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RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - RPSC RAS (Rajasthan) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test RPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9

RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 for RPSC RAS (Rajasthan) 2024 is part of RPSC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the RPSC RAS (Rajasthan) exam syllabus.The RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 MCQs are made for RPSC RAS (Rajasthan) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 below.
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RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

The Comptroller and Auditor - General of India can be removed from his office in like manner as

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

The correct answer is Judge of the Supreme Court.

  • The Comptroller and Auditor - General of India can be removed from his office in like manner as Judge of the Supreme Court.

Key Points

  • Removal of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
    • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is the apex authority responsible for external and internal audits of the expenses of the National and state governments.
    • It is popularly known as the CAG of India.
    • ​The President can remove CAG only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution which is the manner the same as the removal of a Supreme Court Judge.
    • He is ineligible to hold any office, either under the Government of India or of any state, once he retires/ resigns as a CAG.

Additional Information

  • Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
    • Article 148: The Constitution of India establishes the authority of this office.
    • Article 149: Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
    • Article 150: Form of Accounts of the Union of India and the States.
    • Article 151: To report to the President or to the Governors of the States on the accounts of the Union or State.
  • Shri Girish Chandra Murmu assumed office as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on 8th August 2020.
  • Prior to this, Shri Murmu was the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

Which of the following statement is incorrect in reference to compost?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

The process of decomposition in pits is fastened by earthworms not slowed down.
Additional Information

  • Decomposition is the process by which dead organic substances are broken down into simpler organic or inorganic matter such as carbon dioxide, water, simple sugars and mineral salts.
  • Compost is made by decomposing organic materials into simpler organic and inorganic compounds by the microorganisms in a process called composting.
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RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

On which of the following dates, the President of India, using his powers, declared by proclamation that a grave emergency existed where the security of India was threatened by internal disturbance?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

The correct answer is 25 June 1975.

  • On 25 June 1975 the President of India, using his powers, declared by proclamation that a grave emergency existed where the security of India was threatened by internal disturbance.

Key Points

  • On the recommendations of Indira Gandhi’s government declared a state of emergency in India on 25 June 1975.
  • Democracy was restored only after nearly two years on 21st March 1977.
  • The then-President of the country Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed declared a state of internal emergency in India using Article 352.
  • The national emergency was being declared in India for the third time.
  • The first two times were during the wars with China and Pakistan in 1962 and 1971 respectively.

Additional Information

  • The President can declare 3 types of emergencies:
    • National emergency (Article 352)
    • State emergency (Article 356)
    • Financial emergency (Article 360)
  • National emergency (Article 352):
    • It can be declared on the basis of:
      • External aggression/armed rebellion in the whole of India/part of its territory.
  • Approval:
    • ​It needs to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within a month by special majority.
  • Duration
    • It can be extended for up to 6 months further indefinitely by resolutions in 6-months increments.
  • Effects
    • Effect- Many Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended.
    • The federal system of governance becomes unitary.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

Which sanctuary in Gujarat is the smallest in India and is known for protecting the Great Indian Bustard?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

The Kutch Bustard Sanctuary, also called the Lala-Parijan Sanctuary, is the smallest sanctuary in India, spanning just two square kilometers.

RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

What technology was used to facilitate the birth of the Great Indian Bustard chick?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

IVF is an Assisted Reproductive Technology where fertilization occurs outside the body in a laboratory before implantation into the uterus.

RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Which of the following rulers does not belong to Gurjara - Pratihar dynasty?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

The Bharatabhatta - I did not belong to Gurjara - Pratihar dynasty

Key Points

  • Important ruler of Gurjara - Pratihar dynasty
    • Harichandra
      • Founder
    • Nagabhatta-I
      • ​He spread the kingdom over Gwalior, Bharuch and Malwa.
      • Awani was the capital of his kingdom.
    • Vastaraja
      • Captured Kannuaj from Dharmapala, the king of Pala.
    • Nagabhatta II
      • He is known for rebuilding the Somnath Temple in 815 AD.
    • Mihirbhoja
      • He assumed the title of Adivaraha and built the Teli Mandir at the Gwalior.
    • Mahendrapal - I
      • The son of Mihir Bhoja I
    • ​​King Bhoja II

Additional Information

  • Gujara Pratihara
    • Gujara Pratihara is one of the most important dynasties in medieval India.
    • The origin of Gujaras is not certain.
    • The dynasty of Gujara Pratiharas was founded by Harichandra in 6th century AD.
    • Mihir Bhoja was the greatest ruler of the Pratiharas dynasty.
    • He recovered Kanauj by 836 and it remained capital for almost 100 years.

