SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - SSC CGL MCQ

# SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - SSC CGL MCQ

Test Description

## 30 Questions MCQ Test SSC CGL Tier II Mock Test Series 2024 - SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 for SSC CGL 2024 is part of SSC CGL Tier II Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 questions and answers have been prepared according to the SSC CGL exam syllabus.The SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 MCQs are made for SSC CGL 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 below.
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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 1

### Directions to Solve Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. Question - 4, 7, 12, 19, 28, ?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 1

The pattern is + 3, + 5, + 7, + 9, ..
So, missing term = 28 + 11 = 39.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 2

### Directions to Solve Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. Question - 2, 8, 16, 128, ?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 2

Each term in the series, except the first two terms, is the product of the preceding two terms.

So, missing term = 16 x 128 = 2048.

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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 3

### The following table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states, P, Q, R, S and T on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex. Q. If the male population above poverty line for State R is 1.9 million, then the total population of State R is?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 3

Let the total population of State R be x million.
Then, population of State R above poverty line
= [(100 - 24)% of x] million

And so, male population of State R above poverty line

But, it is given that male population of State R above poverty line = 1.9 million.

∴ Total population of State R = 6.25 million.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 4

Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.

Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per Annum Over the given Years.

Q. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 4

Required ratio
= [451/586]
= 1/1.3
= 10/13

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 5

Directions: Study the following bar charts carefully and answer the questions given beside.

The following graph shows the number of people who attended the workshop A and B on 5 different days of a week.

Q. What is the ratio of the number of people who attended the workshop A and B together on Monday to that of A and B together on Wednesday?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 5

Number of people who attended the workshop A & B on Monday = (400 + 280) = 680
Number of people who attended the workshop A & B on Wednesday = (360 + 420) = 780
Hence reqd. ratio = 680/780 = 34 : 39
Hence, option B is correct.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 6

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Mr. Dexter has four kids and all were born on same date of different years. They all have birthday today. Mr. Dexter wants to buy chocolates for all his kids. But he don’t want to give each kid equal number of chocolates.
He decides to do the following thing:
He will divide the height (in centimeters) by the sum of age number with weight (in kilogram).
He arrive at this formula –
Number of chocolate = height in centimeters/(weight in kilogram + age)
The number that will come is the number of chocolates that a particular kid gets.
His second youngest kid is twice the age of the youngest kid whose age is one-third the oldest kid. The second oldest kid is three year younger than the oldest kid. Weight of oldest kid is 36 kg which is numerically three times the age of second oldest kid, whose weight is four times the age of second youngest kid. Weight of the youngest kid is 40% less than the second oldest kid. Sum of weight of all four kids is 129 kg.

Q. After two years, weight of oldest kid increases 4 kg, second oldest kid by 2 kg, the second youngest kid gains 6kg and the youngest kid gains 9 kg weight. Ratio of average weight to average age of all the four kids.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 6

From common explanation we see weights after two years become:
36 + 4 = 40 kg
40 + 2 = 42 kg
29 + 6 = 35 kg
24 + 9 = 33 kg
Total = 150
Average weight = 150/4 kg
After 2 years, ages would be
(15 + 2), (12 + 2), (10 + 2), and (5 + 2)
17, 14, 12, and 7
Average age =

Hence, option C is correct.

Common explanation:
It is given that the second youngest kid is twice the age of the youngest kid whose age is three times less than the oldest kid.
Let the age of youngest kid is ‘y’, then the second youngest kid would be 2y and the oldest would be 3y.
Weight of oldest kid is 36 kg which is numerically three times more than the age of second oldest kid.
Age of second oldest kid would be 12 years.
Since, the second oldest kid is three year younger than the oldest kid, oldest kid would be 15 years. From this we get 3y = 15, thus y = 3. So the age of youngest kid = 5 years, second youngest kid = 10 years.
Second oldest kid, whose weight is four times the age of second youngest kid
Second youngest kid = 10 years, so weight of second oldest kid = 4 × 10 = 40 kg
Weight of the youngest kid is 40% less than the second oldest kid
Weight of second oldest = 40kg, youngest kid = 40kg – 40% of 40kg = 24kg
Sum of all the weights = 129kg = 36kg + 24kg + 40kg + weight of second youngest kid
Weight of second youngest kid = 29kg

In a table form all the values are:

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 7

Study the following arrangements carefully to answer the given questions @ C 8 T = 5 M G 6 \$ 8 & W L 4 Q * R 1 # % A R 6 U 3 A ! 7 ©

Q.

