SSC CHSL Mock Test -9


100 Questions MCQ Test SSC CHSL Mock Test Series | SSC CHSL Mock Test -9


Description
This mock test of SSC CHSL Mock Test -9 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC CHSL Mock Test -9 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC CHSL Mock Test -9 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC CHSL Mock Test -9 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC CHSL Mock Test -9 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free from error, click the 'No error' option.

Q. Under the new rules, an unelected 250-member (A) / Senate appointed by the junta will join the 500 elected (B) / members of the lower house in a vote for the Prime Minister.(C) / No Error

Solution:

The sentence has no grammatical errors.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 2

In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option ‘No improvement’.

Q. The fields are being ploughed beyond the rains begin.  

Solution:

The sentence uses the form Ploughed beneath, which is incorrect and needs improvement.

Ploughing means to turn up the land in a farm, typically to loosen the earth to sow.

The only correct preposition here would be 'before' the rains begin

The only alternative that improves the sentence is Ploughed before.

None of the other alternatives can make the sentence meaningful.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 3

The sentence(s) given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Q. The Supreme Court __________ could not take such a decision without the centre's sanction.   

Solution:

Then refers to time and than is used for comparison. Here we must use ''then.'' 'Have said' is incorrect as 'have' cannot be used with a singular noun.  So option 2 is correct. 

QUESTION: 4

In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Passive/Active voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best expresses the same sentence in Active/Passive voice.

Q. Has the assignment been finished by you?

Solution:

The sentence is in passive voice thus in active voice the subject 'you' must be written before the object 'assignment.' In active voice :
Subject+verb+object
In passive voice:
Object+verb+subject

The tense here is present perfect 'has been finished' thus 'have' is the correct verb to be used here. The tense should not change. Option 2 is the correct answer. The other options use incorrect tenses or change the meaning of the sentence.

QUESTION: 5

A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in Direct/Indirect speech.

Q. I said,"I want to go to a picnic for a change."

Solution:

In indirect speech the words of the speaker are not written in quotes. Usually, the word 'that' is used to convey the words of the speaker. The correct tense should be simple past as the tense in direct speech is simple present.  Option 1 is the correct answer. The rest of the options use the wrong tense. 

QUESTION: 6

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase.

Live on the edge

Solution:

Live on the edge means to have an adventurous and dangerous lifestyle, often creating risks for oneself. Option 2 is thus eliminated as it conveys opposite meaning. (Cautious – careful)

‘Despite having so many responsibilities, Rajesh likes to live on the edge.’
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 7

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the one which is SIMILAR in meaning of the given word.

Extravagant

Solution:

Meaning of ‘extravagant’ – ‘spending too much money, or using too much of something’.
Meaning of other difficult words:

Profligate- spending money or using something in a way that wastes it and is not wise

Thrifty- using money and other resources carefully and not wastefully
Aloft- in the air or in a higher position
The meaning of ‘extravagant’ is similar to that of ‘profligate’.
Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 8

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the one which is SIMILAR in meaning of the given word.

Amnesty

Solution:

Meaning of ‘amnesty’ – ‘an official pardon granted to a group of prisoners by the state’.

Meaning of other difficult words:
Astonishing- extremely surprising or impressive
Prognostic- something that foretells

The meaning of ‘pardoning’ is similar to that of ‘amnesty’.
Hence, option 4 is the correct answer. 

QUESTION: 9

Choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word.

Tyranny

Solution:

The word 'tyranny' means 'absolute power.' The meanings of the words are:

Contend ⇒ struggle to surmount (a difficulty)

Democracy ⇒ a system of government by the whole population or all the eligible members of a state, typically through elected representatives.

Constitute ⇒ form
Ancillary ⇒ in addition to the main unit
Option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 10

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Consecration

Solution:

The word consecration means the action of making something legal or sacred by the church.

Let us find out the meanings of the other words-
Destiny-fate
Desecration-the action of violating something

Lively-full of life and energy
Aloof-not friendly or outcoming

After looking at the meanings of the given words, it is understood that option 2 is the most appropriate choice. 

QUESTION: 11

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute for the phrase.

Q. The practice of having more than one wife at the same time.

Solution:

Firstly, lets find the meaning of the given options-

Polygyny- The practice of having more than one wife at the same time.

Polydipsia- To be abnormally thirsty all the time.

Polyphony- The style of simultaneously combining a number of parts, harmonizing with each other.

Polychromy- The art of painting in several colours.

Clearly, polygyny best expresses the meaning of the above mentioned phrase. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 12

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Q. Jack twisted Rita's arm and she agreed to attend the housewarming party.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. 'persuaded'.

The meaning of the given phrase 'twist someone's arm' is to 'convince someone to do something they didn't initially agree to do'.

Let us look at the meanings of the given words :-
Injured - Harm or physically hurt someone.
Elbowed - push or strike someone with one's elbow.
Persuaded - convince someone to do something through reasoning or argument.
Bruised - inflict a mark by damaging something.

From the given context, Rita didn't initially agree to attend the housewarming party but after Jack convinced her, she agreed to do so.
Hence the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 13

The question below consists of a set of labeled parts. Out of the options given, select the most logical order of the parts to form a coherent sentence.
A. and pushed herself to improve her skills 
B. however, Hepburn asserted her 
C. as an actress on both stage and screen
D. studio system that dominated the era 
E. independence by defying the

Solution:

Instead of ordering the entire sentence, it is easier to find connections between one or two parts and then eliminating the options.

B ends with the determiner 'her', indicating that the next part must begin with something that belonged to 'her'.

D and E give the nouns 'studio system' and 'independence' respectively.

Given the context, E is more appropriate here than D.
So, BE is the correct order.

This is only shown by option 3, which gives the complete correct order :BEDAC
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 14

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Childhood is a stage that is distinct and ______ filled with cognitive, emotional and physical changes. During this period in a human life, wonder, innocence and imagination are ______. Many skills and lessons are learned that assist with the course the child’s future will follow. This _____ be described as one of the most essential periods for the development of the individual they will eventually become. Some scholars have questioned ______ each individual has a core self and the studies reveal that there are key aspects of the self that are developed by interactions within cultures and inner communities. For some children, there is a period of time where an imaginary friend is an essential part of this ______ of self-development. 

Q. Childhood is a stage that is distinct and ______ filled with cognitive, emotional and physical changes.

Solution:

The correct option is option 3.