Confusion Points

Devpala (Gurjara-Pratihara Dynasty):

  • Do not confuse with Devpala of Pala Dynasty
  • Devapala was the 9th ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty from 948 to 954 CE.
  • He was the son of Mahendrapala I and succeeded his brother Mahipala I to the throne.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

If percentage of increase of total number of vehicles from 2000-01 to 2010-11 is made equal to the percentage of increase of total vehicles from 1990-91 to 2000-01, then total number of vehicles in 2010-11 would be equal to (in lakhs):

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

The percentage of increase of total vehicles from 1990-91 to 2000-01 = {(19.95 – 9.18)/9.18} × 100 = 117.32%

Number of total vehicles in 2000-01 = 19.95 lakh

To make the percentage change equal for the years

19.95 × {(117.32 + 100)/100} = 19.95 × 217.32/100 = 43.36

∴ Total number of vehicles in 2010-11 would be equal to 43.36 lakhs.

RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

Which of the following polyherbal product has NOT been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO):

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

The correct answer is Nocdurna.

Key Points

  • Polyherbal product has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO): Amtooth, Lueskin, Eczit.

Additional Information

  • Amtooth
    • A polyherbal solution, Amtooth has been formulated to check and treat toothache caused by inflammation of the dental nerves.
    • It has been evaluated for clinical efficacy at District Hospital and Military Hospital, both at Pithoragarh, Uttaranchal. The medication relieves pain within 2 to 5 minutes of application.
    • The product is also effective in the hot and cold sensation of gums.
  • Lueskin
    • Lueskin for leucoderma has been developed in the form of ointment and liquid oral dose taking into consideration the social stigma, limitation of existing therapies and aetiology of the disease.
    • The product stops recurrence, prevents blister formation and has shown better efficacy then products available on market with no side effects.
  • Eczit
    • Eczit. Eczit, a polyherbal product for the treatment of eczema or Atopic Dermatitis has been formulated.
    • The product is effective in all kinds of eczema, stops recurrence and has better efficacy than the products available in the market with no side effects.
  • Nocdurna
    • This medication helps to control increased thirst and too much urination due to these conditions and helps prevent dehydration. Desmopressin is also used by adults who wake up 2 or more times during the night to urinate due to a condition called nocturnal polyuria
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Which of the following Chief Ministers has not held the post of the leader of the Opposition in Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?

(A) Haridev Joshi

(B) Shivcharan Mathur

(C) Ashok Gehlot

(D) Vasundra Raje

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

The correct answer is (B) and (C).

Key Points

  • Shivcharan Mathur and Ashok Gehlot both have not held the post of the leader of the Opposition in Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.

Additional Information

  • First-Jaswant Singh.
  • Sencond-Position Vacant.
  • Third, Fourth and Fifth- Laxman Singh.
  • Ninth-Haridev Joshi.
  • Thirteen-Smt. Vasundhara Raje.
  • Fourteenth-Rameshwar Lal Dudi.
  • Fifteenth-Gulab Chand Kataria.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Where was the Great Indian Bustard chick born under the Species Recovery Programme?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

The Desert National Park in Rajasthan is home to the last remaining wild population of Great Indian Bustards. The IVF success occurred under the Species Recovery Programme at this location.

RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

As per 2011 Census, which districts of Rajasthan are having lowest percentage of Scheduled Tribe Population in their total population?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

The correct answer is Bikaner and Nagaur.

  • As per 2011 Census, Bikaner and Nagaur districts of Rajasthan are having the lowest percentage of Scheduled Tribe Population in their total population.

