UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  Additional Study Material for UPSC  >  UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test Additional Study Material for UPSC - UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 for UPSC 2024 is part of Additional Study Material for UPSC preparation. The UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 below.
Solutions of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 questions in English are available as part of our Additional Study Material for UPSC for UPSC & UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 solutions in Hindi for Additional Study Material for UPSC course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Additional Study Material for UPSC for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 1

Consider the following statements about India in the 18th century:
1.  India imported foreign goods on a large scale through European Companies.
2.  The regional kingdoms that arose after the decline of the Mughals provided stable conditions for development of trade with the Europeans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 1

Statement 1 is incorrect. Around 18th century, India enjoyed balance of trade in her favour. India did not require any goods from outside, rather Indian goods had a very good market outside.  

Statement 2 is incorrect. After Mughals, political conditions became unstable which had a detrimental effect on trade as well. 

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 2

With reference to the Zonal Councils in India consider the following statements:

1. The States have been divided into four zones.
2. The Zonal Councils are headed by the Union Home Minister.
3. The Zonal Councils are extraconstitutional bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 2
  •  The Zonal Councils provide a forum where irritants between the Centre and the States and among the States themselves can be resolved through free and frank discussions and consultations.
  • The States have been divided into five zones and each zone has its Council comprising the Chief Minister, two Ministers and the Chief Secretary of each State.
  • The Zonal Councils are headed by the Union Home Minister and each zone nominates one Chief Minister as its Vice-Chairman on rotation basis.
  • The Zonal Councils are statutory (and not constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
  • The Act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a Zonal Council for each zone.
  • The North Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of the Parliament — the North Eastern Council Act of 1971. Its members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim. Its functions are similar to those of the Zonal Councils, but with a few additions. It has to formulate a unified and co-ordinated regional plan covering the matters of common importance. It has to review, from time to time, the measures taken by the member states for the maintenance of security and public order in the region.
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 3

Which one of the following statements best describes the term “Clean meat”, sometimes seen in news?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 3

"Cultivated meat", also called clean meat. Clean meat is grown in a lab from a small sample of cells taken from an animal, instead of breeding and slaughtering animals. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

  • Mumbai will become the world‘s first city to host a dedicated research centre to laboratory-grown - clean meat‘.
  • The idea behind promoting the practice of lab-grown clean meat is to allow consumers to enjoy eating animal products without supporting inhumane and unsustainable industrial animal agriculture.
  • Plant-based meat is produced using plant ingredients like proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. India is uniquely poised to be a leader in this sector as crops such as millets, ragi, pulses and chickpeas which grow here are ideal raw ingredients for plant-based meats.
  • Forests are being overgrazed by buffaloes and goats which are used for dairy or meat. Furthermore, greenhouse gas emissions from the meat industry are high. These factors also pushed for the development of clean and plant-based food.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 4

Which of the following is correct regarding Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS)?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 4
  • There are three categories of CSS – Core of the core (States must compulsorily participate. For example, MGNREGA), Core and optional (States may or may not join). So, option (a) is not correct.
  • There is no uniform funding. For North-East and hilly areas receive 90% Central Government funding. So, option (b) is not correct.
  • Agriculture is a State list. Yet CSS exist for Agriculture. For Example, Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana. So, option (c) is correct. 
  • State governments are allowed to modify CSS. So, option (d) is not correct.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Brahmo Sabha:

1. Its purpose was to purify Hinduism and to preach theism.
2. Tarachand Chakravarti was the first secretary of the Brahmo Sabha.
3. It was opposed to idolatry.
4. The new society was to be based on the Vedas only. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 5

In 1828, Tarachand was appointed the first secretary of the Brahma Samaj. For some time Tarachand was a Munsef in Jahanabad (Hoogly district), but following a conspiracy, he had to resign.

In all fields of social reform, including abolition of the caste system and of the dowry system, emancipation of women, and improving the educational system, the Brahmo Samaj reflected the ideologies of the Bengal Renaissance.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 6

With reference to the provisions of InterState Trade and Commerce of our Constitution, consider the following
statements:
1. The State Legislature can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse with other state.
2. Bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature, only with the previous sanction of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 6

The freedom guaranteed by Article 301 is
a freedom from all restrictions, except
those which are provided for in the other
provisions (Articles 302 to 305) of Part
XIII of the Constitution itself.

