;
Hence, answer is ‘144’.

QUESTION: 47

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Solution:


Hence, option 1 completes the pattern in the question figure.

QUESTION: 48

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Solution:

Option 3 cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure.

QUESTION: 49

Among the four answer figures, which one can be formed from the cut-out pieces given below in the question figure?

Solution:

Clearly, the below can be formed from the given pieces.

Hence, the answer is figure 1.

QUESTION: 50

How many squares are there in the given figure?

Solution:

Hence, the total number of squares is 23.

QUESTION: 51

The angles of elevation of the top of a temple, from the foot and the top of a building 48 m high, are 60° and 30° respectively. The height of the temple is more than the building. The height of the temple is -

Solution:

The given data can be represented diagrammatically as follows where AD is the building and BC is the temple.


In ΔABC,
tan 60o = BC/AB
⇒ √3 = (BE + EC)/AB       (∵ AD = BE = 48 m)
⇒ AB = (48 + EC)/√3        ….(1)
In ΔDEC,
tan 30o = EC/DE
⇒ 1/√3 = EC/AB                (∵ DE = AB)
⇒ AB = √3EC                      ….(2)
Equating (1) and (2). We get,
(48 + EC)/√3 = √3EC
⇒ 3EC = 48 + EC
⇒ EC = 48/2 = 24 m
∴ The height of the temple = 48 + 24 = 72 m

QUESTION: 52

How many 3 digit numbers are divisible by 7?

Solution:

3 digits numbers divisible by 7 are: 105, 112, 119, ……, 994
This is an arithmetic progression series in which first term, a = 105, difference, d = 7 and last term Tn = 994
⇒ Tn = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ 994 = 105 + (n – 1) × 7
⇒ (n – 1) × 7 = 889
⇒ n – 1 = 127
∴ n = 128 three digits numbers are divisible by 7

QUESTION: 53

If the fourth proportional of 8, x and 3 is 45, find the value of x.

Solution:

If a ∶ b = c ∶ d, then d is the fourth proportional of a, b and c
Hence, we can write,
⇒ 8 ∶ x = 3 ∶ 45
⇒ 8/x = 3/45
⇒ x = 8 × 15
∴ x = 120

QUESTION: 54

In an alloy, the ratio of tin to lead is 9 : 7. If 2 kg of lead is melted with molten 64 kg of this alloy, then the new ratio of tin to lead when the mixture hardens is

Solution:

According to the given information,
∵ the ratio of tin to lead is 9 : 7 in the alloy,
Amount of tin in 64 kg of alloy 
Amount of lead in 64 kg of alloy = 64 – 36 = 28 kg
If 2 kg of lead is added then,
New amount of lead = 28 + 2 = 30 kg
Hence the new ratio = 36/30 = 6/5 = 6 : 5

QUESTION: 55

The two sides holding the right-angle in a right-angled triangle are 3 cm and 4 cm long. The area of its circumcircle will be:

Solution:

The two sides holding the right-angle in a right-angled triangle are 3 cm and 4 cm long,
⇒ Length of hypotenuse = (32 + 42)1/2 = 5 cm
⇒ Radius of circum-circle = 5/2 = 2.5 cm
∴ Area = 22/7 × (2.5)2 = 6.25π cm2

QUESTION: 56

The length of one side of a rhombus is 41 cm and its area is 720 cm2. What is the sum of the lengths of its diagonals?

Solution:

Area of Rhombus = 1/2 × product of diagonals
⇒ 720 = 1/2 × product of diagonals
⇒ Product of diagonals = 1440
(Side of rhombus)= (half of one diagonal)2 + (half of the other diagonal)2
⇒ (One diagonal)2 + (Other diagonal)2 = 41 × 41 × 4
(Sum of two diagonal)2 = (One diagonal)2 + (other diagonal)2 + 2 × product of diagonals
⇒ (Sum of two diagonal)2 = 6724 + 2880 = 9604
∴ Sum of two diagonal = 98cm

QUESTION: 57

The coordinates of the point that divides the line segment joining the points (-5,4) and (5, - 6) internally in the ratio 4 ∶ 1 are given by:

Solution:

By Section Formula, Coordinates of the point are

QUESTION: 58

If 5/2 - (6/5)(x - 15/2) = -x/5, then what is the value of x?

