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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - GRE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 for GRE 2025 is part of GRE preparation. The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the GRE exam syllabus.The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 MCQs are made for GRE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 below.
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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 1

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Many people criticized the mayor’s decision to ban sugary drinks. However, a small group __________ his efforts to intertwine public health and public policy.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 1
The sentence makes a contrast between those who “criticized” the mayor’s decision and the way others responded. The adjective in the blank describes how this other “small group” reacted. "Lauded" means praised, which is the antonym of "criticized," and thus best completes the sentence.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 2

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Arctic sea ice comes in two varieties. Seasonal ice forms in winter and then melts in summer, while perennial ice persists year-round. To the untrained eye, all sea ice looks similar, but by licking it, one can estimate how long a particular piece has been floating around. When ice begins to form in seawater, it forces out salt, which has no place in the crystal structure. As the ice gets thicker, the rejected salt collects in tiny pockets of brine too highly concentrated to freeze. A piece of first-year ice will taste salty. Eventually, if the ice survives, these pockets of brine drain out through fine, veinlike channels, and the ice becomes fresher; multiyear ice can even be melted and drunk.

Q. In the context in which it appears, “fine” (line 7) most nearly means

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 2
“Fine” appears in the context of an explanation of how the brine drains out; in such a context, it must be being used to describe a physical characteristic of the channels. In addition, the word “Eventually” implies that the draining is a slow process. Only Choice E, “small,” helps to explain why the process is slow and is therefore the best choice. None of the other choices contributes to the explanation.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 3

Coetzee is known to be reclusive, and he __________ publicity to such an extent that he did not collect either of his two Booker Prizes in person.

A. welcomes

B. avoids

C. courts

D. shuns

E. gathers

F. tries

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 3
This is a simple sentence which presents a blank before the word “publicity”. Coetzee is known to be reclusive, and a reclusive person is solitary and keeps to himself/herself. How would such a person react to being in the spotlight? A shy person would not want to be in the spotlight. So, Coetzee shuns or avoids publicity. This rules out the words welcomes, courts, gathers and tries. This leaves us with options B and D. The Correct Answer is B and D.

Choices B & D are the correct answers.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 4

Even though Magellan would eventually die on his ambitious cruise around the world, nothing was ______ on the morning of his departure from his home port.

A. innocuous

B. portentous

C. propitious

D. amiss

E. auspicious

F. ingenuous

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 4
Let us begin by focusing on the keyword, which in this sentence is “even though”. “Even though” indicates that there is a contrast between the first part (which informs us that Magellan died), and the second part (nothing was ___ on the day of the departure). Even though means “regardless of -”.

If we have to construct this sentence using simple words, we might say for example - “even though Magellan would die on this trip, on the first day nothing seemed to be wrong.”

So nothing seemed wrong on Day 1 of that trip. The bad things would come only later. So, the answer options have to be words that mean “wrong or bad”.

Choices B & D are the correct answers.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 5

Since the invention of computers, chips and processors have become smaller and simpler, but computer programs have become increasingly _________.

A. anomalous

B. efficient

C. byzantine

D. treacherous

E. labyrinthine

F. intransigent

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 5
This is an easy sentence because the word “but” draws out a simple contrast between the evolution of hardware and software. “But” implies an opposing relationship between the two parts of the sentence, so while hardware has become smaller and simpler, computer programs have gone in the opposing direction – they have become larger and more unwieldy. Answer options C and E fit the best.

Choices C & E are the correct answers.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 6

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Until recently, many anthropologists assumed that the environment of what is now the southwestern United States shaped the social history and culture of the region’s indigenous peoples. Building on this assumption, archaeologists asserted that adverse environmental conditions and droughts were responsible for the disappearances and migrations of southwestern populations from many sites they once inhabited.

However, such deterministic arguments fail to acknowledge that local environmental variability in the Southwest makes generalizing about that environment difficult. To examine the relationship between environmental variation and sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region of central Arizona, which indigenous tribes have occupied continuously for at least 800 years, a research team recently reconstructed the climatic, vegetational, and erosional cycles of past centuries. The researchers found it impossible to provide a single, generally applicable characterization of environmental conditions for the region. Rather, they found that local areas experienced different patterns of rainfall, wind, and erosion, and that such conditions had prevailed in the Southwest for the last 1,400 years. Rainfall, for example, varied within and between local valley systems, so that even adjacent agricultural fields can produce significantly different yields.