These are explained below:

  • The Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse between the states or within a state in public interest. But, the Parliament cannot give preference to one state over another or discriminate between the states, except in the case of scarcity of goods in any part of India.
  • The legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse with that state or within state in public interest.
    But, a Bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the President. Further, the State Legislature cannot give preference to one state over another or discriminate between the states. The legislature of a state can impose reasonable restriction on goods imported from other states or the union territories any tax to which similar goods manufactured in that state are subject. This provision prohibits the imposition of discriminatory taxes by the state.
  • The freedom (under Article 301) is subject to the nationalisation laws (i.e., laws providing for monopolies in favour of the Centre or the states). Thus, the Parliament or the State Legislature can make laws for the carrying on by the respective government of any trade, business, industry or service, whether to the exclusion, complete or partial, of citizens or otherwise.
    The Parliament can appoint an
    appropriate authority for carrying out the purposes of the above provisions relating to the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, and restrictions on it. The Parliament can also confer on that authority the
    necessary powers and duties. But, no such authority has been appointed so far.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 7

Which of the movements/associations were associated with the empowerment of Dalits or backward castes?
1. Aravipuram movement
2. Praja Mitra Mandali
3. Kuka movement

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 7

Aravipuram movement

  • The movement was launched by Sri Narayana Guru on Shivratri day of 1888. On that day, Sri Narayana Garu defied the religious restriction traditionally placed Ezhava caste and consecrated an idol of Shiva at Aravipuram.
  • It was a historic event, because a member of a lower caste, forbidden from entering the temple, had himself consecrated the Shiva image in a temple. On the wall of the temple, Sri Narayana Guru inscribed the words: "Devoid of the dividing walls of caste or race or hatred of rival faith, we all live here in brotherhood."
  • In the early years of the 20th century, the Aravipuram movement was given new vigour when two new leaders, Dr Palpu and Kumaran Asan, joined Sri Narayana Guru, Dr Palpu was the first Ezhva to receive education in Western medicine. Kumaran Asan was a well-known writer and poet Thus invigorated, the movement began to condemn the caste system as the basis of Hindu social structure.
  • Hence, option 1 is correct.

​Praja Mitra Mandali

  • C. R. Reddy, an ardent champion of the non-Brahmin movement in Madras directed his non-Brahmin campaign to get special treatment for non-Brahmins and gradually forged the leaders of Vokkaliga, Lingayat and Muslim communities into formal political association. By 1917, Reddy ventured to give shape and form to the anti-Brahmin feeling with the help of two prominent citizens of Mysore namely M. Basavaiah and H. Channaiah as well as a few Muslim leaders. What Dr T.M. Nair and Thyagaraya Chetti were to Madras, Basavaiah and Channaiah were to Mysore.
  • This eventually led to the foundation of Praja Mitra Mandali political party in the Princely State of Mysore which greatly influenced on the backward class movement. It advocated equal opportunities and adequate representations in public services for all communities. It urged for concessions to non-Brahmins and backward castes in education, government, employment and political representations.
  • Hence, option 2 is correct.

​Kuka movement

  • The Kuka movement was founded by Bhagwat Jawar Mal, generally known as Sian Sahib in th e 1840s. The members of this movement, while chanting hymns, emitted cries (Kooks), hence they were called Kukas. The tenets of the Kuka movement were -:
    • To have faith in Guru Govind Singh as the only true Guru
    • To oppose caste distinctions in Sikhism
    • To oppose the worship of idols, tombs and ascetics.
    • To abstain from meat, liquor and drugs.
  • Thus, the main purpose of this movement was to purify Sikhism by removing certain abuses and superstitions that crept into it from Hinduism. The movement became popular among the Namdhari Sikhs. Later on the Kukas went against the British rule. This movement was in existence till 1885.
  • Hence, option 3 is correct.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 8

Consider the following statements about women members of Parliament in the seventeenth (17th) Lok Sabha:

1. No women member of Lok Shaba belongs to Kerala.
2. The maximum number of women members belongs to Maharashtra.
3. Their total number is less than 15 percentage of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 8

Haridas Ramya of Indian national congress won in Alathu, kerala. So statement 1 is not correct.

Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal has 11 members. Maharashtra has only 8 members. So, Statement 2 is not correct. 

Their total number of percentage is 14.44% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 9

Which of the following were/was a member of Home Rule League:

1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
2. George Sydney Arundale
3. S. Subramaniya Iyer 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 9

Option (b) is the correct answer. 