Key Points

  • District-wise distribution of tribal population
    • Bikaner and Nagaur districts of Rajasthan are having the lowest percentage of Scheduled Tribe Population in their total population.
    • District-wise distribution of the tribal population shows that they have their highest concentration in Banswara district (72.3 per cent), followed by 65.1 per cent and 47.9 per cent in Dungarpur and Udaipur districts respectively.
    • Nagaur (0.2 per cent) preceded by Bikaner (0.4 per cent) has the lowest share of tribal population in the total population.

​​Additional Information

  • As per the 2001 Census, the Scheduled Tribe (ST) population of Rajasthan State
    • As per the 2001 Census, the Scheduled Tribe (ST) population of Rajasthan States 7,097,706 constituting 8.4 per cent of the total ST population of India.
    • The Scheduled Tribes of the State constitute 12.6 per cent of the total population (56,507,188) of the State.
    • It holds 12th position among all States and UTs in respect of the percentage share of ST population to the total population.
    • The ST population has registered a growth rate of 29.6 per cent during 1991-2001 which is 1.2 per cent higher than the growth of the total population.
    • Out of twelve (12) tribes scheduled for the State, Mina is the most populous tribe, having a population of 3,799,971 constituting 53.5 per cent of the total ST population followed by Bhil (2,805,948).
    • Mina and Bhil together constitute 93 per cent whereas Garasia, Damor, Dhanka & Saharia combine to form 6.6 per cent of the total ST population.
    • Six tribes, Bhil Mina, Naikda, Kathodi, Patelia, Kokna and Koli Dhor along with the generic tribes constitute the residual 0.3 per cent of the total tribal population.
    • Among the twelve STs, Koli Dhor is the smallest tribe with a population below 100 preceded by Kokna (405), Patelia(1,045), Kathodi (2,922) etc.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

On 24th June 2018, India's team of four Para-swimmers crossed the English Channel in a record time of 12 hours and 26 minutes. Out of them, one was from Rajasthan. Who was he?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

The correct answer is Jagdish Chandra.

Important Points

  • The English Channel is a narrow arm of the Atlantic Ocean separating the southern coast of England from the northern coast of France and tapering eastward to its junction with the North Sea at the Strait of Dover.
  • It is one of the busiest shipping areas in the world.

Key Points

  • The English channel is 34 km wide.
  • India's team of four Para-swimmers were:
    • Satyendra Singh from Madhya Pradesh
    • Jagdish Chandra from Rajasthan
    • Chetan Raut from Maharashtra
    • Remo Shah from West Bengal
  • The record set by them 12 hours and 26 minutes is the new Asian record.

Additional Information

  • Satyendra Singh is a professional swimmer and he has won two silver and one bronze in International Para-swimming Championships.
  • He is the first person in India with a 75% disability to complete the 36-km Arabian Sea swim in 5 hours and 43 minutes.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

Which of the following terminology is/are mentioned in the Preamble of the Right to Information Act, 2005?

(A) Transparency of Information

(B) Revelation of Information

(C) Informed Citizenry

(D) Paramountcy of the democratic ideal

Select the correct answer using code given below:

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

The correct answer is Option D.

Key Points

  • The preamble of the RTI Act sets out that the citizens shall have the right to secure access to the information under the control of the public authorities, to promote transparency of information which are vital in the functioning of the public authorities, to contain corruption, to hold Governments and their instrumentalities accountable to the governed and thereby develop the participatory governance.
  • Objectives of the Act
    • To empower the citizens
    • To promote transparency and accountability
    • To contain corruption and
    • To enhance people’s participation in the democratic process.

Additional Information

  • Right to Information (RTI) - It is an act of the Parliament of India which sets out the rules and procedures regarding citizens' right to information.
    • It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
    • Under the provisions of the RTI Act, any citizen of India may request information from a "public authority" (a body of Government or instrumentality of State) which is required to reply expeditiously or within thirty days.
    • In case of the matter involving a petitioner's life and liberty, the information has to be provided within 48 hours.
    • The Act also requires every public authority to computerize their records for wide dissemination and to proactively publish certain categories of information so that the citizens need minimum recourse to request information formally.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

Assertion (A): Cost inflation is caused by the shift in the aggregate supply curve.