The researchers characterized episodes of variation in southwestern environments by frequency: low-frequency environmental processes occur in cycles longer than one human generation, which generally is considered to last about 25 years, and high frequency processes have shorter cycles. The researchers pointed out that low-frequency processes, such as fluctuations in stream flow and groundwater levels, would not usually be apparent to human populations. In contrast, high-frequency fluctuations such as seasonal temperature variations are observable and somewhat predictable, so that groups could have adapted their behaviors accordingly. When the researchers compared sequences of sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region with episodes of low- and high-frequency environmental variation, however, they found no simple correlation between environmental process and sociocultural change or persistence.

Although early Pueblo peoples did protect themselves against environmental risk and uncertainty, they responded variously on different occasions to similar patterns of high frequency climatic and environmental change. The researchers identified seven major adaptive responses, including increased mobility, relocation of permanent settlements, changes in subsistence foods, and reliance on trade with other groups. These findings suggest that groups’ adaptive choices depended on cultural and social as well as environmental factors and were flexible strategies rather than uncomplicated reactions to environmental change. Environmental conditions mattered, but they were rarely, if ever, sufficient to account for sociocultural persistence and change. Group size and composition, culture, contact with other groups, and individual choices and actions were— barring catastrophes such as floods or earthquakes—more significant for a population’s survival than were climate and environment.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following activities is NOT an example of a population responding to high-frequency environmental processes?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 6
The phrasing of the question indicates that all but one of the answer choices are examples of a population responding to a high-frequency environmental process. You are asked to choose the one answer choice that does not provide such an example. Choices A, B, D, and E are incorrect because they all present responses to high-frequency environmental processes: developing water-storage jars to adapt to seasonal rainfall variations, adapting dwellings in response to seasonal flooding, trading to acquire clothing in adaptation to seasonal temperature variations, and moving grazing herds seasonally. Choice C is the best answer: the passage mentions fluctuations in ground water levels as a low-frequency process (lines 21–22); moving a village because of a change that takes place over the course of a generation is not a response to a high-frequency process.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 7

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Until recently, many anthropologists assumed that the environment of what is now the southwestern United States shaped the social history and culture of the region’s indigenous peoples. Building on this assumption, archaeologists asserted that adverse environmental conditions and droughts were responsible for the disappearances and migrations of southwestern populations from many sites they once inhabited.

However, such deterministic arguments fail to acknowledge that local environmental variability in the Southwest makes generalizing about that environment difficult. To examine the relationship between environmental variation and sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region of central Arizona, which indigenous tribes have occupied continuously for at least 800 years, a research team recently reconstructed the climatic, vegetational, and erosional cycles of past centuries. The researchers found it impossible to provide a single, generally applicable characterization of environmental conditions for the region. Rather, they found that local areas experienced different patterns of rainfall, wind, and erosion, and that such conditions had prevailed in the Southwest for the last 1,400 years. Rainfall, for example, varied within and between local valley systems, so that even adjacent agricultural fields can produce significantly different yields.

The researchers characterized episodes of variation in southwestern environments by frequency: low-frequency environmental processes occur in cycles longer than one human generation, which generally is considered to last about 25 years, and high frequency processes have shorter cycles. The researchers pointed out that low-frequency processes, such as fluctuations in stream flow and groundwater levels, would not usually be apparent to human populations. In contrast, high-frequency fluctuations such as seasonal temperature variations are observable and somewhat predictable, so that groups could have adapted their behaviors accordingly. When the researchers compared sequences of sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region with episodes of low- and high-frequency environmental variation, however, they found no simple correlation between environmental process and sociocultural change or persistence.

Although early Pueblo peoples did protect themselves against environmental risk and uncertainty, they responded variously on different occasions to similar patterns of highfrequency climatic and environmental change. The researchers identified seven major adaptive responses, including increased mobility, relocation of permanent settlements, changes in subsistence foods, and reliance on trade with other groups. These findings suggest that groups’ adaptive choices depended on cultural and social as well as environmental factors and were flexible strategies rather than uncomplicated reactions to environmental change. Environmental conditions mattered, but they were rarely, if ever, sufficient to account for sociocultural persistence and change. Group size and composition, culture, contact with other groups, and individual choices and actions were— barring catastrophes such as floods or earthquakes—more significant for a population’s survival than were climate and environment.