Solution:

Given: 5/2 - (6/5)(x - 15/2) = -x/5
Multiplying whole equation by 10
⇒ 25 - 12(x - 15/2) = -2x
⇒ 12(x - 15/2) - 2x = 25
⇒ 12x - 90 - 2x = 25
⇒ 10x = 115
⇒ x = 115/10
∴ x = 23/2

QUESTION: 59

To one litre milk, Milkman adds 250 ml of water and then offers 10% discount. What is the profit made by the milkman?

Solution:

⇒ 250 ml water is added to 1000 ml milk. Therefore ratio of water to milk in the mixture is 1:4.
∴ In one litre of mixture, there are 4 parts of milk and one part of water.
⇒ In one litre of mixture, 800 ml milk and 200 ml water.
⇒ Let the price of one litre milk be Rs 100.
⇒ Discounted price = 100 – 10/100 × 100 = Rs. 90
⇒ Cost price to Milkman = 80/100 × 100 = Rs. 80
⇒ Profit = (90 – 80)/80 × 100 = 12.5%

QUESTION: 60

How many three digit numbers are there in which all the digits are odd?

Solution:

The number of odd digit numbers are 5 i.e. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.
So the required number will be formed using only these 5 digits.
Let the 3 digit number be “abc”
So “a” can be replaced by 5 odd digit numbers i.e. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 and same with “b” and “c”
By using permutation concept the required numbers = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125
∴ The number of three digit numbers in which all the digits are odd is 125.

QUESTION: 61

A boat goes upstream at speed of 10 km/hr. It goes downstream at a speed of 30 km/hr. how much time will the boat take to cover a distance of 30 km in still water?

Solution:

Let the speed of boat in still water be x
Let the speed of the stream be y
⇒ Upstream speed = x - y = 10 km/hr
⇒ Downstream speed = x + y = 30 km/hr
Solving
⇒ x = 20 Km/hr
⇒ y = 10 km/hr
⇒ Speed of boat in still water = 20 km/hr
∴ Time = Distance ÷ Speed = 30 ÷ 20 = 1.5 hours = 90 minutes

QUESTION: 62

The average marks of 50 students in an examination was 65. It was later found that the marks of one student had been wrongly entered as 83 instead of 38. The correct average is:

Solution:

According to the problem statement
⇒ New average = (50 × 65 – 83 + 38)/50
⇒ New average = 3205/50 = 64.1
∴ New average is 64.1

QUESTION: 63

The simple interest on a certain sum at 12% per annum for 3 years is Rs. 4,140. What is the compound interest on the same sum at 8% for two years?

Solution:

Let the amount invested be x,
Simple interest earned on it = (x × 12 × 3) /100 = 4140
⇒ x = (4140 × 100) / (12 × 3)
⇒ x = 11500
Compound interest earned on it for 2 years at 8% = 11500(1 + 8/100)2 – 11500
⇒ CI = 11500(1.08)2 – 11500
∴ CI = Rs. 1,913.60

QUESTION: 64

The perimeter of two similar triangles is 36 units and 48 units. Find the ratio of their corresponding areas.

Solution:

Side of one triangle/side of second triangle = perimeter of first triangle/perimeter of second triangle = 36/48 = 3/4

∴ Area of first triangle/Area of second triangle = (side of first triangle/side of second triangle)2 = (3/4)2 = 9/16

QUESTION: 65

A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 30 days respectively. The efficiency of C is 25% more than that of A. The ratio of the efficiency of B to D is 1 : 3. If they work together, they will complete the work in ……… days.

Solution:

A’s one day’s work = 1/15
B’s one day’s work = 1/30
The efficiency of C = 1/15 × 125/100 = 1/12
∴ C alone can complete the whole work in = 12 days
Let the efficiency of D be x
∴ 1 : 3 = 1/30 : x
∴ x = 1/10
∴ D alone can complete the whole work in = 10 days
⇒ One day work of (A + B + C + D) = 1/15 + 1/30 + 1/12 + 1/10 = (4 + 2 + 5 + 6)/60 = 17/60
∴ (A + B + C + D) together can complete the whole work in = 60/17 days

QUESTION: 66

In the given figure, ∠BAC = 70°, ∠ACB = 45° and ∠DEA = 140°. What is the value of ∠BDE?