We will use 'abundantly' here because it is the adverb form of abundant and an adverb modifies the meaning of a verb, adjective, etc. expressing place, time, manner, degree, etc.

QUESTION: 15

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Childhood is a stage that is distinct and ______ filled with cognitive, emotional and physical changes. During this period in a human life, wonder, innocence and imagination are ______. Many skills and lessons are learned that assist with the course the child’s future will follow. This _____ be described as one of the most essential periods for the development of the individual they will eventually become. Some scholars have questioned ______ each individual has a core self and the studies reveal that there are key aspects of the self that are developed by interactions within cultures and inner communities. For some children, there is a period of time where an imaginary friend is an essential part of this ______ of self-development. 

Q. During this period in a human life, wonder, innocence and imagination are ______. 

Solution:

The correct option is option 1.
Rampant means 'something which is flourishing or spreading unchecked'.

Steer means to guide or control the movement of something.
Superintend means to oversee.

QUESTION: 16

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Childhood is a stage that is distinct and ______ filled with cognitive, emotional and physical changes. During this period in a human life, wonder, innocence and imagination are ______. Many skills and lessons are learned that assist with the course the child’s future will follow. This _____ be described as one of the most essential periods for the development of the individual they will eventually become. Some scholars have questioned ______ each individual has a core self and the studies reveal that there are key aspects of the self that are developed by interactions within cultures and inner communities. For some children, there is a period of time where an imaginary friend is an essential part of this ______ of self-development. 

Q. This _____ be described as one of the most essential periods for the development of the individual they will eventually become. 

Solution:

The correct option is option 3.

'Could' will be used because it shows the possibility of describing the context of the developmental stage of the children.

QUESTION: 17

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Childhood is a stage that is distinct and ______ filled with cognitive, emotional and physical changes. During this period in a human life, wonder, innocence and imagination are ______. Many skills and lessons are learned that assist with the course the child’s future will follow. This _____ be described as one of the most essential periods for the development of the individual they will eventually become. Some scholars have questioned ______ each individual has a core self and the studies reveal that there are key aspects of the self that are developed by interactions within cultures and inner communities. For some children, there is a period of time where an imaginary friend is an essential part of this ______ of self-development. 

Q. Some scholars have questioned ______ each individual has a core self and the studies reveal that there are key aspects of the self that are developed by interactions within cultures and inner communities.

Solution:

The correct option is option 2.

'Whether' will be used here because it is used when we have a conditional sentence and when we are showing that two alternatives are possible.

QUESTION: 18

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Childhood is a stage that is distinct and ______ filled with cognitive, emotional and physical changes. During this period in a human life, wonder, innocence and imagination are ______. Many skills and lessons are learned that assist with the course the child’s future will follow. This _____ be described as one of the most essential periods for the development of the individual they will eventually become. Some scholars have questioned ______ each individual has a core self and the studies reveal that there are key aspects of the self that are developed by interactions within cultures and inner communities. For some children, there is a period of time where an imaginary friend is an essential part of this ______ of self-development. 

Q. For some children, there is a period of time where an imaginary friend is an essential part of this ______ of self-development.

Solution:

The correct option is option 2.
Obstacle and hurdle both mean 'a disruption' in a way or path.
'Course' itself means a path or direction.

QUESTION: 19

In the following question, a word has been written in 4 different ways out of which only one correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

Solution:

The correct spelling is ‘fluorescent’. To be fluorescent means to have the quality of absorbing light of short wavelength and them emitting a wavelength that is longer. It can be used as a technique to create bright light.

E.g. The fluorescent light was so bright it blinded Miriam.

QUESTION: 20

In the following question, a word has been written in 4 different ways out of which only one correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

Solution:

The correct spelling is ‘pavilion’. A pavilion is usually a building that is a part of the sports ground which acts as a changing room for the sports people.

With that amazing catch, Sam has sent Dean back to the pavilion” - The commentator exclaimed.

QUESTION: 21

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the four given alternatives.

Auroras, also known as northern lights, are a phenomenon that causes brilliant and colourful lights that shine in the sky. The bright green and red glow can be observed in areas closest to the earth’s poles, such as Alaska.

While the phenomenon is extremely beautiful, the underlying geomagnetic disturbances that cause the lights can be very dangerous. The most remarkable of these events were recorded in 1859. A British astronomer named Richard Carrington was documenting sunspots when he observed two bright flashes that indicated a massive geomagnetic storm.

The resulting magnetic pulse was so strong that it caused sparks to erupt from telegraph machines; shocking operators and in some cases setting their papers ablaze. This phenomenon became known as a Carrington event, after the astronomer who documented it. Though auroras are typically only seen close to the Polar Regions, during the Carrington Event, red auroras were seen as far as Hawaii and El Salvador.

Auroras are caused by the earth’s magnetic poles reacting to solar particles. The electric current from the solar particles follow the earth’s magnetic fields and interact with the nitrogen and oxygen molecules in the atmosphere causing them to glow. The different gases emit different colours when they glow. Oxygen glows green and causes the most commonly seen auroras.

The Carrington Event was different from a typical aurora because it was caused by a massive solar storm. In 1859, electronic technology was much more limited. The telegraphs that sparked during the incident were the height of telecommunications technology at the time.

Q. Out of the following places, where can auroras be seen most frequently?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1.
The answer to the given question could be found in line 2: 
The bright green and red glow can be observed in areas closest to the earth’s poles, such as Alaska.

QUESTION: 22

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the four given alternatives.

Auroras, also known as northern lights, are a phenomenon that causes brilliant and colourful lights that shine in the sky. The bright green and red glow can be observed in areas closest to the earth’s poles, such as Alaska.

While the phenomenon is extremely beautiful, the underlying geomagnetic disturbances that cause the lights can be very dangerous. The most remarkable of these events were recorded in 1859. A British astronomer named Richard Carrington was documenting sunspots when he observed two bright flashes that indicated a massive geomagnetic storm.

The resulting magnetic pulse was so strong that it caused sparks to erupt from telegraph machines; shocking operators and in some cases setting their papers ablaze. This phenomenon became known as a Carrington event, after the astronomer who documented it. Though auroras are typically only seen close to the Polar Regions, during the Carrington Event, red auroras were seen as far as Hawaii and El Salvador.