Q. The passage is primarily concerned with

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 7
As the description above indicates, Choice C is the best answer: the passage introduces an explanation, presents evidence that challenges it, and offers an alternative explanation. The passage does not mention the creation of controversy or discuss flaws in research methodology; therefore, Choices A and B are incorrect. Although the passage reports findings that different groups used different adaptive responses to environmental conditions, there is no focus on the adaptations used by particular groups, so Choice D is incorrect. The passage presents recent research findings but not in defense of a long-held interpretation; therefore, Choice E is incorrect.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 8

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Until recently, many anthropologists assumed that the environment of what is now the southwestern United States shaped the social history and culture of the region’s indigenous peoples. Building on this assumption, archaeologists asserted that adverse environmental conditions and droughts were responsible for the disappearances and migrations of southwestern populations from many sites they once inhabited.

However, such deterministic arguments fail to acknowledge that local environmental variability in the Southwest makes generalizing about that environment difficult. To examine the relationship between environmental variation and sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region of central Arizona, which indigenous tribes have occupied continuously for at least 800 years, a research team recently reconstructed the climatic, vegetational, and erosional cycles of past centuries. The researchers found it impossible to provide a single, generally applicable characterization of environmental conditions for the region. Rather, they found that local areas experienced different patterns of rainfall, wind, and erosion, and that such conditions had prevailed in the Southwest for the last 1,400 years. Rainfall, for example, varied within and between local valley systems, so that even adjacent agricultural fields can produce significantly different yields.

The researchers characterized episodes of variation in southwestern environments by frequency: low-frequency environmental processes occur in cycles longer than one human generation, which generally is considered to last about 25 years, and high frequency processes have shorter cycles. The researchers pointed out that low-frequency processes, such as fluctuations in stream flow and groundwater levels, would not usually be apparent to human populations. In contrast, high-frequency fluctuations such as seasonal temperature variations are observable and somewhat predictable, so that groups could have adapted their behaviors accordingly. When the researchers compared sequences of sociocultural change in the Western Pueblo region with episodes of low- and high-frequency environmental variation, however, they found no simple correlation between environmental process and sociocultural change or persistence.

Although early Pueblo peoples did protect themselves against environmental risk and uncertainty, they responded variously on different occasions to similar patterns of high frequency climatic and environmental change. The researchers identified seven major adaptive responses, including increased mobility, relocation of permanent settlements, changes in subsistence foods, and reliance on trade with other groups. These findings suggest that groups’ adaptive choices depended on cultural and social as well as environmental factors and were flexible strategies rather than uncomplicated reactions to environmental change. Environmental conditions mattered, but they were rarely, if ever, sufficient to account for sociocultural persistence and change. Group size and composition, culture, contact with other groups, and individual choices and actions were— barring catastrophes such as floods or earthquakes—more significant for a population’s survival than were climate and environment.

Q. Which of the following findings would most strongly support the assertion made by the archaeologists mentioned in line 3?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 8
The archaeologists mentioned in line 3 asserted that adverse environmental conditions caused southwestern populations to move or disappear. The question asks which finding would support this assertion.

Choices A, B, and C all describe populations that did not move away or disappear in the face of environmental changes, and hence are all incorrect. Choice D is incorrect because it does not mention a change in environmental conditions and therefore cannot support an assertion about the effects of changing environmental conditions. Choice E is the best answer: it mentions an adverse environmental change (a long drought) that caused a population to leave the site it had inhabited, which would support the archaeologists’ assertion that such environmental changes caused such population changes.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 9

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

It was very difficult to guess what Justin would say, for he could engage in both __________ and understatement within a three-second interval.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 9
The "both . . . and" being used in the second clause helps to unpack why it was difficult to know what Justin would say. It seems that he would say conflicting things—hence the difficulty in guessing his next words. "Understatement" is a way of speaking that doesn't really address the true depths of some reality. For instance, a horrible murder might be called "kind of bad" by someone. This would be an understatement of the case. A great contrast to this is "hyperbole," meaning an expression that greatly overstates the case. For instance, someone might say that the day is the "coldest day ever" when it is not even at the point of freezing but merely brisk.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 10