Reason (R): Shift in aggregate supply curve takes place because of the increase in wages.

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

  • Cost inflation occurs when overall prices increase (inflation) due to increases in the cost of wages and raw materials or shift in the supply curve.
  • A shift in aggregate supply can be attributed to many variables, including changes in the size and quality of labour, technological innovations, an increase in wages, an increase in production costs, changes in producer taxes, and subsidies and changes in inflation.

Additional Information

  • Cost-push inflation or Cost inflation
    • Cost-push inflation occurs when overall prices increase (inflation) due to increases in the cost of wages and raw materials.
    • Cost-push inflation can occur when higher costs of production decrease the aggregate supply (the amount of total production) in the economy.
    • Since the demand for goods hasn't changed, the price increases from production are passed onto consumers creating cost-push inflation.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

Which of the following plant, grown in non-forest area has been omitted from the definition of trees in the Indian Forest (Amendment) Act 2017?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

The correct answer is Bamboo.

Key Points

  • The government hoped to promote the cultivation of bamboo in non-forest areas to achieve the “twin objectives” of increasing the income of farmers and also increasing the green cover of the country.
  • Bamboo grown in non-forest area has been omitted from the definition of trees in the Indian Forest (Amendment) Act 2017.
  • Bamboo grown in the forest areas would continue to be governed by the provisions of the Indian Forest Act.

Additional Information

  • Scientifically speaking, bamboo is not a tree but grass.
  • However, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 considered it as the tree. Accordingly, cutting bamboo from outside forests and transporting it was made unlawful as per the Forest Act, 1927.
  • Following the amendment after 90 years in the Indian Forest Act 1927 in 2017, bamboo has been removed from the category of a tree.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

Growth rate of GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product) at constant prices (2011 - 12) for the year 2017 - 18 in Rajasthan was

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

The correct answer is 7.16%.

Key Points

  • The growth rate of GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product) at constant prices (2011 - 12) for the year 2017 - 18 in Rajasthan was 7.16%.

Additional Information

  • As per Provisional Estimate (PE) of the ministry of statistics and programme implementation, GoI, the real GDP of all India at Constant (2011-12) Prices for the year 2017-18 is reached a level of ₹130.11 lakh crore, as against ₹121.96 lakh crore in the year 2016-17, the growth in GDP during 2017-18 is estimated at 6.7 as compared to the growth rate of 7.1 per cent in 2016-17.
  • Whereas the real GSDP of Rajasthan at constant (2011-12) prices as per advance estimates for the year 2017-18 is reached a level of ₹6.42 lakh crore, as against ₹5.99 lakh crore in the year 2016-17, the growth in GSDP during 2017-18 is estimated at 7.16 per cent as compared to the growth rate of 7.33 per cent in 216-17. The GSDP is approximately 4.93 per cent of the country’s GDP.
  • State domestic product 2017-2018: https://plan.rajasthan.gov.in/content/dam/planning-portal/Directorate of Economics and Statistics/Publication/Regular Publications/state domestic product rajasthan/State Domestic Product 2017-18.pdf
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

Who among the following negotiated Subordinate Alliances of 1817-18 with the Princely States of Rajputana?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

The correct answer is Charles Metcalf.

  • Charles Metcalf negotiated Subordinate Alliances of 1817 - 18 with the Princely States of Rajputana.

​​Important Points

  • Charles Metcalf
    • Sir Charles Metcalfe was appointed as Governor-General of India from 1835-36.
    • He had succeeded Lord William Bentinck.

Key Points

  • Subordinate Alliances of 1817-18
    • Lord Wellesley and Lord Hastings (1813-1823) want to established British paramountcy in India for which destruction of the Marathas and the Pindaris were required.
    • He looked upon the Rajputana States as his natural allies against the Marathas and the Pindaris.
    • Charles Metcalf, the British Resident at Delhi, negotiated alliances with the princely states of Rajasthan.
    • By these treaties, the princely States of Rajasthan came under the complete subordination of the British.