Auroras are caused by the earth’s magnetic poles reacting to solar particles. The electric current from the solar particles follow the earth’s magnetic fields and interact with the nitrogen and oxygen molecules in the atmosphere causing them to glow. The different gases emit different colours when they glow. Oxygen glows green and causes the most commonly seen auroras.

The Carrington Event was different from a typical aurora because it was caused by a massive solar storm. In 1859, electronic technology was much more limited. The telegraphs that sparked during the incident were the height of telecommunications technology at the time.

Q. After whom was the Carrington event named?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4.
The answer to the given question could be found in line 6:
The resulting magnetic pulse was so strong that it caused sparks to erupt from telegraph machines; shocking operators and in some cases setting their papers ablaze. This phenomenon became known as a Carrington event, after the astronomer who documented it.

QUESTION: 23

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the four given alternatives.

Auroras, also known as northern lights, are a phenomenon that causes brilliant and colourful lights that shine in the sky. The bright green and red glow can be observed in areas closest to the earth’s poles, such as Alaska.

While the phenomenon is extremely beautiful, the underlying geomagnetic disturbances that cause the lights can be very dangerous. The most remarkable of these events were recorded in 1859. A British astronomer named Richard Carrington was documenting sunspots when he observed two bright flashes that indicated a massive geomagnetic storm.

The resulting magnetic pulse was so strong that it caused sparks to erupt from telegraph machines; shocking operators and in some cases setting their papers ablaze. This phenomenon became known as a Carrington event, after the astronomer who documented it. Though auroras are typically only seen close to the Polar Regions, during the Carrington Event, red auroras were seen as far as Hawaii and El Salvador.

Auroras are caused by the earth’s magnetic poles reacting to solar particles. The electric current from the solar particles follow the earth’s magnetic fields and interact with the nitrogen and oxygen molecules in the atmosphere causing them to glow. The different gases emit different colours when they glow. Oxygen glows green and causes the most commonly seen auroras.

The Carrington Event was different from a typical aurora because it was caused by a massive solar storm. In 1859, electronic technology was much more limited. The telegraphs that sparked during the incident were the height of telecommunications technology at the time.

Q. How are auroras caused?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2.
The answer to the given question could be found in line 9:
Auroras are caused by the earth’s magnetic poles reacting to solar particles.

QUESTION: 24

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the four given alternatives.

Auroras, also known as northern lights, are a phenomenon that causes brilliant and colourful lights that shine in the sky. The bright green and red glow can be observed in areas closest to the earth’s poles, such as Alaska.

While the phenomenon is extremely beautiful, the underlying geomagnetic disturbances that cause the lights can be very dangerous. The most remarkable of these events were recorded in 1859. A British astronomer named Richard Carrington was documenting sunspots when he observed two bright flashes that indicated a massive geomagnetic storm.

The resulting magnetic pulse was so strong that it caused sparks to erupt from telegraph machines; shocking operators and in some cases setting their papers ablaze. This phenomenon became known as a Carrington event, after the astronomer who documented it. Though auroras are typically only seen close to the Polar Regions, during the Carrington Event, red auroras were seen as far as Hawaii and El Salvador.

Auroras are caused by the earth’s magnetic poles reacting to solar particles. The electric current from the solar particles follow the earth’s magnetic fields and interact with the nitrogen and oxygen molecules in the atmosphere causing them to glow. The different gases emit different colours when they glow. Oxygen glows green and causes the most commonly seen auroras.

The Carrington Event was different from a typical aurora because it was caused by a massive solar storm. In 1859, electronic technology was much more limited. The telegraphs that sparked during the incident were the height of telecommunications technology at the time.

Q. What caused the Carrington Event?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2.
The answer to the given question could be found in line 12:
The Carrington Event was different from a typical aurora because it was caused by a massive solar storm.

QUESTION: 25

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the four given alternatives.

Auroras, also known as northern lights, are a phenomenon that causes brilliant and colourful lights that shine in the sky. The bright green and red glow can be observed in areas closest to the earth’s poles, such as Alaska.

While the phenomenon is extremely beautiful, the underlying geomagnetic disturbances that cause the lights can be very dangerous. The most remarkable of these events were recorded in 1859. A British astronomer named Richard Carrington was documenting sunspots when he observed two bright flashes that indicated a massive geomagnetic storm.

The resulting magnetic pulse was so strong that it caused sparks to erupt from telegraph machines; shocking operators and in some cases setting their papers ablaze. This phenomenon became known as a Carrington event, after the astronomer who documented it. Though auroras are typically only seen close to the Polar Regions, during the Carrington Event, red auroras were seen as far as Hawaii and El Salvador.

Auroras are caused by the earth’s magnetic poles reacting to solar particles. The electric current from the solar particles follow the earth’s magnetic fields and interact with the nitrogen and oxygen molecules in the atmosphere causing them to glow. The different gases emit different colours when they glow. Oxygen glows green and causes the most commonly seen auroras.

The Carrington Event was different from a typical aurora because it was caused by a massive solar storm. In 1859, electronic technology was much more limited. The telegraphs that sparked during the incident were the height of telecommunications technology at the time.

Q. ______ glows green and causes the most commonly seen auroras.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4.
The answer to the given question could be found in the line 10:
Oxygen glows green and causes the most commonly seen auroras.

QUESTION: 26

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,
First box × Second box + the number of row = Third box
5 × 6 + 1 = 31
7 × 7 + 2 = 51
Similarly,
8 × 6 + 3 = 51
4 × 4 + 4 = 20
Hence, 20 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 27

In a certain code language, if H = 19 and SIT is written as ‘-3’ then how ‘FAKE’ is written in that coding language?

Solution:

According to the given coding language,

H = 19,
SIT → 8 – 18 + 7 = -3
Similarly,
FAKE → 21 – 26 + 16 – 22 = -11
Hence, '-11' is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 28

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Mahanadi : India : : ?

Solution:

Mahanadi is a river in India. Similarly, Indus is a river in Pakistan.
Hence, ‘Indus : Pakistan’ is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 29

Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,
1) 13, 170 → 132 = 169 → 169 + 1 = 170
2) 7, 50 → 72 = 49 → 49 + 1 = 50
3) 14, 195 → 142 = 196 → 196 - 1 = 195
4) 12, 145 → 122 = 144 → 144 + 1 = 145
Hence, ‘14, 195' is the odd one out.