Solution:

Sum of angles of a triangle is 180°
∠ABC + 70 + 45 = 180
∠ABC = 65°
∠DBE = 180 - ∠ABC = 180 - 65 = 115°
∠DEB = 180 - 140 = 40°
In ∆DEB
∠DBE + ∠DEB + ∠BDE = 180°
∠BDE = 180 - 40 - 115 = 25°

QUESTION: 67

If tanθ = 7/24, then find the value of p such that (tanθ - secθ)/sinθ = -p/28.

Solution:

tanθ = 7/24
tanθ = P/B
⇒ Perpendicular = 7 cm and Base = 24 cm
⇒ hypotenuse = 25 cm
⇒ secθ = 25/24, sinθ = 7/25
⇒ (tanθ - secθ)/sinθ = -p/28
⇒ [(7/24 - 25/24)/(7/25)] = -p/28
⇒ p = 75

QUESTION: 68

Solve for x: 7(x – 3) + 3x = 5x + 9

Solution:

⇒ 7x – 21 + 3x = 5x + 9
⇒ 5x = 30 ∴ x = 6

QUESTION: 69

Two trains are running at opposite direction with the same speed. If the length of each train is 280 meters and they cross each other in 14 seconds. The speed of each train (in m/sec):

Solution:

The length of two trains = 280
They cross each other in 14 seconds.
∴ Relative Speed, V = (2 × 280)/14 = 40 m/sec
∴ The speed of each train,
⇒ 2V = 40
⇒ V = 20 m/sec

QUESTION: 70

The marked price of an article is twice the cost price. For a gain of 10%, what should be the discount percentage?

Solution:

Let the CP of an article be x
MP of article be 2x
Gain % = (SP - CP)/CP × 100
10 = (SP - x)/x × 100
SP = 1.1x
Discount % = (MP - SP)/MP × 100 = 0.9x/2x × 100 = 45%

QUESTION: 71

A total amount of Rs. 1560 is to be divided among A, B and C such that A gets 50% of what B gets and B gets 20% of what C gets. How much will B get?

Solution:

Let C = 100x
A gets 50% of what B gets and B gets 20% of what C gets,
⇒ B = 20x and A = 10x
Total amount = Rs. 1560
⇒ 130x = 1560
⇒ x = 12
∴ B gets = Rs. 240

QUESTION: 72

Direction: The following table gives expenditure details of a family during the years 2005 to 2009. Study the table and answer the questions.

Q. What is the percent increase in expenditure on Education during 2005 to 2009?

Solution:

Expenditure on education in 2005 = 150000
Expenditure on education in 2009 = 300000
∴ Percentage increase =
= [(300000 – 150000)/150000] × 100
= 100%

QUESTION: 73

Direction: The following table gives expenditure details of a family during the years 2005 to 2009. Study the table and answer the questions.

Q. Considering the total expenditure for all the five years together, what is the percent expenditure on House Rent?

Solution:

Total expenditure for all five years together = 10500
Total expenditure on house rent over five years = 1050
∴ Required percentage =
= (1050/10500) × 100
= 10%

QUESTION: 74

Direction: The following table gives expenditure details of a family during the years 2005 to 2009. Study the table and answer the questions.

Q.  There is no increase in expenditures in 2006 as compared to 2005 on item

Solution:

Expenditure on food for 2005 years = 800000
Expenditure on Food for 2006 years = 900000
Expenditure on house rent for 2005 years = 150000
Expenditure on house rent for 2006 years = 150000
Expenditure on clothing for 2005 years = 75000
Expenditure on clothing for 2006 years = 100000
Expenditure on medical services for 2005 years = 75000
Expenditure on medical services for 2006 years = 90000
From above, for house rent there is no change in expenditure.

QUESTION: 75

Direction: The following table gives expenditure details of a family during the years 2005 to 2009. Study the table and answer the questions.

Q. In the light of the total expenditures for 2005, 2006, 2007, 2008 and 2009, what will be the likely expenditure in 2010?

Solution:

Total expenditure for 2005 years = 1500000
Total expenditure for 2006 years = 1700000
Total expenditure for 2007 years = 2000000
Total expenditure for 2008 years = 2400000
Total expenditure for 2009 years = 2900000
Then,
Its series increasing like + 2, + 3, + 4, + 5, + 6
∴ Total expenditure for 2010 years = 2900000 + 600000 = 3500000

QUESTION: 76

Who is appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of Fiji's non-resident panel in May 2019?