Additional Information

  • Administration of Princely States
    • Under subordination alliance, the princely states of Rajasthan were governed through Rajputana Agency.
    • The Rajputana Agency was under the political charge of an Agent.
    • He had to report directly to the Governor-General of India.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

Proposed oil refinery at Pachpadra, Barmer is a joint venture of

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

Proposed oil refinery at Pachpadra, Barmer is a joint venture of HPCL and Government of Rajasthan.
Key Points
Oil refinery at Pachpadra Rajasthan

  • The Pachpadra refinery project, also known as the Rajasthan refinery and petrochemical complex project (RRP).
  • The project is being executed by HPCL Rajasthan Refinery (HRRL), a joint venture between Hindustan Petroleum (HPCL, 74%) and the Government of Rajasthan (26%).
  • With a processing capacity of nine million tonnes of crude oil per annum (mtpa).
  • The refinery complex will produce environment-friendly clean fuel.
  • The construction of the Barmer refinery project was launched in January 2018 with the start of commercial operations expected by 2022.
  • It is expected to create employment opportunities for approximately 30,000 people.

Additional Information
The following is a list of oil important refineries in India as per the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India.

RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

What is the state flower of Rajasthan as found in the Desert National Park?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Rohida, also known as Tecomella undulata, is the state flower of Rajasthan. It thrives in the semi-arid environment of the Desert National Park.

RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

What is the percentage of urban population in India and Rajasthan respectively as per Census 2011?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

The correct answer is 31.15% and 24.87%.

  • The percentage of the urban population in India and Rajasthan is 31.15% and 24.87% respectively as per Census 2011.

Important Points

  • Rajasthan Urban Population 2011

Key Points

  • Rajasthan Urban Population 2011​
    • Out of the total population of Rajasthan, 24.87% of people live in urban regions.
    • The total figure of the population living in urban areas is 17,048,085 of which 8,909,250 are males and while remaining 8,138,835 are females.
    • The urban population in the last 10 years has increased to 24.87 per cent.
    • Sex Ratio in urban regions of Rajasthan was 914 females per 1000 males.
    • For child (0-6) sex ratio the figure for the urban region stood at 874 girls per 1000 boys.
    • Total children (0-6 age) living in urban areas of Rajasthan were 2,234,621.
    • Of the total population in the urban region, 13.11 % were children (0-6).
    • Average Literacy rate in Rajasthan for Urban regions was 79.68 per cent in which males were 87.91% literate while female literacy stood at 63.81%.
    • Total literates in urban region of Rajasthan were 11,803,496.
  • The total urban population in the country
    • The total urban population in the country as per Census 2011 is more than 377 million constituting 31.16% of the total population.
    • Class I UAs/Towns:
      • The UAs/Towns are grouped on the basis of their population in Census.
      • The UAs/Towns which have at least 1,00,000 persons as a population are categorised as Class I UA/Town.
      • At the Census 2011, there are 468 such UAs/Towns.
      • The proportion has increased considerably over the last Census. In the remaining classes of towns, the growth has been nominal
    • Million Plus UAs/Towns:
      • Out of 468 UAs/Towns belonging to Class I category, 53 UAs/Towns each has a population of one million or above each.
      • Known as Million Plus UAs/Cities, these are the major urban centres in the country.
    • Mega-Cities:
      • Among the Million Plus UAs/Cities, there are three very large UAs with more than 10 million persons in the country, known as Mega-Cities.
      • These are Greater Mumbai UA (18.4 million), Delhi UA (16.3 million) and Kolkata UA (14.1 million).
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

Which statements are correct from the following?

(A) Marble development and Conservation Rule - 2002

(B) Rajasthan Mineral Policy - 2015

(C) District Mineral Foundation Trust Rules - 2016

(D) Rajasthan Minor Mineral Concession Rules (Amended upto May 2016)

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

The correct answer is option D.