Two Home Rule Leagues were started in 1915-16, one under the leadership of lokmanya Tilak and the other under the leadership of Annie Besant and S. Subramanian Iyer.
George Sydney Arundale was the third president of the Theosophical Society from 1934 to 1945. He was the organizing secretary of the All India Home Rule League and was interned by the government along with Annie Besant and B.P wadia.
G K Gokhale was not a member of the Home Rule League.
KB) The Indian Home Rule movement was a movement in British India on the lines of Irish Home Rule movement and other home rule movements. The movement lasted around two years between 1916–1918 and is believed to have set the stage for the independence movement under the leadership of Annie Besant all over India whereas B. G. Tilak participation was limited to the educated English speaking upper class Indians. In 1921 All India Home Rule League changed its name to Swarajya Sabha 

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and the State Administrative Tribunal (SAT):
1. The Constitution empowers the Parliament to constitute an Administrative Tribunal.
2. CAT exercises appellate jurisdiction over cases of recruitment and all service matters of the public servants.
3. CAT is guided by the principle of Natural Justice.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 10
  • The original Constitution did not have the provision of a Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT). The 42nd Amendment added a new part XIV-A having 2 Articles, 323-A dealing with the Administrative Tribunals, while 323-B dealing with tribunals for other matters.
  • Article 323 A empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of Administrative Tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of person appointed to Public Office.
  • CAT is not bounded by the procedure laid down by the Civil Procedure Code, rather is governed by the principle of Natural Justice.
  • CAT exercises original jurisdiction over recruitment and all service matters of the public servants covered by it.
  • Appeal against the order of CAT is made before the High Courts as per the Chandra Kumar case, 1997.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 11

Which of the following are the features of a federal government?

1. Division of powers between the national and regional government
2. Flexible constitution
3. Supremacy of the Constitution
4. Bicameral legislature

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 11

The federal features of the Constitution of India are explained below:

  • The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union at the Centre and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution. The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • The Constitution is not only a written document but also the lengthiest Constitution of the world. It specifies the structure, organisation, powers and functions of both the Central and state governments and prescribes the limits within which they must operate. The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must conform to its provisions. Otherwise, they can be declared invalid by the Supreme Court or the high courts through their power of judicial review. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
  • The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states.
  • The Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Rajya Sabha) and a Lower House (Lok Sabha). The Rajya Sabha represents the states of Indian Federation, while the Lok Sabha represents the people of India as a whole. The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of the states against the undue interference of the Centre. Hence, option 4 is correct.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 12

Consider the following statements about Shanta Kumar committee recommendations:

1. Downsize Food Corporation of India (FCI) by outsourcing many of its tasks to State governments, public sector bodies and private companies.
2. Whenever FCI’s inventories have grains above buffer norms, it should sell excess stock in open market only by decision of high-powered committee.
3. Popularize Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWRs) system for the benefit of farmers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 12

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Important recommendations made by Shanta kumar committee:

  • Reduce the number of beneficiaries under the Food Security Act—from the current 67 per cent to 40 per cent.
  • Allow private players to procure and store food grains.
  • Stop bonuses on minimum support price (MSP) paid by states to farmers, and adopt cash transfer system so that MSP and food subsidy amounts can be directly transferred to the accounts of farmers and food security beneficiaries.
  • FCI should involve itself in full-fledged grains procurement only in those states which are poor in procurement. In the case of those states which are performing well, like Haryana, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, the states should do the procurement.
  • Abolishing levy rice: Under levy rice policy, government buys certain percentage of rice (varies from 25 to 75 per cent in states) from the mills compulsorily, which is called levy rice. Mills are allowed to sell only the remainder in the open market.
  • Deregulate fertiliser sector and provide cash fertiliser subsidy of Rs 7,000 per hectare to farmers.
  • Outsource of stocking of grains: The committee calls for setting up of negotiable warehouse receipt (NWR) system. In the new system, farmers can deposit their produce in these registered warehouses and get 80 per cent of the advance from bank against their produce on the basis of MSP.
  • Clear and transparent liquidation policy for buffer stock: FCI should be given greater flexibility in doing business; it should offload surplus stock in open market or export, as per need.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 13

McrBC, recently seen in the news is a/an?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 13

