Test: Weekly Current Affairs: August 15th to 21st - UPSC MCQ

The primary objective of Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) in agriculture is to evaluate the ratio of crop yield to the amount of nitrogen absorbed from the soil or fixed from the atmosphere. NUE measures how effectively a plant utilizes applied or naturally fixed nitrogen to produce biomass, which is crucial for sustainable agricultural practices. Achieving high NUE levels can help reduce fertilizer costs, minimize environmental pollution, and enhance overall agricultural productivity.

1. Poor NUE leads to significant financial losses globally due to the wastage of nitrogen fertilizers.

- Correct. Poor Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) indeed results in the wastage of nitrogen fertilizers, with significant financial losses amounting to approximately Rs 1 lakh crore annually in India and over USD 170 billion worldwide.

2. Nitrogen pollution primarily affects air quality but does not significantly impact water bodies.

- Incorrect. Nitrogen pollution affects both air and water bodies. It contributes to air pollution through nitrous oxide and ammonia emissions and causes water pollution by nitrate and ammonium leaching into soils, rivers, and lakes.

3. Nitrogen pollution contributes to both climate change and the degradation of biodiversity.

- Correct. Nitrogen pollution is a significant contributor to climate change due to the potent greenhouse gas nitrous oxide and also leads to the degradation of biodiversity by over-enriching ecosystems, causing soil acidity, and promoting invasive species over more sensitive plants and fungi.

Given these explanations, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the right answer.

1. CR Dhan 416: A rice variety suited for coastal saline regions - Correct. CR Dhan 416 is indeed a rice variety suitable for coastal saline regions and is resistant to diseases such as brown spot and rice tungro disease.

2. Durum Wheat Variety: Tolerant to heat and resistant to diseases - Correct. Durum wheat variety is developed for irrigated conditions in regions like Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, and is biofortified with higher levels of zinc and iron, along with being tolerant to heat and resistant to various diseases.

3. Nitrous Oxide: 300 times more potent than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas - Correct. Nitrous oxide is indeed 300 times more potent than methane and carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas, posing a significant threat to the ozone layer.

4. Nitrogen Pollution: Does not affect biodiversity - Incorrect. Nitrogen pollution significantly affects biodiversity. Excess nitrogen can lead to soil acidity, ecosystem over-enrichment, and the creation of "dead zones" in oceans, thus degrading soil health and promoting toxic algal blooms that disrupt marine ecosystems.

Thus, only pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched.

Answer: Option B: Only two pairs

Statement-I correctly highlights the consequences of nitrogen pollution on soil health and marine ecosystems. Excessive synthetic fertilizer application, as noted in Statement-II, can actually disrupt soil health by causing soil acidity, which does not balance soil productivity but rather harms it. 

The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) as enshrined in Article 44 of the Indian Constitution aims to promote equality and fraternity among all citizens by establishing a uniform civil code applicable to the entire nation. This initiative seeks to harmonize personal laws related to marriage, divorce, inheritance, and other civil matters to ensure equal rights for all individuals, irrespective of their religious or cultural backgrounds.

Statement 1: The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is indeed enshrined in Article 44 of the Constitution of India, which is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy. This statement is correct.

Statement 2: The Supreme Court in the Shayara Bano v. Union of India case declared the practice of triple talaq unconstitutional. This statement is correct.

Statement 3: The 21st Law Commission under Justice Balbir Singh Chauhan did not strongly recommend the immediate implementation of the UCC. Instead, in 2018, it published a consultation paper stating that a Uniform Civil Code is neither necessary nor desirable at the present time. This statement is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

1. Mohd. Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum Case, 1985 - Recommended implementing UCC
   This is correctly matched. In this case, the Supreme Court highlighted the neglect of Article 44 and recommended the implementation of the UCC.
2. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India, 1995 - Declared triple talaq unconstitutional
   This is incorrectly matched. In the Sarla Mudgal case, the Court underscored the necessity of implementing the UCC, but it did not address the issue of triple talaq.
3. John Vallamattom v. Union of India, 2003 - Emphasized the need for a UCC
   This is correctly matched. The Supreme Court reiterated the need for a UCC in this case.
4. Shayara Bano v. Union of India, 2017 - Regretted neglect of Article 44
   This is incorrectly matched. In the Shayara Bano case, the Supreme Court declared the practice of triple talaq unconstitutional and emphasized dignity and equality for Muslim women, but it did not specifically mention the neglect of Article 44.
   Hence, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Broiler chickens are specifically bred for rapid growth, achieving slaughter weight in a short span of about 4 to 6 weeks. This rapid growth rate is one of the key advantages of broiler chickens in poultry farming, making them a cost-effective choice for commercial production.