Key Points

  • Marble Development and Conservation Rule - 2002
    • Notified by Government of India in 2002.
  • Rajasthan Mineral Policy - 2015
    • Rajasthan Mineral Policy 2015 released by the chief minister Vasundhara Raje.
    • It raises the mineral exploitation area in the state to 1.5% from the existing 0.54%.
  • District Mineral Foundation Trust Rules - 2016
    • Rajasthan state government issued notification dated 31-05-2016, enacted DMFT Rules, 2016.
    • It will establish District Mineral Foundation trust in each district of the state as a non-profit body in the mining operation affected districts.
  • Rajasthan Minor Mineral Concession Rules (Amended up to May 2016)
    • ​In exercise of the powers conferred by section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
    • The State Government repealed the Rajasthan Mineral Concession Rules, 1986.
    • The new rules are called the Rajasthan Minor Mineral Concession (Amendment) Rules, 2016. 

Additional Information

  • As per the available legislations in the country, all minerals have been classified into two categories namely:
  • Major Mineral
    • Major Mineral are minerals like Agate, Asbestos, Barytes, Bauxite, Cadmium, Calcite, China Clay, Coal, Copper Lead, Manganese, Mica, Nickel, Rock Phosphate, Soapstone, Tungsten, Wollastonite, Zinc, etc.
    • It is specified in Second Schedule appended with the MMDR Act 1957.
  • Minor Mineral
    • The Minor Minerals are Building Stone, Gravel, Ordinary Clay, Ordinary Sand and any other mineral which the Central Government may by notification in the official Gazette declare as Minor Mineral.
    • The Minor Minerals are Bajri Brick Earth, Chips and Powder making minerals, Diorite, Granite, Kankar, Limestone, Marble, Masonry stones, Sand Stone, Serpentine and other Decorative Stone, etc.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

The Bharat Electronics Ltd. (BEL) is collaborating with ISRO to develop

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

The correct answer is GaAs solar cells.

  • Bharat Electronics Ltd. (BEL) is collaborating with ISRO to develop GaAs solar cells.

Key Points

  • GaAs solar cells
    • One of the most popular III-V semiconductor materials used in Photovoltaic applications is gallium arsenide (GaAs).
    • GaAs has high electron mobility and high saturated electron velocity, which allows gallium arsenide transistors to operate at frequencies in excess of 250 GHz.

Additional Information

  • ​ISRO or the Indian Space Research Organisation
    • The Indian Space Research Organisation or is the national space agency India.
    • It is headquartered in Bengaluru.
    • It operates under the Department of Space which is directly overseen by the Prime Minister of India.
    • The chairman of ISRO acts as the executive of DoS as well.
  • Bharat Electronics Ltd. (BEL)
    • ​Bharat Electronics Limited is an Indian state-owned aerospace and defence company.
    • It is owned by the Indian Government.
    • It manufactures advanced electronic products for the Indian Armed Forces.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

Match the following:

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

The correct answer is (A) - (iv), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iii).

Important Points

Key Points

Major irrigation projects of Rajasthan

Additional Information

Major irrigation projects of India

RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

The 22nd edition of the Malabar Trilateral Naval exercise was held in June 2018. Beside India which other two countries took part in this exercise ?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

The correct answer is Japan and United States of America.

Key Points

  • The 22nd edition of the Malabar trilateral naval exercise of the US, Japan and India kicked off on June 7 at Guam in the Pacific Ocean and will continue till June 16.
  • The Malabar exercise usually features both ashore and at-sea training.
  • This is the first time that the prestigious Malabar exercise is being conducted off Guam, a major US Naval Base in the Western Pacific.
  • While the harbour phase was held from June 7 to June 10, the sea phase is being conducted from June 11 to June 16.
  • The sea phase will feature live aircraft carrier operations, air defence, anti-submarine warfare, surface warfare, visit, board, search and seizure (VBSS), joint manoeuvres and tactical procedures.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 25
On a construction site, men, women and children are working in the ratio of 9 ∶ 4 ∶ 1. Their wages are in the ratio of 8 ∶ 5 ∶ 3. If 60 women are working on this site, then total daily wages of all persons is Rs. 2,850. Daily wages of a child is equal to
Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Given:

Total women working in the site = 60

Ratio of men, women and children = 9 ∶ 4 ∶ 1

Ratio of wages of men, women and children = 8 ∶ 5 ∶ 3

∴ Let the number of men, women and children be 9x, 4x and x

Number of women is 60

⇒ 4x = 60 or x = 15

∴ Number of men = 9 × 15 = 135

Number of children = 15

Let their wages men, women and children be 8x, 5x and 3x

⇒ 135 × 8x + 60 × 5x + 15 × 3x = 2,850

⇒ 1425x = 2850 or x = 2

∴ Daily wages of a child = 3 × 2 = Rs. 6

RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

The correct answer is 4.

  • Social Reform Association was formed by Veeresalingam Pantulu.

Important Points

Key Points

  • Veeresalingam Pantulu
    • Rao Bahadur Kandukuri Veeresalingam Pantulu was considered as the ‘Father of renaissance movement in Telugu.
    • He was born at Rajahmundry, Andhra Pradesh.
    • He was a social reformer and writer from Madras Presidency.
    • This article briefly shares the chronology of important events in his life including his 5 important works.
    • Veeresalingam Pantulu founded the Rajahmundry Social Reform Association in 1878.

Additional Information

  • Servants of India Society
    • ​The Servants of India Society was formed in Pune, Maharashtra, in 1905 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
    • Initially, he was associated with the Deccan Education Society.
  • Social Service League
    • Narayan Malhar Joshi was an Indian trade union leader.
    • He was the follower of Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
    • Joshi got involved in labour issues and started the All India Trade Union Congress in 1920 along with Lala Lajpat Rai.
    • He was the general secretary of AITUC from 1925 to 1929 and from 1940 to 1948.
    • In 1931, he left AITUC and started the All India Trade Union Federation.
    • In 1911, Joshi established an organization called the Social Service League.
  • Seva Samiti
    • Seva Samiti was another organization founded by a prominent member of the Servants of India Society, Hridayanath Kunzru.
    • He founded in 1914 the Seva Samiti at Allahabad.
    • The Seva Samiti had as its objective to organise social service during natural disasters like floods and epidemics.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

Choose the correct chronological order of the following events:

(i) Lucknow Pact

(ii) Formation of the Swaraj Party

(iii) Jallianwala Massacre

(iv) Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Select the answer from the following code:

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

The correct answer is (i), (iii), (iv) & (ii).

  • The correct chronological order of the following events is first Lucknow Pact, second Jallianwala Massacre, third Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and fourth Formation of Swaraj Party.

Key Points

  • Lucknow Pact:
    • ​The Lucknow Pact was an agreement between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
    • A joint session of both the parties held in Lucknow in December 1916.
    • Through the pact, the two parties agreed to allow representation to religious minorities in the provincial legislatures.
  • Jallianwala Massacre:
    • ​The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre.
    • It took place on 13 April 1919, when Acting Brigadier-General Dyer ordered troops of the British Indian Army to fire their rifles into a crowd of unarmed Indian civilians in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar.
    • It killed at least 379 people.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
    • Place of Birth:
      • Ratnagiri, Maharashtra on 23 July 1856
    • Association:
      • Indian National Congress,
      • Indian Home Rule League,
      • Deccan Educational Society
    • Movement:
      • Indian Independence Movement
    • Political Ideology:
      • Nationalism
      • Extremism
    • Publications:
      • The Arctic Home in the Vedas (1903);
      • Srimad Bhagvat Gita Rahasya (1915)
    • Passed Away: 1 August 1920
  • ​Formation of the Swaraj Party:
    • ​The Swaraj Party was established as the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party.
    • It was a political party formed in India on 1 January 1923.
    • It was formed after the Gaya annual conference in December 1922 of the National Congress.
    • The main intent of the organisation self-government and political freedom for the Indian people from the British Raj.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

Eleventh Five Year Plan emphasised on_____.

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

The correct answer is Faster and more inclusive growth.

Key Points

  • Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007–2012) focused on faster and more inclusive growth.