Option (b) is the correct answer.
A team of scientists at the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER) have determined the atomic structure of McrBC, which prevents viral infections in bacteria.
McrBC is a complex bacterial protein which helps prevent viral infections in a bacterial cell and functions as a molecular scissors.
The pathbreaking structure of the McrBC was published last month in two prestigious, peer - reviewed scientific journals — Nature Communications and Nucleic Acids Research — and is said to be a major step towards understanding the workings of the molecular scissors. This is the first report of the high-resolution structure from India determined using electron cryomicroscopy, commonly known as cryo-EM.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding special provision granted to the Union Territory of Delhi:
1. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor.
2. The 79th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 14
  • The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi. It also designated the administrator as the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.
  • The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the President. The other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Assembly.
  • In the case of difference of opinion between the Governor and the ministers, the Lieutenant Governor is to refer the matter to the President for decision and act accordingly.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA):
1. It was founded in 1924 by Sachindra Nath Sanyal and other revolutionaries.
2. In 1928, revolutionaries began to move away from acts of violence under the influence of socialist ideas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 15

Statement 1 is correct: The failure of Non-Cooperation movement had led to the revival of the revolutionary movements. After an All India Conference, the Hindustan Republican Association was founded in October 1924 to organise the armed revolution. It was founded by Sachindra Nath Sanyal and other revolutionaries. The government struck it at by arresting a large number of youth and trying them in Kakori Conspiracy Case (1925). Seventeen were sentenced to long term of imprisonment, four were transported for life, and four, including Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqulla, were hanged. ·

Statement 2 is correct: The revolutionaries soon came under the influence of socialist ideas, and in 1928, under the leadership of Chandra Shekhar Azad changed the name of their organization to the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). They also gradually began to move away from the individual action and act of violence. The HSRA leadership also decided to let the people know about their changed political objectives and the need for revolution by the masses.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 16

Consider the following statements
1. The Legislative Councils in a State in India can be created or abolished by the President after the State Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
2. Currently in India, only Six States have their own Legislative Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 16

According to article 169, After the passage of resolution, central government has to approve it.
Then only president can give assent to the bill. So, statement 1 is not correct.

As of 2019 before the bifurcation of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, 7had a State Legislative Council. But currently only 6 states Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka have legislative council. So, statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Article 169 states: Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States
(1) Notwithstanding anything in Article 168, Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting
(2) Any law referred to in clause (1) shall contain such provisions for the amendment of this Constitution as may be necessary to give effect to the provisions of the law and may also contain such supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions as Parliament may deem necessary.
(3) No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 17

The Op-Blue Freedom, recently seen in the news is related to?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 17

Option (a) is the correct answer. 

After the success of the Chandigarh leg, Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju and former India football captain Baichung Bhutia recently flagged off the Delhi leg of Op-Blue Freedom. Op-Blue Freedom is a nation-wide adaptive scuba diving programme for people with disabilities as well as the able bodied. This is an initiative in which a group of armed forces veterans train adventure enthusiasts in Special Forces skills like survival techniques, emergency first response skills, unarmed combat, endurance and fitness.
PROBLUE is a new Umbrella Multi-Donor Trust Fund (MDTF), housed at the World Bank that supports healthy and productive oceans. PROBLUE supports implementation of Sustainable Development Goal 14 (SDG 14) and is fully aligned with the World Bank’s twin goals of ending extreme poverty and increasing the income and welfare of the poor in a sustainable way. PROBLUE is part of the World Bank’s overall Blue Economy program, which takes a multi-pronged, coordinated approach to ensuring the protection and sustainable use of marine and coastal resources. 

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 18

Consider the following statements with regard to the Contingency Fund of India:
1. This Fund is placed at the disposal of the President and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure, pending its authorization by the Parliament.
2. The Fund is held by the Finance Secretary, on behalf of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 18
  • The Indian Constitution, under Article 267, authorizes the Parliament to establish a ‘Contingency Fund of India’, into which amounts determined by law are paid from time to time.
  • Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the Contingency Fund of India Act in 1950. This Fund is placed at the disposal of the President and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure, pending its authorization by the Parliament.
  • The Fund is held by the Finance Secretary, on behalf of the President. Like the Public Account of India, it is also operated by executive action.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 19

Indian constitution establishes an independent judiciary. The phrase 'independent judiciary' means:

1. other organs of the government should not arbitrarily interfere with the decision of the judiciary.
2. judges must be able to perform their functions without fear or favour.
3. there is absence of accountability of judges of the higher courts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 19