QUESTION: 30

A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘W’ can be represented by 59, 85 etc. and ‘B’ can be represented by 24, 43 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘OVOLO’.

Solution:

1) 20, 32, 75, 21, 77 = O, V, O, L, U
2) 79, 32, 01, 78, 86 = O, V, O, L, O
3) 66, 85, 79, 03, 86 = O, W, O, L, O
4) 20, 32, 75, 02, 77 = O, V, O, M, U
Hence, 79, 32, 01, 78, 86​ represents the set for the word ‘OVOLO’.

QUESTION: 31

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Solution:


Thus image at option 4 is the mirror image of the given image.

QUESTION: 32

In the given question which word from the alternatives can be formed from the word “DISGORGE”?

Solution:

1) GREEN → DISGORGE → cannot be formed as there is only one E.
2) DESIGN → DISGORGE → cannot be formed as there is no N.
3) GRIND → DISGORGE → cannot be formed as there is no N.
4) SOGGED → DISGORGE → can be formed.
Hence, “SOGGED” is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 33

Ram walks 15 m towards west and turns to left, walks 5 m and turns to left, walks 4 m and again turns to left, walks 2 m and turns to right, runs 7 m and finally turns to left and runs 3 m. Now in which direction is he facing and how far is he from its initial position?

Solution:

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,


Clearly, Ram is facing north and is 4 meters away from his initial position.

QUESTION: 34

Poonam told Akshay that "Yesterday she defeated Akshay's only sister's daughter Sneha in a school Taekwondo competition." How is Akshay related to Sneha?

Solution:

We can draw the family tree using the following notations:

From this family tree we can say that Akshay is Sneha’s uncle.

QUESTION: 35

Consider the given statements as true and decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements.

Statement:
All studious students pass in exams. All studious students sleep well.

Conclusions:
1. All who sleep well are studious students.
2. All who pass in exams sleep well.

Solution:

All students pass in exams and all studious students sleep well are two entirely different statements and not related to each other. So both all who sleep well are studious and all who pass in exams sleep well are factually incorrect and do not follow.

QUESTION: 36

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circle facing the center. V is second to the right of X who is third to the right of W. T is second to the left of W and fourth to the right of Z. Y is third to the right of S who is not an immediate neighbor of W.

Q. Who is to the immediate left of Y?

Solution:

S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting around a circle facing the center where V is second to the right of X who is third to the right of W.

T is second to the left of W and fourth to the right of Z.

Y is third to the right of S who is not an immediate neighbor of W. Now only U is left thus U is automatically placed between Z and W.
The final arrangement is as follows:


Clearly, T is the immediate left of Y

QUESTION: 37

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circle facing the center. V is second to the right of X who is third to the right of W. T is second to the left of W and fourth to the right of Z. Y is third to the right of S who is not an immediate neighbor of W.

Q. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

Solution:

S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting around a circle facing the center where V is second to the right of X who is third to the right of W.

T is second to the left of W and fourth to the right of Z.

Y is third to the right of S who is not an immediate neighbor of W. Now only U is left thus U is automatically placed between Z and W.
The final arrangement is as follows:

From the given options, TYU is an odd one because in all other options 2ndperson is sitting immediate left to 1st person and 3rd person is sitting second to the right of 2nd person but in TYU, 2nd person Y is sitting immediate right to the 1st person T, not immediate left
Thus, TYU is the odd one.

QUESTION: 38

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Solution:

When the piece of paper is opened, the image obtained is,


Hence, the unfolded figure will be similar to option 2.

QUESTION: 39

Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
(1) Silver
(2) Anklet
(3) Ore
(4) Mine
(5) Process

Solution:

Anklets are made from Silver, which is obtained after Processing from the Ore, which in turn is taken from the Mine.
Hence the correct order is '4, 3, 5, 1, 2'.

QUESTION: 40

In the line of individuals, A is 13th from the left and 19th from the right. How many people are there in the line?

Solution:

A is 13th from the left and 19th from the right.
Hence, total number of people in the row = 19 + 13 - 1 = 31
Hence, there are total 31 people in the row.

QUESTION: 41

In a certain code language, “DESIRE” is written as “CFRJQF”. How is “DISMAY” written in that code language?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:


Same pattern will be followed for “DISMAY”.

Hence, “CJRNZZ” is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 42

Find following given words belong to which class.

Q. Cheese, Cream, Butter, Yogurt

Solution:

Here, cheese, cream, butter and yogurt belong to the 'Dairy'.
Hence, 'Dairy' is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 43

In the given question arrange the following words in the reverse order of dictionary. The one that appears last will be the first and so on.
I. Stylize
II. Swizzle
III. Sandbox
IV. Subject
V. Sizzled

Solution:

The reverse order of words in the dictionary is:
II. Swizzle
IV. Subject
I. Stylize
V. Sizzled
III. Sandbox
Thus, II, IV, I, V, III is the correct answer. 

QUESTION: 44

Count the number of semicircles in the following figure.

Solution:

If a line is drawn which passes through the center of the circle, it divides the circle into two parts which are then called as semicircles. The figure consists of 3 circles and 3 lines passing through the center.

3 × 3 × 2 (because each line divides the circle into two parts and we get two semicircles)
= 18

Hence, “18” semicircles are there in the given figure.

QUESTION: 45

Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions given below:

m j i k l o i u y b g f v a a e q o o s v z

If all consonants are dropped, which vowel will be fourth from right end

Solution:

Given series:
m j i k l o i u y b g f v a a e q o o s v z
Series after dropoing the consonants:
i o i u a a e o o
Here, 'a' is the fourth from the right end.
Hence, 'a' is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 46

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

7, 14, 28, ?, 112, ?

Solution:

The followed pattern is:
7 × 2 = 14
14 × 2 = 28
28 × 2 = 56
56 × 2 = 112
112 × 2 = 224
Hence, 56 and 224 will complete the given series.

QUESTION: 47

Below are given two statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then decide which of conclusions logically follows from the given statements. For each question, mark out an appropriate answer choice that you think is correct.

Statements:
Some actors are drums.
Some funs are drums.

Conclusions:
I. Some actors are large.
II. All funs are drums.