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Ronald's friends were surprised at his recent __________ behavior, for they knew him to be a man of scrupulous conscience.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 10
Of the wrong answers, the one that is perhaps somewhat appropriate—though not completely correct—is "mendacious," meaning pertaining to lying. A "mendacious person" is a liar. (Perhaps "uncouth"—lacking good manners—is a temptation as well.) The general point, however, is a contrast. Ronald's friends are surprised because he is not acting morally upright—what a person with a scrupulous conscience would do. Therefore, he is acting in an immoral way. To be iniquitous is to be just that. "Iniquity" is another name for very immoral or unfair behavior.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 11

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Although the boy was known for walking briskly everywhere he went, today he traveled at a pace that was quite __________.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 11
The word "although" at the beginning of the sentence is a trigger word telling you that the introductory clause is opposed to the main clause of the sentence. "Brisk" can describe cool weather but it also can mean fast. The contrast in this sentence is between the boy's normal quick pace and the blank that we have to fill. "Expeditious" is too synonymous with work. "Irregular" and "unpredictable" are not direct antonyms. "Surprising" is wholly off the mark. The best answer is "plodding"—meaning slowly moving.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 12

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Although he seemed quite inflexible, Thomas was quite __________ and able to deal with any situation that came his way.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 12
n contrast to being "inflexible," being "malleable" describes a temperament that literally is able to "bend" to the changing circumstances of life and living. The word is often used of substances—certain kinds of metal are more malleable than others. This contrast is indicated because of the introductory word "although." Although Thomas seemed to be one way—inflexible—he was in fact another—malleable.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 13

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Historians credit repeated locust invasions in the nineteenth century with reshaping United States agriculture west of the Mississippi River. Admonished by government entomologists, farmers began to diversify. Wheat had come to nearly monopolize the region, but it was particularly vulnerable to the locusts. In 1873, just before the locusts’ most withering offensive, nearly two-thirds of Minnesota farmland was producing wheat; by the invasions’ last year, that fraction had dropped to less than one-sixth. Farmers learned that peas and beans were far less vulnerable to the insects, and corn was a more robust grain than wheat. In addition to planting alternative crops, many farmers turned to dairy and beef production. Although pastures were often damaged by the locusts, these lands were almost always left in better shape than the crops were.

Q. In the context in which it appears, “robust” (line 8) most nearly means

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 13
In discussing the advantages of less vulnerable crops, the author describes corn as “robust.” Of the choices presented, “vigorous” is most similar in meaning to “robust.” Neither “crude” nor “demanding” is an advantage, and although being “productive” or “rich” might be desirable, neither matches the meaning of “robust” in this context. Therefore, Choice D is the correct answer.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 14

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Historians credit repeated locust invasions in the nineteenth century with reshaping United States agriculture west of the Mississippi River. Admonished by government entomologists, farmers began to diversify. Wheat had come to nearly monopolize the region, but it was particularly vulnerable to the locusts. In 1873, just before the locusts’ most withering offensive, nearly two-thirds of Minnesota farmland was producing wheat; by the invasions’ last year, that fraction had dropped to less than one-sixth. Farmers learned that peas and beans were far less vulnerable to the insects, and corn was a more robust grain than wheat. In addition to planting alternative crops, many farmers turned to dairy and beef production. Although pastures were often damaged by the locusts, these lands were almost always left in better shape than the crops were.

Q. According to the passage, before the recommendations by the government entomologists, which of the following was true about farming west of the Mississippi River?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 14

Choices A and C are correct.

Choice A is correct: according to the passage, “wheat had come to nearly monopolize the region” prior to the recommendations of government entomologists.

Choice B is incorrect: although wheat was the dominant crop, there is no indication that peas and beans had not been planted in the region prior to the admonishments of government entomologists.

Choice C is correct: given that wheat was the dominant crop, only a relatively small portion of farmland could have been devoted to other crops.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 15

When Jeff fell prey to an on-line credit card scam, the sting of ________ hurt him more than the loss of money.

A. suffering

B. duplicity

C. faithlessness

D. falsehood

E. deception

F. indigence

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 15
Let us understand the story behind the sentence. Jeff was cheated by an online credit card scam. He lost money to a fraud scheme and he is feeling hurt because of that. But, the loss of money is not the most hurtful thing. What could hurt him more than that? It could be the feeling of being cheated.