Statement 1 is correct: India ranks 3rd globally in egg production and 8th in meat production as per FAOSTAT data from 2020.
Statement 2 is correct: The poultry sector in India has indeed seen an average annual growth rate of 8% for meat and 7.45% for eggs from 2014-15 to 2021-22.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The provided information states that India exported poultry products to 64 countries, generating USD 134 million in revenue during the 2022-23 period, not over 70 countries and USD 200 million.
Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

1. Broiler Chickens - Specifically bred for meat production: Correct. Broiler chickens are specifically bred and raised for meat production.

2. Andhra Pradesh - Leading state in egg production in India: Correct. Andhra Pradesh is the leading state in egg production in India.

3. Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) - Elimination of Discrimination in Employment: Incorrect. The Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) pertains to the elimination of forced or compulsory labour, not discrimination in employment.

4. Cotton - India is the largest global producer by yield: Incorrect. While India is a major producer of cotton, it ranks 39th in terms of yield, not the largest by yield.

Thus, there are only two pairs correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly highlights the significant growth in the broiler chicken sector in India, with an annual meat production of approximately 5 million tonnes. Statement-II is also accurate, indicating that India ranks 3rd globally in meat production and 8th in egg production according to FAOSTAT data from 2020. Furthermore, Statement-II provides context to the growth and scale of the poultry industry in India, supporting and explaining the information presented in Statement-I. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II indeed elucidates Statement-I.

The Kosi-Mechi River Linking Project primarily focuses on enhancing irrigation by connecting the Kosi River with the Mechi River, aiming to provide annual irrigation for a significant area and supply water for domestic and industrial purposes. This project is designed to support agricultural lands and increase water availability in the region.

1. Statement 1 is correct: The Kosi-Mechi River Linking Project is indeed designed to provide annual irrigation for 4.74 lakh hectares, with 2.99 lakh hectares specifically in Bihar.

2. Statement 2 is correct: The National Water Development Agency (NWDA) oversees the Kosi-Mechi River Linking Project, which operates under the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect: The project has been criticized for lacking a significant flood control component, which is a major concern for the local residents in this flood-prone area. The focus of the project is primarily on enhancing irrigation rather than flood control.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

1. Kosi River : Originates in the inner valleys of the Himalayas in the Mahabharat range - Incorrect. The Kosi River originates within the catchment area of Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga in the Himalayas, not the Mahabharat range.

2. Mechi River : A tributary of the Mahananda River - Correct. The Mechi River is indeed a tributary of the Mahananda River.

3. National Perspective Plan (NPP) : Established by the Ministry of Jal Shakti in 1980 - Correct. The NPP was established in 1980 to enhance water resource management through inter-basin water transfers.

4. Kosi-Mechi River Linking Project : Overseen by the National Water Development Agency (NWDA) - Correct. The NWDA oversees the Kosi-Mechi River Linking Project.

Hence, three pairs are correctly matched.

The National TB Elimination Programme in India aims to eradicate tuberculosis entirely by the year 2025. This initiative focuses on comprehensive strategies to eliminate TB, including early detection, treatment, and prevention measures to achieve a TB-free India.

Statement 1 is correct. Subclinical TB is often diagnosed using imaging methods like chest X-rays or advanced molecular tests, as it might not be detectable through standard symptom-based screenings.

Statement 2 is correct. Individuals with subclinical TB do not exhibit typical TB symptoms but can still transmit the bacteria to others.

Statement 3 is incorrect. According to the National TB Prevalence Survey (2019-2021), subclinical TB represented 42.6% of TB cases, which is significantly more than 30%.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2 only.

1. Subclinical Tuberculosis - Diagnosed using chest X-rays or advanced molecular tests.
Correctly matched. Subclinical TB, which shows no typical symptoms, is often diagnosed using imaging methods like chest X-rays or advanced molecular tests.

2. Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) - Prevented with the Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine.
Incorrectly matched. The BCG vaccine is effective in preventing TB outside the lungs but does not protect against pulmonary TB or MDR-TB. MDR-TB is a type of TB that is resistant to first-line drugs and requires specific treatment regimens.

3. NTEP (National TB Elimination Programme) - Aiming to eliminate TB by 2025.
Correctly matched. The National TB Elimination Programme is indeed aimed at eliminating TB in India by 2025.

4. Ni-kshay Mitra Initiative - Provides Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT) to TB patients.
Correctly matched. The Ni-kshay Mitra Initiative is designed to provide Direct Benefit Transfers to TB patients to support their treatment.

Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, but pair 2 is not.