How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter and preceded by a number ?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 7

@ C 8 T = 5 M G 6 \$ 8 & W L 4 Q * R 1 # % A R 6 U 3 A ! 7 ©

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 8

Directions to Solve: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

- (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
- (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question: Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the lightest?
Statements:
I.R is heavier than Q and T but lighter than S.
II.S is not the heaviest.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 8

From I, we have: R>Q, R>T, S>R i.e. S>R>Q>T or S>R>T>Q.

From II, S is not the heaviest. So, P is the heaviest. Thus, we have: P > S > R > Q > T or P > S > R > T > Q. Hence, either T or Q is the lightest.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 9

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions there are three statements. Which are followed by three or four conclusions. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

Question -

Statements: Some questions are answers. Some answers are writers. All the writers are poets.

Conclusions:

2. Some poets are questions.
3. All the questions are poets.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 9

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 10

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight friends namely Prathap, Hirthik, Kathir, Laxman, Niranjan, Ranjan, Jawahar and Farhad were born in different months among January, March, April, July, September and November. Three persons were born in same month. Each of them belongs to different cities like Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, Goa, Bangalore, Punjab, Hyderabad and Noida. All the above information is not necessarily in the same order.
The one who belongs to Punjab was born in the month having less than 31 days.
Kathir belongs to Kolkata.
Prathap and Niranjan were born in same month.
Persons who belong to Goa and Delhi were born in November.
Laxman belongs to Bangalore and he was born in the month having 31 days but not in March.
Farhad belongs to Noida and he was born in April.
The one who belongs to Kolkata was born in the month having 30 days after July but before November.
The one who belongs to Hyderabad was born in month having 31 days before April.
Ranjan was born in July and he belongs to Chennai.
Jawahar belongs to Goa and Niranjan doesn’t belong to Delhi.

Q. Who among the following was born in the month of  November?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 10

The following common explanation, we get "Jawahar-November".
Hence, option C is correct.

Common Explanation
References:
Kathir belongs to Kolkata.
Laxman belongs to Bangalore and born in the month having 31 days but not in March.
Farhad belongs to Noida and born in April month.
Ranjan was born in July and he belongs to Chennai.
Jawahar belongs to Goa and Niranjan doesn’t belong to Delhi.
Inference:
From above statements,
All above information were given directly; by using we get the initial table as follows,

References:
Persons belong to Goa and Delhi were born in November.
Prathap and Niranjan were born in same month.
Inference:
From above statements,
Given, three persons were born in same month.
Persons belong to Goa and Delhi were born in November.
By using this statement, it is understood that the 3 persons were born in November month.
Note: Total six months given in statement.
Prathap and Niranjan were born in same month.
Therefore, we conclude that both Prathap and Niranjan were born in November month.
As per table, Prathap belongs to Delhi. Note: Given, Niranjan doesn’t belong to Delhi.
By using this information, we get the following table,