The best answer options are duplicity and deception. A credit-card fraud is essentially a deception and a duplicity. Jeff feels worse about that than actually losing money.

Choices B & E are the correct answers.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 16

In order to stop the uproar on social media that was ______ by the politician's unpopular comment, his press agent had to issue a public apology.

A. exacerbated

B. precipitated

C. precluded

D. triggered

E. prevaricated

F. goaded

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 16
Let us break down the sentence and understand it using simple words. The politician made an unpopular comment. The politician's press agent had to issue an apology. This means that the people who reacted to this comment on social media reacted negatively. Indeed, there was an “uproar”, as the sentence says. This “uproar” was caused by the politician's comment

Choices B & D are the correct answers.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 17

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

In Gilavia, the number of reported workplace injuries has declined 16 percent in the last five years. However, perhaps part of the decline results from injuries going unreported: many employers have introduced safety-incentive programs, such as prize drawings for which only employees who have a perfect work-safety record are eligible. Since a workplace injury would disqualify an employee from such programs, some employees might be concealing injury, when it is feasible to do so.

Q. Which of the following, if true in Gilavia, most strongly supports the proposed explanation?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 17
The question asks what would support the claim that the decline in reported workplace injuries in Gilavia may be the result of incentives for workers to not report those injuries that they can conceal. If the number of injuries that cannot be concealed— such as injuries requiring immediate emergency care—has not declined in the same period, that could help bolster the claim that the decline in overall reported injuries may be a result of concealable injuries going unreported rather than an actual decline in workplace injuries in general, so Choice A is correct.

If employers have to provide financial compensation to employees injured on the job, employees would have an incentive to report injuries. More reported injuries would not support the author’s argument, making Choice B incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that some injuries that cannot be concealed do not result in lost time or changed responsibilities has nothing to do with whether concealable injuries are going unreported. While a decline in dangerous occupations could well result in a decrease in workplace injuries, this fact would challenge the author’s argument, not support it, so Choice D is incorrect. Similarly, if employers with safety incentive programs do not see any drop in reported injuries compared to employers without such programs, the author’s argument would be weakened, not supported, making Choice E incorrect.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 18

Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Quantity A: 3-1 / 4-1

Quantity B: 4/3

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 18
In this question, you are asked to compare 3-1 / 4-1 with 4/3. Recall that if a is a 1 = a a −1 nonzero number, then a-1 = 1/a and 1/a-1 = a. Using these rules of exponents, you

Thus 3-1 / 4-1 = 4/3, and the correct answer is Choice C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 19

Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. x < 1 and x ≠ 0

Quantity A: x2 + 1

Quantity B: x3 + 1

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 19
In this question, you are given that x < 1 and x ≠ 0, and you are asked to compare x2 + 1 with x3 + 1. One way to approach this problem is to set up a comparison between the two quantities using a placeholder symbol to represent the relationship between them as follows.

x2 + 1 ? x3 + 1

Then simplify the comparison.

Step 1: Subtract 1 from both sides to get

x2 ? x3

Step 2: Since x ≠ 0, you can divide both sides by the positive quantity x2 to get

1 ? x

Since you are given that x < 1, or 1 > x, you can conclude that the placeholder in the simplified comparison represents greater than (>). Note that the strategy of simplifying the comparison 1 ? x requires you to consider whether the steps in the simplification are reversible. This is because you must arrive at a conclusion about the initial comparison, not the simplified comparison. If you follow the simplification steps in reverse, you can see that the placeholder in each step remains unchanged: 1 > x implies x2 > x3 because multiplying by the positive number x2 retains the inequality greater than (>). Also, x2 > x3 implies x2 + 1 > x3 + 1 . Therefore, Quantity A is greater than Quantity B, and the correct answer is Choice A.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 20

Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. x > 0

Quantity A: 0.5% of x

Quantity B: 1/2x

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 20
In this question, you are given that x > 0, and you are asked to compare 0.5% of x with 1/2x . Recall that 1/2 of a number is the same as 50% of the number. Therefore,1/2x is equal to 50% of x. Since x > 0, it follows that 50% of x is greater than 0.5% of x. The correct answer is Choice B.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 21

Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. The median income of a group of College C graduates six months after graduation was $3,000 higher than the median income of a group of College D graduates six months after graduation.