The principal role of the judiciary is to protect the rule of law and ensure supremacy of law. It safeguards the rights of the individual, settles disputes in accordance with the law and ensures that democracy does not give way to individual or group dictatorship. In order to be able to do all this, it is necessary that the judiciary is independent of any political pressures. Here, independence of judiciary means that

  • the other organs of the government like the executive and legislature must not restrain the functioning of the judiciary in such a way that it is unable to do justice.
  • the other organs of the government should not interfere with the decision of the judiciary. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • judges must be able to perform their functions without fear or favour. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Independence of the judiciary does not imply arbitrariness or absence of accountability. Judiciary is a part of the democratic political structure of the country. It is therefore accountable to the Constitution, to the democratic traditions and to the people of the country. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:
1. The first general elections (Parliamentary Elections) were held in India in the year 1950 following the ratification of Constitution.
2. Elections in India are based on single member constituencies and first-past-the post system of plurality voting

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 20

The Indian general election of 1951–52, held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952, was the first election to the LokSabha since India became independent in August 1947. It was conducted under the provisions of the Indian Constitution, which was adopted on 26 November 1949. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Elections to the LokSabha are carried out using a first-past-the-post electoral system. The country is split up into separate geographical areas, known as constituencies, and the electors can cast one vote each for a candidate, the winner being the candidate who gets the maximum votes. So, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 21

‘Intelights’, recently seen in the news is a/an:

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 21

Option (c) is the correct answer. 

'Intelights' is a 3-D Smart Traffic Signal, which uses dynamic signal control technology to adjust the timers of red, yellow and green lights according to the traffic density at an intersection.
Mohali traffic police have launched the 3-D Smart Traffic Signal devised by the students of a Chandigarh university 

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 22

Consider the following statements with regard to the Supreme Court:
1. The Prime Minister subscribes oath to the judges of the Supreme Court.
2. Judiciary is granted the role of the defender of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 22

A person appointed as a judge of the
Supreme Court, subscribe to an oath
before the President, or some person
appointed by him.
In his oath, a judge of the Supreme Court
swears:
1. to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India;
2. to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India;
3. to duly and faithfully and to the best of his ability, knowledge and judgement perform the duties of the office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will; and
4. to uphold the Constitution and the laws.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the State legislatures:
1. The Constitution of India fixes the maximum and minimum strength of the State legislative assemblies.
2. Governor can nominate one member having special knowledge in the field of Literature, science, art and social 
service.
3. Some members of legislative assemblies of some states can also be elected indirectly.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 23

Statement 1 is correct: Article 170 of the Constitution of India fixes the maximum and minimum strength of state legislative assemblies as 500 and 60 respectively. However, there are some exceptions in which some states have assemblies with less than 60 members e.g. Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh etc.
Statement 2 is not correct: Governor can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly. Anglo-Indian means a person whose father or any other male progenitor is or was of European descent. Originally this provision was to operate for ten years but was extended continuously since then and will end in 2020. ·
Statement 3 is correct: In Sikkim and Nagaland, some members of the state legislative assemblies are also elected indirectly.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 24

Consider the following statements about Speaker of Lok Sabha:
1. She/he has the power to summon the House even after prorogation.
2. She/he must vacate the office if She/he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. She/he has the power to adjourn the House sine die.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 24

The President summons the house after prorogation. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Speaker has to vacate his office in any of the following three cases:
1. if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
2. if he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; and
3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Lok Sabha. So, statement 2 is correct.

The speaker has the power to adjourn the House sine die. So, statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

  • Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period. In other words, when the House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die. The power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House. He can also call a sitting of the House before the date or time to which it has been adjourned or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.
  • Prorogation is done by the president of India. It not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 25

With reference to the Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC), consider the following statements:
1.  It is a sub-regional organisation comprising of India, ASEAN countries and China.
2.  It promotes the cultural exchange between the member countries. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 25

Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand and Vietnam for cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications. It was launched in 2000 at Vientiane, Lao PDR. Both the Ganga and the Mekong are civilizational rivers, and the MGC initiative aims to facilitate closer contacts among the people inhabiting these two major river basins.

Statement 2 is correct. The MGC is also indicative of the cultural and commercial linkages among the member countries of the MGC down the centuries. 