Solution:

The least possible venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,


Conclusions:
I. Some actors are large → False (as no information about large is given)
II. All funs are drums → False (as it is possible but not definite)
Thus, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

QUESTION: 48

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Solution:

Clearly, fig.3 will complete the pattern when placed in the blank space of question figure as shown below:

Thus, Figure 3 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 49

In the following question, by using which mathematical operators will the expression become correct?

7 # 6 β 6 © 7 = 84

Solution:

Following BODMAS rule,

1) ×, +, - → 7 # 6 β 6 © 7 → 7 × 6 + 6 – 7
⇒ 42 + 6 – 7
⇒ 48 – 7
⇒ 41 ≠ 84 (False)

2) +, ×, ÷ → 7 # 6 β 6 © 7
⇒ 7 + 6 × 6 ÷ 7
⇒ 7 + 5.16
⇒ 12.16 ≠ 84 (False)

3) ×, +, × → 7 # 6 β 6 © 7
⇒ 7 × 6 + 6 × 7
⇒ 42 + 42
⇒ 84 = 84 (True)

4) +, ÷, + → 7 # 6 β 6 © 7
⇒ 7 + 6 ÷ 6 + 7
⇒ 7 + 1 + 7
⇒ 15 ≠ 84 (False)
Hence, correct set of symbols is ‘×, +, × ’.

QUESTION: 50

Maahi saved Rs. 200 when discount of 25% on purchase of car is given. What is the price of car?

Solution:

Let the price of car be y.
200 = 25% of y
200 × 100/25 = y
800 = y
Hence, the price of car is Rs. 800.

QUESTION: 51

If (x – a) ∶ (x – b) ∶ (x – c) = 10 ∶ 11 ∶ 12 and 2x = a + b + c, then find a ∶ b ∶ c.

Solution:

(x – a) ∶ (x – b) ∶ (x – c) = 10 ∶ 11 ∶ 12 and 2x = a + b + c,
⇒ (x – a) = (a + b + c) /2 – a = (b + c – a) /2 = 10      ---- 1
⇒ (x – b) = (a + b + c) /2 – b = (a + c – b) /2 = 11      ---- 2
⇒ (x – c) = (a + b + c) /2 – c = (a + b – c) /2 = 12      ---- 3

From equation 2 and 3,
⇒ (a + c – b) = 22
⇒ (a + b – c) = 24
⇒ a = 23
Similarly, b = 22 and c = 21
∴ a ∶ b ∶ c = 23 ∶ 22 ∶ 21

QUESTION: 52

A bag contained a mixture of wheat flour and gram flour in the ratio 5∶ 2. The ratio of the mixture can be changed to 11∶ 4 by adding 3 kg of wheat flour. In order to change the ratio of mixture to 5∶ 3, how much gram flour should be added?

Solution:

Let the quantity of wheat flour and gram flour in the bag be ‘5x’ kg and ‘2x’ kg

By adding 3 kg of wheat flour, the ratio becomes 11 ∶ 4
⇒ (5x + 3)/2x = 11/4
⇒ 20x + 12 = 22x
⇒ 2x = 12
⇒ x = 12/2 = 6 kg
⇒ Quantity of wheat flour in bag = 5x = 5 × 6 = 30 kg
⇒ Quantity of gram flour in bag = 2x = 2 × 6 = 12 kg

Now,
Let ‘y’ kg of gram flour be added to obtain a mixture of ratio 5 ∶ 3
⇒ 30/(12 + y) = 5/3
⇒ 90 = 60 + 5y
⇒ 5y = 30
⇒ y = 30/5 = 6 kg
∴ The ratio of mixture can be changed to 5 ∶ 3 by adding 6 kg of gram flour

QUESTION: 53

In ΔXYZ measure of angle Y is 90°. If sinX = 4/5, and XY = 6cm, then what is the length (in cm) of side YZ?

Solution:

Given,
sin X = 4/5
⇒ YZ/XZ = 4/5
⇒ YZ = 4k and XZ = 5k

Now, by Pythagoras theorem in triangle XYZ
⇒ XY2 + YZ2 = XZ2
⇒ (6)2 + (4k)2 = (5k)2
⇒ 36 + 16k2 = 25k2
⇒ 9k2 = 36
⇒ k2 = 4
⇒ k = 2
Now,
∴ YZ = 4k = 4 × 2 = 8 cm

QUESTION: 54

In the figure, ∠A = 60°, BO and CO are the angle bisector of ∠DBC and ∠BCE respectively, then find the value of ∠BOC.

Solution:

Since BO and CO are the angle bisectors,
⇒ ∠BOC = 90° - ∠A/2 = 90° - 30° = 60°

QUESTION: 55

Akash’s monthly income is Rs. 9600. His monthly expenditure is 60% of his income. What is his saving per month?

Solution:

Akash’s monthly income is Rs. 9600, and his monthly expenditure is 60% of his income,
⇒ Expenditure = 60/100 × 9600 = Rs. 5760
⇒ Saving = Income - Expenditure = Rs. 3840
∴ Saving per month is Rs. 3840

QUESTION: 56

Find the height of a regular tetrahedron with surface area of 48√3 cm2.

Solution:

As we know, a tetrahedron is a triangular pyramid
Let the side of the regular tetrahedron be ‘a’ cm
As, Surface area of regular tetrahedron = √3 × (side)2
⇒ 48√3 = √3 × a2
⇒ a = √48 = 4√3 cm

Now,
⇒ Height of tetrahedron = √(2/3) × side = √(2/3) × 4√3 = 4√2 cm

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following number is exactly divisible by 132?

Solution:

We can write, 132 = 3 × 4 × 11

So, the number that is exactly divisible by 3, 4 and 11 is exactly divisible by 132

As we know, a number is divisible by 3, if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3

Also, a number is divisible by 4, if the number formed by its last two digits is divisible by 4

And, a number is divisible by 11, if the difference between the sum of its digits at odd places and the sum of its digits at even places is either 0 or 11

Considering number 26908,

⇒ Sum of digits = 2 + 6 + 9 + 0 + 8 = 25, which is not divisible by 3

∵ The number 26908 is not divisible by 3, it is not divisible by 132

Considering number 26912,

⇒ Sum of digits = 2 + 6 + 9 + 1 + 2 = 20, which is not divisible by 3

∵ The number 26912 is not divisible by 3, it is not divisible by 132

Considering number 26928,

⇒ Sum of digits = 2 + 6 + 9 + 2 + 8 = 27, which is divisible by 3

⇒ No. formed by last two digits = 28, which is divisible by 4

For divisibility by 11,

⇒ Difference = (2 + 9 + 8) – (6 + 2) = 19 – 8 = 11

∵ The number 26928 is divisible by 3, 4 & 11, it is divisible by 132

Considering number 26932,

⇒ Sum of digits = 2 + 6 + 9 + 3 + 2 = 22, which is not divisible by 3

∵ The number 26932 is not divisible by 3, it is not divisible by 132

QUESTION: 58

Two workers A and B can construct a wall in 10 hours and 20 hours respectively and a third worker C can destroy the same wall in 5 hours. A and B start constructing the wall, after 6 hours C joins them. After what time the wall will cease to exist?