Quantity A: The 75th percentile of the incomes of the group of College C graduates six months after graduation

Quantity B: The 75th percentile of the incomes of the group of College D graduates six months after graduation

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 21
In this question, you are asked to compare the 75th percentiles of the incomes of two groups of college graduates six months after graduation. The only information you are given is that the median income of the group in Quantity A is $3,000 greater than the median income of the group in Quantity B.

Recall that the median of a group of numbers is the middle number (or the average of the two middle numbers) when the numbers are listed from least to greatest. The median is also equal to the 50th percentile. The median does not indicate anything about the spread of the numbers in the group. In particular, for each group of incomes, you do not know how much greater than the median the 75th percentile of the group of incomes is, nor do you know the relationship between the 75th percentiles of the two groups. Since the relationship between Quantity A and Quantity B cannot be determined, the correct answer is Choice D.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 22

In year Y, the population of Colorado was approximately half that of New Jersey, and the land area of Colorado was approximately 14 times that of New Jersey. The population density (number of persons per unit of land area) of Colorado in year Y was approximately how many times the population density of New Jersey?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 22
The information given in the question can be rewritten algebraically as follows.

population of Colorado ≈ 1/2 × (population of New Jersey)

land area of Colorado ≈ (14) × (land area of New Jersey)

Using the information given and the fact that population density is the number of persons per unit of land area, you can express the population density of Colorado in terms of the population density of New Jersey as follows.

population density of Colorado = population density of Colorado / land area of Colorado

≈ 1/2 × (population of New Jersey) / (14) × (land area of New Jersey)

≈ ½ x 1/14 x population of New Jersey / land area of New Jersey

≈ 1/28 × (population density of New Jersey)

Thus, the population density of Colorado was approximately 1/28 times the population density of New Jersey. The correct answer is Choice A.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 23

Distance Traveled By a Car According to The Car’s Speed When The Driver is Signaled to Stop

*Reaction time is the time period that begins when the driver is signaled to stop and ends when the driver applies the brakes.

Note: Total stopping distance is the sum of the distance travelled during reaction time and the distance travelled after brakes have been applied.

Q. The speed, in miles per hour, at which the car travels a distance of 52 feet during reaction time is closest to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 23
The data accompanying questions 17 to 20 consists of two graphs. It is a good idea to look at the graphs before you try to answer the questions, so you can become familiar with the information contained in the graphs. Then, as you read each question, you should think about which of the graphs contains the information you need to solve the problem. It could be that all the information you need to solve the problem is contained in one of the graphs, or it could be that you need to get information from both of the graphs.

The graph on the left shows the relationship between the speed of the automobile and the distance it travelled during the reaction time. Therefore, the answer to this question is found using this graph by reading the speed, in miles per hour, corresponding to a distance of 52 feet. A distance of 52 feet is a little above the distance of 50 feet on the vertical axis of the graph. On the graph, the speed corresponding to a distance of 52 feet is a little less than 50 miles per hour. The correct answer is Choice B.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 24

Distance Traveled By a Car According to The Car’s Speed When The Driver is Signaled to Stop

*Reaction time is the time period that begins when the driver is signaled to stop and ends when the driver applies the brakes.

Note: Total stopping distance is the sum of the distance travelled during reaction time and the distance travelled after brakes have been applied.

Q. Of the following, which is the greatest speed, in miles per hour, at which the car can travel and stop with a total stopping distance of less than 200 feet?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 24
Since the total stopping distance is the sum of the distance traveled during reaction time and the distance travelled after the brakes have been applied, you need information from both graphs to answer this question. A good strategy for solving this problem is to calculate the total stopping distance for the speeds given in the options. For a speed of 50 miles per hour, the distance travelled during reaction time is about 55 feet, and the distance travelled after the brakes have been applied is 137 feet; therefore, the total stopping distance is about 55 + 137, or 192 feet. For a speed of 55 miles per hour, the distance travelled during reaction time is about 60 feet, and the distance travelled after the brakes have been applied is about 170 feet; therefore, the total stopping distance is about 60 + 170, or 230 feet. Since the speeds in the remaining choices are greater than 55 miles per hour and both types of stopping distances increase as the speed increases, it follows that the total stopping distances for all the remaining choices are greater than 200 feet. The correct answer is Choice A.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 25