Solution:
  • The Retired judge of Indian Supreme Court Justice Madan B Lokur is appointed as a judge of Supreme Court of Fiji's non-resident panel.
  • He has been appointed in the new role for a period of three years.
  • The judge will join in his new role on August 15, 2019.
QUESTION: 77

Recently, website of the Lokpal 'www.lokpal.gov.in' was launched in India. Who is the present chairperson of Lokpal?

Solution:
  • The website of the Lokpal www.lokpal.gov.in has been launched in India.
  • It was inaugurated by Chairperson Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose in presence of all the Members of Lokpal in New Delhi.
  • It provides basic information about the working and functioning of the anti-corruption ombudsman.
QUESTION: 78

Recently, MB Balakrishnan passes away. He as a/an ________.

Solution:
  • Tamil Nadu swimmer and South Asian Games gold-medalist MB Balakrishnan died in a road accident in Chennai in May 2019.
  • He was a former 50-metre national record holder.
  • He went on to win the gold in the 50-metre backstroke and silver in the 100-metre backstroke event in the 11th South Asian Games in Dhaka in 2010
QUESTION: 79

As per the latest Geological Survey of India, about 35% of India's total Graphite reserves are found in which state?

Solution:
  • About 35% of India's total Graphite reserves are found in Arunachal Pradesh, as per the GSI report.
  • This is the highest found in the country.
  • With 35% of India's Graphite deposits being found in Arunachal Pradesh, the State could now be developed as the leading producer of graphite in the country.
QUESTION: 80

Who claimed a gold medal in the 65 kg men's freestyle at the Asian Wrestling Championship in China's Xian in April 2019?

Solution:
  • India clinched one gold, one silver and bronze at the Asian Wrestling Championship in China's Xian on 23 April 2019.
  • World number one Bajrang Punia claimed a gold medal in it.
  • He defeated Kazakhstan's Sayatbek Okassov 12-7 in a nail-biting 65kg men's freestyle final.
  • In 97 Kg category, Satywart Kadian picked a bronze medal defeating Haobin Gao of China by 8-2.
  • India won 16 medals in Asian Wrestling Championship.
QUESTION: 81

Which among the following Act led to the creation of “High Commissioner for India” post?

Solution:
  • The Government of India Act 1919 led to the creation of the Post “High Commissioner for India”.
  • It was popularly known as Montague-Chelmsford Reforms 1919.
  • The main feature of this act was Dyarchy i.e dual government in which the Provincial subjects are divided into two subjects namely Reserved Subjects and Transferred Subjects.
  • Reserved subjects were to be administered by the Governor and his council whereas the Transferred subjects by Governor and Council of Ministers.
QUESTION: 82

Price theory is also known as _______.

Solution:
  • Price theory is also known as micro-economics
  • It is concerned with the economic behaviours of consumers and producers and it helps us understand the pricing, allocation, production, and consumption of goods and services.
QUESTION: 83

Which of the following body part is affected by the disease Rhinitis?

Solution:
  • Rhinitis affects the nose.
  • It causes irritation and inflammation in the mucous membrane present in the nose.
  • It is also known as coryza.

QUESTION: 84

Name the stage of mitosis during which the chromosomes of a dividing cell lies at the equatorial plate?

Solution:
  • Metaphase is the stage of mitosis during which the chromosomes of a dividing cell lies at the equatorial plate.
  • Metaphase is the second stage of cell division, between prophase and anaphase, during which the chromosomes become attached to the spindle fibres.

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following changes when a body performs uniform circular motion?

Solution:
  • The direction changes when a body performs a uniform circular motion.
  • As velocity is a vector quantity, the direction plays a vital role in determining it.
  • In a uniform circular motion, the magnitude of the velocity is always the same and, the direction always changes.
  • The direction of the velocity is described in every moment. 
QUESTION: 86

From which state does Dard Aryan Tribe belongs to?

Solution:
  •  Dard Aryan Tribe belongs from Ladakh Region of Jammu & Kashmir.
  • They were recently in the news when seminar on the cultural traditions of Dard Aryans of Laddakh was organised during Dard Aryan Festival (Aryan Utsav) held in Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts (IGNCA) from 16-21 January, 2019.
  • During the Seminar, a few artists from Dard Aryans community had presented a charter of demands regarding preservation of their culture and other grievances to the Minister of State of Tribal Affairs.
QUESTION: 87

The theory of mutation was propounded by _________.