Answer: Option B

Statement-I discusses subclinical TB, stating that it is a type of TB infection with no typical symptoms associated with the disease, but this is incorrect as subclinical TB refers to cases where individuals show no typical symptoms but can still transmit the bacteria. Statement-II correctly describes the Global Tuberculosis Programme's goal of eradicating tuberculosis as a public health issue by 2030, aligning with the UN Sustainable Development Goals. Hence, Statement-II is correct while Statement-I is incorrect.

Lifestyle factors play a significant role in the rising cancer cases among men, as highlighted in the study. Unhealthy lifestyle choices such as tobacco use, excessive alcohol consumption, poor diet, lack of physical activity, and exposure to carcinogens contribute to the increased risk of developing cancer. It's essential for individuals to adopt healthy habits to reduce their cancer risk.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Panama Canal has indeed been experiencing a prolonged drought since early 2023, with rainfall in October 2023 recorded at 43% below average, leading to reduced ship traffic. The number of ships passing through the canal fell to as few as 22 vessels per day in December 2023, down from the usual 36 to 38 vessels.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The lower water levels in Lake Gatun have restricted the dimensions of vessels that can safely navigate the canal. Larger ships face a higher risk of grounding in shallower waters, and heavier ships require more water to be lifted adequately in the locks.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The disruptions in the Panama Canal have significant repercussions on global trade. The canal is responsible for 5% of global shipping, and its disruptions cause delays, increased fuel consumption, and potential GDP losses. Ships are forced to take longer routes, often traveling around the southern parts of South America, which is not an easy alternative.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2 only.

1. Drought conditions - Reduced passage of ships: Correct

The prolonged drought since early 2023 has led to reduced water levels in Lake Gatun, causing a decrease in the number of ships that can pass through the Panama Canal. This has reduced ship traffic significantly.

2. Lowered water levels - Restriction on size of ships: Correct

Lower water levels have indeed restricted the size of vessels that can navigate the canal, as larger ships face increased risks of grounding in the shallower areas.

3. Increased rainfall - Enhanced operational efficiency: Incorrect

The statement is incorrect because the current problem is not increased rainfall but rather reduced rainfall leading to drought conditions. Enhanced operational efficiency would likely result from stable and adequate water levels, not increased rainfall during a drought period.

4. Disruption in Panama Canal - Impact on global trade: Correct

Disruptions in the Panama Canal due to low water levels and reduced passage of ships have significantly impacted global trade, causing delays, increased fuel consumption, and potential GDP losses as ships are forced to take longer routes.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

The 3rd Voice of Global South Summit (VOGSS) hosted by India in 2024 focused on the theme "An Empowered Global South for a Sustainable Future." This theme underscores the importance of unity among countries of the Global South to address challenges and work towards a sustainable future. It reflects India's commitment to promoting cooperation and development initiatives within the Global South region.

The directive issued by the Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS) mandates that heads of government hospitals are responsible for filing a First Information Report (FIR) within six hours of any violence against healthcare workers on duty.
This policy places the onus on hospital leadership to take immediate action in cases of violence, reflecting a systemic approach to addressing the issue.
By designating hospital heads as the responsible parties for initiating legal proceedings, the directive aims to ensure a swift and standardized response to incidents of violence against healthcare workers, potentially deterring such acts and providing better protection for medical staff.

All three statements are correct based on the recent developments in the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership between India and Malaysia.

1. Bilateral trade between India and Malaysia reached a record high of USD 19.5 billion.

This statement is correct as both countries have emphasized strong economic ties and recorded significant trade volumes.

2. An MoU was signed to promote traditional medicine, including the creation of an Ayurveda Chair in Malaysia.

This statement is also correct. One of the MoUs signed during the visit was aimed at promoting traditional systems of medicine, specifically Ayurveda.

3. Malaysia expressed interest in joining the BRICS group with India's assistance.

This statement is accurate. Malaysia has shown interest in joining BRICS, and India has agreed to assist in this endeavor.

Therefore, all the statements provided are accurate, making Option D the correct answer.

1. Bilateral trade between India and Malaysia in 2023 - USD 19.5 billion: Correct. Bilateral trade between India and Malaysia reached a record high of USD 19.5 billion, highlighting their strong economic ties.

2. Year designated as Visit Malaysia Year - 2026: Correct. Malaysia has designated the year 2026 as Visit Malaysia Year, which was discussed during the visit.

3. Malaysia's inclusion in India's ITEC Programme - 50 seats: Incorrect. Malaysia welcomed an allocation of 100 seats for Malaysian students under India's ITEC Programme, not 50 seats.

4. ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement review process completion target - 2025: Correct. An agreement was made to expedite the review process of the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA), aiming for completion by 2025 to improve supply chain connectivity between India and ASEAN countries.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.