Solution:

⇒ Let the total amount of work done in constructing a wall be 20 units (L.C.M of 5, 10, and 20)

Hence, work done by A in one hour = 20/10 = 2 units
Work done by B in one hour = 20/20 = 1 unit
Work done by C in one hour = -20/5 = -4 units

⇒ Now, when A and B work together, work done by them in one hour is 2 + 1 = 3 units

They together work for 6 hours, therefore work done in 6 hours = 3 × 6 = 18 units

After 6 hours C joins them, work done by A, B and C in one hour = 2 + 1 - 4 = -1 unit

Time taken to nullify 27 units of work will be x hours,
⇒ 18 + x(-1) = 0
⇒ x = 18 hours

QUESTION: 59

The present age of the father and the son are in the ratio of 7 : 3. After 6 years the ratio of their ages will be 2 : 1. What is the sum of the present age of the father and the son?

Solution:

⇒ Let the present age of father be 7x and age of son be 3x
⇒ Ages after 6 years
⇒ Father’s age = (7x + 6)
⇒ Age of Son = 3x + 6
⇒ According to question
⇒ Ratio = (7x + 6) / (3x + 6)
⇒ 2 / 1 = (7x + 6) / (3x + 6)
⇒ 6x + 12 = 7x + 6
⇒ x = 6
⇒ Father’s age = 7x = 7 x 6 = 42
⇒ Son’s age = 3x = 3 x 6 = 18
⇒ Sum of ages = 42 + 18
∴ Sum of ages = 60

QUESTION: 60

What is the value of 31 + 3-1 + 32 + 3-2?

Solution:

The given expression: 31 + 3-1 + 32 + 3-2
⇒ 31 + 3-1 + 32 + 3-2 = 3 + 1/3 + 9 + 1/9
⇒ 31 + 3-1 + 32 + 3-2 = (27 + 3 + 81 + 1)/9
⇒ 31 + 3-1 + 32 + 3-2 = 112/9

QUESTION: 61

If (a + b – c)2 = 12(b – c) + (a – b + c)2, then find the value of a.

Solution:

As we know,
⇒ (a + b – c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab – 2bc – 2ca
⇒ (a – b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 – 2ab – 2bc + 2ca

Now given,
⇒ (a + b – c)2 = 12(b – c) + (a – b + c)2

Substituting,
⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab – 2bc – 2ca = 12(b – c) + a2 + b2 + c2 – 2ab – 2bc + 2ca
⇒ 2ab – 2ca = 12(b – c) – 2ab + 2ca
⇒ 4ab – 4ca = 12(b – c)
⇒ 4a (b – c) = 12(b – c)
⇒ 4a = 12
⇒ a = 12/4 = 3

QUESTION: 62

In a ΔABC, AB = 12 cm, ∠ABC = 30°, ∠ACD = 45°and AD is perpendicular on BC, find the area of ΔABC.

Solution:


In ΔABD, sin30° = AD/12
⇒ AD = 6 cm
cos30° = BD/12
⇒ BD = 6√3 cm
In ΔACD, tan45° = AD/CD
⇒ CD = 6 cm
⇒ BC = 6√3 + 6 = 6(√3 + 1) cm
⇒ Area = 1/2 × 6(√3 + 1) × 6
∴ Area = 18(√3 + 1) cm2

QUESTION: 63

Simple interest on a sum for 10 years is equal to 5% of the principal. In how many years interest will be equal to the principal?

Solution:

Let the principle be Rs. P
Simple interest = (Principle × time × Rate)/100 = (P × 10 × rate)/100

According to question,
⇒ (P × 10 × Rate)/100 = 5% of P
⇒ Rate = 0.5%

Now, let in t years the simple interest is equal to the principle
Simple interest = (P × 0.5 × t)/100
⇒ P = (P × t)/200
∴ t = 200 years

QUESTION: 64

Trains A and B are running towards each other at a speed of 97 km/hr. and 83 km/hr. respectively and cross each other completely in 5.4 seconds. If train A is 46 m longer than train B, find the length of train B.

Solution:

Let the length of train B be ‘x’ m
⇒ Length of train A = (x + 46) m

Now, when two bodies are moving towards each other or in opposite direction, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds
⇒ Relative speed of trains = 97 + 83 = 180 km/hr. = 180 × (5/18) = 50 m/sec.

Now,
⇒ Time taken by trains to cross each other = Sum of lengths of train/relative speed
⇒ 5.4 = (x + 46 + x)/50
⇒ 270 = 2x + 46
⇒ 2x = 224
⇒ x = 224/2 = 112 m
∴ Length of train B is 112 m

QUESTION: 65

By selling a table for Rs. 16,870, a shopkeeper suffers a loss of Rs. 1,080. His loss percentage (rounded off to one decimal place) is:

Solution:

S.P = Rs. 16870
Loss = Rs. 1080
So, C.P = 16870 + 1080 = Rs. 17950
∴ loss percentage = loss/C.P × 100 = 1080/17950 × 100 = 6.0%

QUESTION: 66

What is the reflection of the point (6, -3) in the line y = 2?

Solution:

When a point is reflected about the x-axis, the x-coordinate remains the same and only the y-coordinate is transformed

∵ The line y = 2 is parallel to the x-axis, x-coordinate will remain the same after reflection

Now, along the y-direction, the distance between the reflected point and the line will be equal to the distance between the original point and the line

⇒ Distance between point and line along y-direction = |-3 – (2)| = |-5| = 5 unit
⇒ Y-coordinate of reflection = 2 + 5 = 7
∴ The reflection point is (6, 7)

QUESTION: 67

Upper part of a tree broken over by the wind makes an angle of 60° with the ground. The distance between the root and the point where top of the tree touches the ground is 25 metres. What was the height (in metres) of the tree?