If 0 < a < 1 < b, which of the following is true about the reciprocals of a and b?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 25

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 26

What is the least positive integer that is not a factor of 25! and is not a prime number?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 26
Note that 25! is equal to the product of all positive integers from 1 to 25, inclusive. Thus, every positive integer less than or equal to 25 is a factor of 25!. Also, any integer greater than 25 that can be expressed as the product of different positive integers less than 25 is a factor of 25!. In view of this, it’s reasonable to consider the next few integers greater than 25, including answer choices A and B.

Choice A, 26, is equal to (2)(13). Both 2 and 13 are factors of 25!, so 26 is also a factor of 25!. The same is true for 27, or (3)(9), and for Choice B, 28, or (4)(7). However, the next integer, 29, is a prime number greater than 25, and as such, it has no positive factors (other than 1) that are less than or equal to 25. Therefore, 29 is the least positive integer that is not a factor of 25!. However, the question asks for an integer that is not a prime number, so 29 is not the answer.

At this point, you could consider 30, 31, 32, etc., but it is quicker to look at the rest of the choices. Choice C, 36, is equal to (4)(9). Both 4 and 9 are factors of 25!, so 36 is also a factor of 25!. Choice D, 56, is equal to (4)(14). Both 4 and 14 are factors of 25!, so 56 is also a factor of 25!. Choice E, 58, is equal to (2)(29). Although 2 is a factor of 25!, the prime number 29, as noted earlier, is not a factor of 25!, and therefore 58 is not a factor of 25!. The correct answer must be Choice E.

The explanation above uses a process of elimination to arrive at Choice E, which is sometimes the most efficient way to find the correct answer. However, one can also show directly that the correct answer is 58. For if a positive integer n is not a factor of 25!, then one of the following must be true:

(i) n is a prime number greater than 25, like 29 or 31, or a multiple of such a prime number, like 58 or 62;

(ii) n is so great a multiple of some prime number less than 25, that it must be greater than 58.

To see that (i) or (ii) is true, recall that every integer greater than 1 has a unique prime factorization, and consider the prime factorization of 25!. The prime factors of 25! are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, and 23, some of which occur more than once in the product 25!. For example, there are 8 positive multiples of 3 less than 25, namely 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, and 24. The prime number 3 occurs once in each of these multiples, except for 9 and 18, in which it occurs twice. Thus, the factor 3 occurs 10 times in the prime factorization of 25!. The same reasoning can be used to find the number of times that each of the prime factors occur, yielding the prime factorization 25! = (222)(310)(56)(73)(112)(13)(17)(19)(23). Any integer whose prime factorization is a combination of one or more of the factors in the prime factorization of 25!, perhaps with lesser exponents, is a factor of 25!. Equivalently, if the positive integer n is not a factor of 25!, then, restating (i) and (ii) above, the prime factorization of n must

(i) include a prime number greater than 25; or

(ii) have a greater exponent for one of the prime numbers in the prime factorization of 25!.

For (ii), the least possibilities are 223, 311, 57, 74, 113, 132, 172, 192, and 232. Clearly, all of these are greater than 58. The least possibility for (i) that is not a prime number is 58, and the least possibility for (ii) is greater than 58, so Choice E is the correct answer.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 27

Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. The graph below shows the frequency distribution of 50 integer values varying from 1 to 6.

Quantity A: The average (arithmetic mean) of the 50 values

Quantity B: The median of the 50 values

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 27
In this question, you are given a graph of the frequency distribution of 50 integer values and are asked to compare the average (arithmetic mean) with the median of the distribution.

In general, the median of a group of n values, where n is even, is obtained by ordering the values from least to greatest and then calculating the average (arithmetic mean) of the two middle values. So, for the 50 values shown in the graph, the median is the average of the 25th and 26th values, both of which are equal to 5. Therefore, the median of the 50 values is 5.

Once you know that the median of the 50 values is 5, the comparison simplifies to comparing the average of the 50 values with 5. You can make this comparison without actually calculating the average by noting from the graph that of the 50 values,

11 values are 1 unit above 5,

16 values are equal to 5,

10 values are 1 unit below 5, and

13 values are more than 1 unit below 5.