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 26

Which of the following amendments had enabled the High Courts to issue writs to any person or authority even outside its territorial jurisdiction, if the cause of action arises within its territorial limits?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 26

Constitutional (15th Amendment) Act, 1963

  1. Enabled the High Courts to issue writs to any person or authority even outside its territorial jurisdiction, if the cause of action arises within its territorial limits.
  2. Increased the retirement age of the High Court judges from 60 to 62 years.
  3. Provided for the appointment of retired judges of the High Courts as acting judges of the same court.
  4. Provided the compensatory allowance to judges who are transferring from one High Court to another.
  5. Enabled the retired judge of High Court to act as ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court.
  6. Provided for the procedure for determining the age of the Supreme Court and High Court judges.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 27

Consider the following statements about Nizam-ul-Mulk:
1. He laid the foundations of the state of Hyderabad.
2. He played a leading role in the overthrow of the Saiyid brothers.
3. He consolidated his power by establishing an orderly administration in the Deccan by abolishing jagirdari system of Mughal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 27
  • Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah was one of the leading nobles of the post-Aurangzeb era. He played a leading role in the overthrow of the Saiyid brothers and was rewarded with the viceroyalty of the Deccan.
  • From 1720 to 1722 he consolidated his hold over the Deccan by suppressing all opposition to his viceroyalty and organising the administration on efficient lines.
  • From 1722 to 1724 he was the teaser of the empire. But he soon got dis gusted with that office as the Emperor Muhammad Shah frustrated all his attempts at reforming the administration. So he decided to go back to the Deccan where he could safely maintain his supremacy. Here he laid the foundations of the Hyderabad State which he ruled with a strong hand.
  • He never openly declared his independence from the central government but in practice he acted like an independent ruler. He waged wars, concluded peace, conferred titles, and gave jagirs and offices without reference to Delhi. He followed a tolerant policy towards the Hindus. For example, a Hindu, Puran Chand, was his Dewan. ·
  • He consolidated his power by establishing an orderly administration in the Deccan on the basis of the jagirdari system on the Mughal pattern. He forced the big, turbulent zamindars to respect his authority and kept the powerful Marathas out of his dominions. He also made an attempt to rid the revenue system of its corruption. But after his death in 1748, Hyderabad fell a prey to the same disruptive forces as were operating at Delhi.
  • Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 28

What is meant by “Zero Hour”, the one of the phrases used in Parliamentary proceedings?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 28

The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (i.e. regular business of the House) is taken up. So, option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus it is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (ie, regular business of the House) is taken up. In other words, the time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been inexistence since 1962.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 29

Consider the following statement about ‘National Housing Bank’:
1.  It regulates the activities of housing finance companies.
2.  It was established through an act of parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 29

Option (c) is the correct answer. 

Statement 1 is correct. It is an apex agency that operates to promote housing finance institutions both at local as well as regional levels. It also provides financial and other support incidental to such institutions and for matters connected therewith. It regulates the activities of housing finance companies.

Statement 2 is correct. It was established in 1988, under National Housing Bank Act, 1987. It is an All India Financial Institution (AIFI). 

NHB has been established to achieve, inter alia, the following objectives:

  • To promote a sound, healthy, viable and cost-effective housing finance system to cater to all segments of the population and to integrate the housing finance system with the overall financial system.
  • To promote a network of dedicated housing finance institutions to adequately serve various regions and different income groups.
  • To augment resources for the sector and channelise them for housing.
  • To make housing credit more affordable.
  • To regulate the activities of housing finance companies based on regulatory and supervisory authority derived under the Act.
  • To encourage augmentation of supply of buildable land and also building materials for ho using and to upgrade the housing stock in the country.
  • To encourage public agencies to emerge as facilitators and suppliers of serviced land, for housing.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 30

The political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, because:

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 - Question 30
  • Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens, residing in any part of India, having a distinct language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. Further, no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language. The first provision protects the right of a group, while the second provision guarantees the right of a citizen as an individual, irrespective of the community to which he belongs.
  • Article 29 grants protection to both the religious minorities, as well as the linguistic minorities. However, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this Article is not necessarily restricted to the minorities only, as it is commonly assumed to be. This is because of the use of words ‘section of citizens’ in the Article that include minorities, as well as majority.
  • The Supreme Court also held that the right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Hence, the political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
View more questions
20 videos|561 docs|160 tests
Information about UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 19, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for UPSC

20 videos|561 docs|160 tests
Download as PDF

Top Courses for UPSC