Solution:


BC = 25 m
AB = BC tan 60° = 25√3 m
AC = BC sec 60° = 50 m
Total tree length = AB + AC
⇒ 43.30 + 50 = 93.30

QUESTION: 68

A dishonest shopkeeper earns a profit of 14.29% by using faulty weight instead of 1000 g weight. What is the weight of his faulty weight?

Solution:

Let the weight of his faulty weight be ‘x’ g
True weight = 1000 g
Error = 1000 – x
Now,
Profit = Error/(True Weight – Error)
⇒ 14.29% = (1000 – x)/x
⇒ 1/7 = (1000 – x)/x
⇒ x = 7000 – 7x
⇒ 8x = 7000
⇒ x = 7000/8 = 875 g
∴ Weight of his faulty weight = 875 g

QUESTION: 69

The average of N numbers is 16. If a number 22 is removed, then average becomes 15. What is the value of N?

Solution:

Average of N numbers = 16
∴ Sum of N numbers = 16N
According to problem,
⇒ 16N - 22 = 15(N - 1)
⇒ 16N - 22 = 15N - 15
⇒ N = 7

QUESTION: 70

Solution:


Then put all values,
∴? = 2u/(1 - u2)

QUESTION: 71

A boat can cover a distance of 70 km in 3.5 hours in still water. How much less time will the boat take to cover the same distance downstream if the speed of stream is 1 km/hr.?

Solution:

⇒ Time taken to cover 70 km in still water = 3.5 hrs. = 3.5 × 60 = 210 min.

⇒ Speed of boat in still water = Distance covered/Time taken = 70/3.5 = 20 km/hr.

Now,
⇒ Speed of stream = 1 km/hr.

⇒ Downstream speed = Speed of boat in still water + Speed of stream = 20 + 1 = 21 km/hr.

⇒ Time taken to cover 70 km downstream = 70/21 = 10/3 hrs. = (10/3) × 60 = 200 min.

∴ The boat takes 210 – 200 = 10 min. less time to cover the same distance downstream

QUESTION: 72

Direction: The bar graph shows the expenditure made by a company on various departments throughout the year. Study the graph carefully and answer the following questions.

Q. What is the average of total expenditure made by the company on all the departments together?

Solution:

Expenditure done on department A = 450000
Expenditure done on department B = 350000
Expenditure done on department C = 475000
Expenditure done on department D = 525000
Expenditure done on department E = 400000
Expenditure done on department F = 500000
⇒ Total expenditure = 2700000
∴ Required Average = 2700000/6 = 450000

QUESTION: 73

Direction: The bar graph shows the expenditure made by a company on various departments throughout the year. Study the graph carefully and answer the following questions.

Q. Find the ratio of expenditure made on department A and C together to the department D and F together.

Solution:

Expenditure done on department A = 450000
Expenditure done on department C = 475000
⇒ Total expenditure done on department A and C = 925000
Expenditure done on department D = 525000
Expenditure done on department F = 500000
⇒ Total expenditure done on department D and F = 1025000
∴ Required ratio = 925000 ∶ 1025000 = 37 ∶ 41

QUESTION: 74

Direction: The bar graph shows the expenditure made by a company on various departments throughout the year. Study the graph carefully and answer the following questions.

Q. If the company has only first 5 departments then what is the average expenditure of the company?

Solution:

Expenditure done on department A = 450000
Expenditure done on department B = 350000
Expenditure done on department C = 475000
Expenditure done on department D = 525000
Expenditure done on department E = 400000
⇒ Total expenditure = 2200000
∴ Required Average = 2200000/5 = 440000

QUESTION: 75

Direction: The bar graph shows the expenditure made by a company on various departments throughout the year. Study the graph carefully and answer the following questions.

Q. Find how much percent more expenditure is done on department F as compared to that of department E?

Solution:

Expenditure done on department F = 500000
Expenditure done on department E = 400000
∴ Required percentage = 10000/400000 × 100 = 25%

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following Indian athlete became the first India athlete to qualify for the Tokyo Olympics 2020?

Solution:
  • A 29-year-old Indian athlete from Kerala, K.T. Irfan, became the first India athlete to qualify for the Tokyo Olympics.
  • He finished fourth in the men’s 20-kilometer category at the Asian Race Walking Championships in Nomi, Japan.
  • He got qualified for next year's Tokyo Olympics.
  • The Two other Indian race walkers, who qualified for the World Championship are Devinder and Ganapati.
QUESTION: 77

Kandhamal haldi gets GI tag. It is produced in which of the following Indian state?

Solution:
  • Kandhamal haldi (turmeric) produced by the tribal farmers in Odisha Kandhamal district received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
  • Kandhamal turmeric, originally grown by tribal people in Kandhamal, is famous for its medicinal properties.
  • Kandhamal haldi is organic by default being cultivated by more than 60,000 families.
  • The colour of Kandhamal haldi is golden yellow is well distinguished from other varieties.
  • Note: GI tag is used to define the geographic location of the product.
  • Darjeeling Tea was the first Indian product to get a GI tag.
QUESTION: 78

Resistance of a conductor increases on ________.

Solution:
  • The resistance of a conductor is given as R=pl/A
    p = Resistivity
    l = Length of conductor
    R = Resistance
    A = Area of a cross-section of the conductor
  • Here, the resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to the length of the conductor and inversely proportional to the area of cross-section of the conductor.
QUESTION: 79

The word 'dendritic' is associated with ________.

Solution:
  • The word 'dendritic' is associated with rivers.
  • A dendritic drainage pattern resembles a tree, with many branches or tributaries converging to form the main river.
  • It is the most common drainage pattern which frequently exists on flat land with uniform and non-porous bedrock.
  • Examples: Krishna, Indus, Mahanadi, Godavari, and Cauvery.
QUESTION: 80

The Indian Standard Meridian in India does NOT pass through which of the following state?

Solution:
  • Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.5' E longitude, in Mirzapur Uttar Pradesh.
  • This 82.5' E is termed as Indian Standard Meridian.
  • This line pass through 5 Indian States namely: Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh.
  • According to this IST, time has an offset of UTC + 05:30.
QUESTION: 81

What does ‘S’ stands for in SDRAM?