Since the part of the distribution that is below 5 contains 23 values -13 of which are more than 1 unit below 5 - and the part of the distribution that is above 5 contains 11 values - none of which is more than 1 unit above 5 - the average (arithmetic mean) of the 50 values must be less than 5. The correct answer is Choice B.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 28

Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q.

Quantity A: The area of triangle PQR

Quantity B: The area of triangle PSR

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 28
In this question, you are asked to compare the area of triangle PQR with the area of triangle PSR. Note that both triangles are right triangles and that line segment PR is the hypotenuse of both triangles. Recall that the area of a triangle is equal to one-half the product of a base and the height corresponding to the base. Also, for any right triangle, the lengths of the two legs of the triangle are a base and the corresponding height.

The area of triangle PQR: In the figure, it is given that the length of leg PQ is 2√5 and the length of leg QR is √5. Therefore, you can conclude that the area of triangle PQR is 1/2(2√5)(√5) or 5.

The area of triangle PSR: To calculate the area of triangle PSR, you need to know the lengths of the legs PS and RS. From the figure, you know that the length of RS is 3, but you do not know the length of PS. How can you determine the length of PS? If, in addition to the length of RS, you knew the length of hypotenuse PR, you could use the Pythagorean theorem to determine the length of PS. So, to find the length of PS, you first need to find the length of hypotenuse PR.

Recall that PR is also the hypotenuse of triangle PQR. The lengths of legs PQ and QR of triangle PQR are 2√5 and √5, respectively. By the Pythagorean theorem,

(PR)2 = (PQ)2 + QR2

= (2√5)2 + (√5)2

= 20 + 5

= 25

Thus, the length of PR is √25, or 5.

Returning to triangle PSR, you now know that the length of hypotenuse PR is 5 and the length of leg RS is 3. Therefore, by the Pythagorean theorem,

32 + (PS)2 = 52

9 + (PS)2 = 25

(PS)2 = 25 − 9

(PS)2 = 16

and the length of PS is 4.

Since legs PS and RS have lengths 4 and 3, respectively, the area of triangle PSR is ½(4)(3), or 6. Recall that you have already determined that the area of triangle PQR is 5. So Quantity B, the area of triangle PSR, is greater than Quantity A, the area of triangle PQR, and the correct answer is Choice B.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 29

Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Quantity A: The sum of the odd integers from 1 to 199

Quantity B: The sum of the even integers from 2 to 198

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 29
You can try to compare the two sums without actually calculating them. Recall that Quantity A is the sum of the 100 odd integers from 1 to 199, and Quantity B is the sum of the 99 even integers from 2 to 198. Write each sum with the terms in increasing order, as follows, pairing the nth term in Quantity B with the nth term in Quantity A and noting that there is no term in Quantity B that is paired with the 100th term, 199, in Quantity A.

Quantity A: 1 + 3 + 5 + . . . + 193 + 195 + 197 + 199

Quantity B: 2 + 4 + 6 + . . . + 194 + 196 + 198

Note that each of the 99 terms in Quantity B is 1 more than its paired term in Quantity A, so Quantity B is 99 more than the sum of all the terms in Quantity A excluding the last term, 199. Consequently, Quantity A is 199 − 99 more than Quantity B - that is, 100 more than Quantity B - and the correct answer is Choice A.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 30

Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. s and t are positive integers, and 32s = 2t .

Quantity A: s/t

Quantity B: 1/5

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 - Question 30
In this question, you are given that s and t are positive integers and that 32s = 2t, and you are asked to compare s/t with 1/5. Since the expression s/t involves the variables s and t, you need to look for a relationship between s and t using the equation 32s = 2t. If the two bases in this equation were equal, then the exponents would be equal. However, one of the bases is 32 and the other is 2. This suggests making the two bases equal by rewriting 32 as a power of 2 if it is possible to do so. In fact, 32 = 25. Therefore, 32s = (25)s = 25s, and the equation can be rewritten as 25s = 2t. In the rewritten equation, the bases are equal, so you can conclude that 5s = t.

Since 5s = t, it follows that s/t = 1/5. Quantity A is equal to Quantity B, and the correct answer is Choice C.

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