Solution:
  • The term mutation was first used by Hugo de Vries (1901).
  • He observed it in Oenothera lamarckiana.
  • He was a professor of Plant Physiology at the University of Amsterdam in 1881.
QUESTION: 88

Which of the following artery/vein carries deoxygenated blood?

Solution:
  • Pulmonary artery is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood. It carries deoxygenated blood from right ventricle to lungs.
  • Pulmonary vein is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood. It carries oxygenated blood from lungs to left auricle.
  • Aorta is the largest artery in the human body, starting from left ventricle and going down to abdomen. it carries oxygenated blood.
  • Renal artery arises from abdominal aorta and supplies oxygenated blood to kidneys. 
QUESTION: 89

In ​Galvanization, a thin layer of ________ is applied to prevent corrosion of iron or steel.

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

Electric current is defined as the flow of ________.

Solution:
  • An electric current is defined as the flow of charge through a conductor in unit time (I = Q/t)
  • The SI unit of current is an ampere which is equal to a flow of charge of one coulomb in one second.
QUESTION: 91

'Chile Saltpeter' is an ore of ________.

Solution:
  • Chile Saltpeter is an ore of Sodium. The chemical formula of Chile Saltpeter is NaNO3.

Trick: Sodium Chloride is a salt, so remember Chile Saltpeter is an ore of Sodium.

QUESTION: 92

Who is the author of the book named "Freedom in Exile"?

Solution:
  • Freedom in Exile is the Autobiography of The Dalai Lama.
  • It was the second autobiography of the 14th Dalai Lama, released in 1991.
  • In this book, the Dalai Lama reveals the remarkable inner strength that allowed him to master both the mysteries of Tibetan Buddhism and the brutal realities of Chinese Communism.
QUESTION: 93

The foothill range of Himalaya is known as which of the following name?

Solution:
  • The foothill or the southernmost region of the Himalayas is called Shivalik.
  • The Himalayas are divided into three major regions from north to south:
    1.The Inner Himalayas or the Himadri
    2.The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal
    3.The Outer Himalayas or the Shivaliks
QUESTION: 94

Which of these European countries does not contain parts of the Alps Mountain Range?

Solution:
  • The Alps are one of the largest and highest mountain ranges in the world, forming an arc of 1,200 km in length from Nice to Vienna and covering about 192,000 km².
  • The mountain range stretches across 8 different countries: France, Monaco, Italy, Switzerland, Liechtenstein, Germany, Austria and Slovenia. Hence, Hungary is not included.
QUESTION: 95

When a Financial bill arrives at Rajya Sabha, what actions cannot be taken by Rajya Sabha as per provisions of the constitution of India?

Solution:

Cut Motions like Policy cut, Economy cut, Token cut are powers given to members of Lok Sabha only to oppose a demand for a grant in the Financial Bill.

QUESTION: 96

Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by which of the following?

Solution:

Revealed preference theory was propounded by the American economist Paul Samuelson. It is a method of analyzing choices made by individuals, mostly used for comparing the influence of policies on consumer behaviour. These models assume that the preferences of consumers can be revealed by their purchasing habits.

QUESTION: 97

Nathpa Jhakri hydel power project is located on which of the following rivers? 

Solution:

The Nathpa Jhakri Hydel Power project or the Nathpa Jhakri Dam is located on the river Sutlej in Himachal Pradesh..

QUESTION: 98

Anti-defection law was added to the Constitution by which Constitutional amendment?

Solution:

Anti defection law was added to the Constitution by the 52nd amendment in 1985. The amendment also added the 10th schedule to the constitution. If a member switches his/her loyalty to another party from which he was not elected, his/her case shall be treated under this law.

QUESTION: 99

Which amendment of the Constitution of India increased the age of retirement of High Court judges from 60 to 62 years?

Solution:

The 15th amendment of 1963 rose the retirement age of High court judges from 60 to 62 and other minor amendments for rationalizing interpretation of rules regarding judges etc.

QUESTION: 100

The head office of National Stock Exchange of India is located at ________ 

Solution:

The National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE) is the leading stock exchange of India, located in Mumbai. Mr Vikram Limaye is Managing Director & Chief Executive Officer (MD & CEO) of NSE.

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