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Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - UPSC MCQ


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10 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 for UPSC 2024 is part of Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly preparation. The Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 below.
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Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 1

According to Article 105 of the Constitution, what right does it provide to Members of Parliament (MPs) in India?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 1

Article 105 of the Constitution of India grants Members of Parliament (MPs) the right to speak freely in the House without interference from the courts. This freedom is a crucial privilege afforded to MPs, ensuring they can express their views and opinions without external constraints. It establishes a framework where MPs can engage in debates, discussions, and deliberations within the parliamentary setting without the fear of legal repercussions, fostering open dialogue and democratic exchange of ideas.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding the rules on expulsion of speech in the Parliament:

1. Rule 380 of the Lok Sabha and Rule 261 of the Rajya Sabha allow presiding officers to remove any words from the debate that are defamatory, unparliamentary, undignified, or indecent.

2. Article 105 of the Constitution gives Members of Parliament (MPs) the right to speak freely in the House without any restrictions or need to follow the rules of the House.

3. Under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code, a statement about a public servant's conduct or character, as it relates to their public duties, is not considered defamation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 2

Statement 1: This statement is correct. Rule 380 of the Lok Sabha and Rule 261 of the Rajya Sabha indeed allow the presiding officers to remove any words from the debate that are defamatory, unparliamentary, undignified, or indecent.

Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. Article 105 of the Constitution does provide Members of Parliament (MPs) with the right to speak freely in the House. However, this freedom is not absolute and must follow the rules of the House. MPs must adhere to the prescribed rules and procedures to maintain decorum during parliamentary proceedings.

Statement 3: This statement is correct. According to Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code, a statement about a public servant's conduct or character, as it relates to their public duties, is not considered defamation. This provision allows MPs to make statements about a Minister's conduct as a public servant without it being classified as defamation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 3

Consider the following pairs:

1. Rule 380 of Lok Sabha: Allows presiding officers to remove defamatory words.

2. Article 105 of the Constitution: Grants MPs the right to speak freely without court interference.

3. Rule 353 of Lok Sabha: Procedure for making allegations against Ministers.

4. Section 499 of IPC: Defines expunging of words in Parliament.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 3

1. Correct - Rule 380 of Lok Sabha: Allows presiding officers to remove defamatory words. Rule 380 of the Lok Sabha and Rule 261 of the Rajya Sabha allow the presiding officers to remove any words from the debate that are defamatory, unparliamentary, undignified, or indecent.

2. Correct - Article 105 of the Constitution: Grants MPs the right to speak freely without court interference. Article 105 provides MPs the freedom of speech in Parliament and immunity from legal action for anything said within the House.

3. Incorrect - Rule 353 of Lok Sabha: Procedure for making allegations against Ministers. Rule 353 specifically explains the procedure for making allegations against another MP or an outsider, not necessarily against Ministers.

4. Incorrect - Section 499 of IPC: Defines expunging of words in Parliament. Section 499 of the IPC defines defamation, not the expunging of words in Parliament. It clarifies what constitutes defamation and includes exceptions for statements about public servants related to their public duties.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 4

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Article 105 of the Indian Constitution allows Members of Parliament to speak freely in the House without interference from the courts.

Statement-II: Rule 380 of the Lok Sabha and Rule 261 of the Rajya Sabha enable the presiding officers to expunge defamatory, unparliamentary, undignified, or indecent words from parliamentary debates.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 4

Statement-I correctly highlights that Article 105 of the Indian Constitution grants Members of Parliament the right to speak freely in the House without interference from the courts. This is a fundamental privilege recognized in the Constitution. Statement-II accurately reflects the rules outlined in Rule 380 of the Lok Sabha and Rule 261 of the Rajya Sabha, which empower the presiding officers to remove words from debates that are defamatory, unparliamentary, undignified, or indecent. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains how the rules align with the constitutional provision regarding freedom of speech for MPs.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 5

What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) as highlighted in the provided text?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 5

The primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is to provide insurance coverage and financial support to farmers in the event of failure of any of the notified crops due to natural calamities, pests, and diseases. This scheme aims to stabilize the income of farmers by ensuring protection against crop loss, thereby encouraging them to continue farming and adopt modern agricultural practices.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):
1. The premium rate for Kharif crops under PMFBY is 1.5% to be paid by farmers.
2. The scheme covers both pre-harvest and post-harvest losses due to natural calamities.
3. There is an upper limit on the government subsidy provided under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 6