Additional Information

  • Eleventh Plan (2007–2012)
    • It was in the period of Manmohan Singh as the prime minister.
    • It aimed to increase the enrolment in higher education of 18–23 years of age group by 2011–12.
    • It focused on distant education, the convergence of formal, non-formal, distant, and IT education institutions.
    • Rapid and inclusive growth (poverty reduction).
    • Emphasis on the social sector and delivery of service therein.
    • Empowerment through education and skill development.
    • Reduction of gender inequality.
    • Environmental sustainability.
    • It aimed to increase the growth rate in agriculture, industry, and services to 4%, 10%, and 9% respectively.
    • Reduce the total fertility rate to 2.1.
    • Provide clean drinking water for all by 2009.
    • Increase agriculture growth to 4%.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Who created the department of Diwan-i-Arz in Delhi Sultanate?

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Balban created the department of Diwan-i-Arz in Delhi Sultanate.
Key Points

  • Diwan-i-Arz
    • Diwan-i-Arz in Delhi Sultanate was established by Balban.
    • Diwan-i-Arz was essentially the Department of Military managed by Ariz-i-Mamalik.
    • He was accountable for the regulation and preservation of the royal army.

Additional Information
Administration under the Sultanate:

  • It was also influenced by the Iranian system of administration.
  • The situation in India and Indian traditions was kept in mind during these systems.
  • Organs of the Government:
    • Diwan-i-Wizarat:
      • Department of revenue and finance headed by the Wazir.
    • Diwan-i-Arz:
      • Department of Military headed by Ariz-i-Mamalik.
    • Diwan-i- Insha:
      • Department of royal correspondence headed by Dabir-i-lnsha.
    • Diwan-i-Risalat:
      • Department of religious affairs headed by the chief Qazi.
    • Diwan-i-bandagan:
      • Diwan-i-bandagan (department of slaves) and Diwan-i-Khairat (charity department) was created by Firuz Shah Tughluq.
    • Diwan-i-mustakharaj:
      • Diwan-i-mustakharaj (to realise arrears) was created by Alauddin Khiiji.
    • Diwan- i-kohi:
      • Diwan- i-kohi (department of agriculture) was created by Muhammad bin Tughluq.
RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

Which of the following statements are correct in context of Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission?

(A) It was constituted on 18, January, 1999 by notification issued by Government of Rajasthan.

(B) The Commission became functional from March, 2000.

(C) Rajasthan Human Rights Commission is having one chairperson and 3 members in accordance with the provision of the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006.

(D) One of its former Chairman's has retired judge of Supreme Court of India.

Select the correct answer using code given below:

Detailed Solution for RPSC RAS Prelims Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

The correct answer is Option B.

Key Points

  • It was constituted on 18, January 1999 by the notification issued by the Government of Rajasthan. Hence statement A is correct.
  • The Commission became functional in March 2000. Hence statement B is correct.
  • Rajasthan Human Rights Commission is having one chairperson and 2 members in accordance with the provision of the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. Hence the statement C is incorrect.
  • One of its former Chairman's has retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. Hence the statement D is correct.

Additional Information

  • Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission
    • The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of not only the National Human Rights Commission but also a State Human Rights Commission at the state level.
    • A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights related to subjects covered under state list (List II) and concurrent list (List III) in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
    • The State Government of Rajasthan issued a Notification on January 18, 1999, for the constitution of the State Commission in accordance with the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights Act,1993.
  • Composition of the State Human Rights Commission:
    • The State Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and two members.
    • The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of a High Court.
    • Other members should be:
      • Serving or retired judge of a High Court or a District Judge in the state with a minimum
      • Of seven years of experience as District Judge
      • A person of knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.
  • The chairperson and members are appointed by the Governor on the recommendations of a committee consisting of:
    • The chief minister as its head,
    • The speaker of the Legislative Assembly,
    • The state home minister and
    • The leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly.
    • In the case of a state having a Legislative Council, the chairman of the Council and the leader of the opposition in the Council would also be the members of the committee.
    • A sitting judge of a High Court or a sitting District Judge can be appointed only after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned state.
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