Solution:
  • SDRAM - Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory
  • There are mainly three types of RAMs: DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory), SRAM (Static Random Access Memory) and SDRAM.
  • SDRAM is a type of Dynamic Random Access Memory which works at a much higher speed.
QUESTION: 82

A kilowatt-hour is the unit of ?

Solution:
  • The kilowatt-hour is a unit of Heat energy dissipated. This can be known from the definition of power and energy.
  • Power is the energy utilized in unit time. Therefore, if you multiply power by time, the answer will be energy.
  • kilowatt × hour = kilowatt-hour.
QUESTION: 83

From the options given below, identify the option that provides correct information about “Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana”.
A. The scheme was launched in 2016.
B. The scheme aims to provide continuous power supply to rural India.
C. The scheme replaced the existing Indira Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana.

Solution:
  • The scheme aims to provide continuous power supply to rural India. The government has planned to invest Rs. 756 billion under this scheme.
  • The scheme was launched in 2015.
  • The scheme replaced the existing Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana.
QUESTION: 84

What is the another name for the urinary excretory system?

Solution:
  • The urinary excretory system, also known as the renal system, is responsible for transporting any unnecessary, dangerous, or excess material from the body.
  • This process allows the body to sustain homeostasis, thereby preventing any destruction from happening. Most organs in the body produce waste when functioning normally, and because of this, the whole body relies on the urinary excretory system to excrete it out.
  • The endocrine system is a collection of glands which produce hormones for regulating growth and development, metabolism, etc.
QUESTION: 85

Given below are features of Indian Constitution that are borrowed from different countries. Also their sources are given. Match the features with their respective sources.

Solution:
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High Court Judges – USA
  • Method of Election of the President – Ireland
  • Fundamental duties -  USSR (Russia)
  • Amendment of the Constitution - South Africa
QUESTION: 86

"The Unseen Indira Gandhi" is written by ______. 

Solution:
  • "The Unseen Indira Gandhi" is written by Dr K. P. Mathur.
  • He was the personal physician to Indira Gandhi.
  • He was honoured by Padma Shri Award in 1984 by the Government of India.
QUESTION: 87

In 1719, the Sayyid brothers, with the help of Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath, dethroned ________.

Solution:
  • In 1719, the Sayyid brothers, with the help of Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath, dethroned Farrukhsiyar.
  • Later, he was blinded and killed. It was the first time in the Mughal history that an emperor was killed by his nobles.

QUESTION: 88

The procedure for the removal of Vice-President is given in which article of the Indian Constitution? 

Solution:
  • The procedure for the removal of Vice-President is given in Article 67 of the Indian Constitution.
  • As per Article 67 ofthe Indian Constitution the Vice President of India is removed by an effective majority of the Rajya Sabha and Simple Majority of the Lok Sabha.
  • But no such resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days advance notice has been given.
QUESTION: 89

Who among the following is known as the Father of Microbiology?

Solution:
  • Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek is known as the Father of Microbiology. 
  • He was a Dutch scientist. 
  • He established microbiology as a separate scientific discipline and is also known for carrying out pioneering work in microscopy. 
QUESTION: 90

In case of equal voting, who among the following can only cast a casting vote in Lok Sabha?

Solution:
  • A casting vote is a vote that is used to resolve a deadlock which occurs due to equal voting for both the motions.
  • It can only be exercised by the presiding officer of a committee, council, or any legislative body.
  • In the Lok Sabha, this vote can only be exercised by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
QUESTION: 91

Denis Mukwege and Nadia Murad have won the Nobel Prize 2018 in which field?

Solution:
  • The Nobel Peace Prize 2018 was won by Denis Mukwege and Nadia Murad.
  • The award has been presented to the two figures who have worked to bring attention to ending sexual violence.
  • Mukwege is a gynecologist helping victims of sexual violence in the Democratic Republic of Congo.
  • Nadia is a Yazidi rights activist and survivor of sexual slavery by Islamic State.
QUESTION: 92

Which of the following is the currency of the Democratic Republic of Congo?

Solution:

The Congolese Franc is the currency of the Democratic Republic of Congo. The Rand is the currency of South Africa. The Shilling is used in Kenya, Somalia, Tanzania and Uganda. Algeria, Bahrain, Jordan, Libya, Serbia, Tunisia, Iraq use dinar as the currency.

QUESTION: 93

Coup is _____.

Solution:
  • The coup is the sudden, violent and illegal overthrow of the power of government.
  • It is a type of revolution by military or other elites within the state apparatus. 
QUESTION: 94

_____ sector covers those enterprises (or) places of work where the terms of employment are regular.

Solution:

QUESTION: 95

Where is the headquarters of the International Solar alliance?

Solution:

The headquarters of the International Solar Alliance is located at Gurugram, Haryana. It is India’s first international and inter-governmental organization headquartered in India. It will be dedicated to the promotion of solar energy for making solar energy a valuable source of affordable and reliable green and clean energy in 121 member countries.

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following is not a transition metal?

Solution:

Radium is a chemical element with symbol Ra and atomic number 88. It is the sixth element in group 2 of the periodic table, also known as the alkaline earth metals. All isotopes of radium are highly radioactive.

QUESTION: 97

Meristematic tissue is classified as apical, lateral and intercalary depending on their ________.

Solution:
  • Meristematic tissues are classified as apical, lateral and intercalary depending on their region.
  • The growth of plants occurs only in certain regions because of the dividing tissue, known as meristematic tissue, located only at some certain points.
QUESTION: 98

Why were the Congress leaders disappointed with the Cripps Mission (1942)?

Solution:

Cripps Mission came to India in March 1942 to secure full Indian cooperation and support in World War II. It was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps. Cripps Mission promised to give India a dominion status after world war II but Congress was not happy with the proposal as its main aim was to get full independence.

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following is true regarding Kalhana’s Rajatarangini?

Solution:

Kalhana’s Rajatarangini was written in 12th century under the patronage of Sriharsa and Jaisingh. It is an account of history of Kashmir upto 12th century and was written in Sanskrit. It is the earliest book that historically deals with state of kashmir.

QUESTION: 100

Workers in leather tanning industries tend to suffer from ________.

Solution:
  • Leather industry uses the Chromium solution for tanning the animal skin.
  • This solution have a negative effect on the skin.

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