1. Incorrect: The premium rate for Kharif crops under the PMFBY is 2%, not 1.5%. The 1.5% premium rate applies to Rabi crops.
2. Correct: The scheme indeed covers both pre-harvest and post-harvest losses due to natural calamities, pests, and diseases. For example, post-harvest losses are covered for up to 14 days from harvesting for crops kept in the field for drying.
3. Incorrect: There is no upper limit on the government subsidy under the PMFBY. Even if the balance premium is 90%, it will be borne by the government.
Thus, only statement 2 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 7

Consider the following pairs:

1. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) - Provides insurance coverage for farmers' yields

2. Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) - Promotes telecommunication services in urban areas

3. Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) - Replaces the USOF

4. Crop Insurance Scheme - Launched in 2018

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 7

1. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) - Provides insurance coverage for farmers' yields
This is correctly matched. PMFBY is an insurance service for farmers for their yields, launched in 2016.

2. Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) - Promotes telecommunication services in urban areas
This is incorrectly matched. USOF was established to provide telecom services in remote and rural areas, not urban areas.

3. Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) - Replaces the USOF
This is correctly matched. The DBN was established through the Telecommunications Act, 2023, and it replaces the erstwhile USOF.

4. Crop Insurance Scheme - Launched in 2018
This is incorrectly matched. The PMFBY, which is the new Crop Insurance Scheme, was launched in 2016, not 2018.

Only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The PMFBY scheme covers all farmers growing notified crops in a notified area during the season who have insurable interest in the crop.

Statement-II:
In FY24, the gross direct premium underwritten for crop insurance declined despite government efforts to expand farm sector insurance.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 8


Statement-I correctly reflects the eligibility criteria for farmers under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), where all farmers growing notified crops in a notified area during the season with insurable interest are covered. This aligns with the objectives of the scheme to provide insurance coverage and financial support to farmers in case of crop failure due to natural calamities.

However, Statement-II inaccurately states that in FY24, the gross direct premium underwritten for crop insurance declined despite government efforts to expand farm sector insurance. The correct data from the provided text indicates that the gross direct premium underwritten actually declined by 4.17% to Rs 30,677 crore from Rs 32,011 crore in the previous year. This decline does not necessarily reflect a decrease in government efforts to expand crop insurance coverage, as other factors could have influenced the decrease in premium underwritten.

Therefore, Statement-I is correct as per the information provided, and Statement-II is icorrect based on the actual data presented in the text.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the Vaquita:

1. Vaquitas are the smallest cetaceans and are found exclusively in the northern part of the Gulf of California.

2. Vaquitas have a distinct beak and are known for their bright coloration.

3. The primary reason for the population decline of vaquitas is the use of gillnets set for catching totoaba.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 9

- Statement 1 is correct: Vaquitas are indeed the smallest cetaceans, measuring 4 to 5 feet (1.2 to 1.5 meters) long and weighing 65 to 120 pounds (29.5 to 54.4 kg). They are found exclusively in the northern part of the Gulf of California.

- Statement 2 is incorrect: Vaquitas do not have a distinct beak and are not known for bright coloration. Instead, they have chunkier bodies, rounded heads, and no snouts. They are mostly dark gray with lighter gray undersides and have black patches on their faces, including a dark ring around their eyes.

- Statement 3 is correct: The primary reason for the population decline of vaquitas is the use of gillnets set for catching totoaba. These gillnets are extremely deadly for vaquitas due to their similar size to the totoaba.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 10

Consider the following pairs:

1. Vaquita - Largest marine mammal

2. Shree Jagannath Temple - Located in Puri, Odisha

3. Vaquita - Found in the northern part of the Gulf of California

4. Ratha Yatra - Associated with Lord Jagannath temple

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 8th July 2024 - Question 10

1. Vaquita - Largest marine mammal: Incorrect. The vaquita is the smallest member of the porpoise family, not the largest marine mammal.

2. Shree Jagannath Temple - Located in Puri, Odisha: Correct. The Shree Jagannath Temple is indeed located in Puri, Odisha.

3. Vaquita - Found in the northern part of the Gulf of California: Correct. Vaquitas are found only in the northern part of the Gulf of California.

4. Ratha Yatra - Associated with Lord Jagannath temple: Correct. The Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with the Lord Jagannath temple.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

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