References:
The one who belongs to Kolkata was born in the month having 30 days after July but before November.
The one who belongs to Hyderabad was born in month having 31 days before April.
The one who belongs to Punjab was born in the month having less than 31 days.
Inference:
From above statements,
Among given months January(31 days), March(31 days), April(30 days), July(31 days), September(30 days) and November(30 days).
The one who belongs to Kolkata was born in the month having 30 days after July but before November.
Kathir belongs to Kolkata and he was born in September (30 days, only possibility as per condition)
Given, Laxman was born in 31 days month but not in March. Then Laxman was born in January month (31 days month, only possibility)
Note: Ranjan was born in July month (31 days)
Finally, Hirthik was born in March month (only month is left among given)
The one who belongs to Hyderabad was born in month having 31 days before April.
Hirthik was born in March month (31 days & before April) and he belongs to Hyderabad.
The one who belongs to Punjab was born in the month having less than 31 days.
Finally, Niranjan belongs to Punjab and born in November (30 days)
Thus we get the completed table as shown

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 11

If A + B means A is the brother of B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B. Which of the following means M is the uncle of P?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 11

M + K → M is the brother of K

K % T → K is the father of T

T x P → T is the sister of P

Therefore, K is the father of P and M is the uncle of P.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 12

If A + B means B is the brother of A; A x B means B is the husband of A; A - B means A is the mother of B and A % B means A is the father of B, which of the following relations shows that Q is the grandmother of T?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 12

Q - P → Q is the mother of P

P + R → R is the brother of P

Hence, → q is the mother of R

R % T → R is the father of T.

Hence, Q is the grandmother of T.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 13

In this question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true then decide which of the suggested courses of actions is worth pursuing.
Statement:
ITC is planning to go overseas with its hotel business and is planning to set up a premium, green, luxury property in the Sri Lankan capital of Colombo.
Courses of Action:
I. ITC should be stopped from constructing such hotels and should be ordered to invest in social sector programs.
II. ITC should be requested to fully explore the domestic areas before moving overseas.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 13

I doesn’t follow as a private entity cannot be forced by the government into investing in the social sector programs. However, ITC can be requested by the government to explore the domestic market fully, before foraying into the foreign markets. However, had the same course of action used ‘ordered’ or ‘strictly asked’ instead of ‘requested’, it wouldn’t have been a desirable course of action.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 14

In this question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true then decide which of the suggested courses of actions is worth pursuing.
Statement:
Protests across the world have forced the United States government to drop the Bills that seek to curb copyright violation.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should wait for the rebel feelings to cool down, and should introduce and get the Bill passed some months later.
II. The government should address the genuine concerns of the public at large by engaging the stakeholders and public in debates and informed discussions.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 14

I would be the wrong step to take as it will only hold the protests for a limited period of time, and the protests might resurrect, probably on a larger scale, if the Bill is passed without addressing the concerns of various stakeholders and general public. This is also the reason why II would be a desirable course of action.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 15

In this question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true then decide which of the suggested courses of actions is worth pursuing.
Statement:
Entrepreneurs are the backbone of any country. They increase employment, invest in innovation and bring prosperity. India is lagging behind the other developing countries in developing and fostering entrepreneurship.
Courses of Action:
I. Indian government should open more colleges and practice schools for entrepreneurship.
II. An upper limit must be set on the companies coming to colleges for placements, so that more students are left unemployed and switch to entrepreneurship.
III. Entrepreneurship as a subject must be made compulsory in all the schools and colleges, which will result in an increasing understanding of the subject, and will create more and better entrepreneurs.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 15

Since India is lagging behind others in developing entrepreneurship, opening practice schools and colleges dedicated to fostering entrepreneurs would be a sensible and practical idea. II is outrightly ludicrous. III also is not the correct course of action to follow as entrepreneurship, as compared to other subjects, is learnt on field and through practice. Better entrepreneurs cannot be created by teaching entrepreneurship in schools (read this in light of the first course of action).

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 16

Directions: Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

The recent rains that filled our empty reservoirs were a ______ to the whole community.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 16
• Here, in the sentence we can understand that rains acted as a blessing to the whole community, hence we need a noun meaning of which is blessing.
• Let's understand the meaning of options:
• Boon(noun) - A desirable state
• Bone(noun) - Rigid connective tissue that makes up the skeleton of vertebrates
• Born(adj) - Brought into existence
• Borne(verb) - Have as a feature; convey
• Worn(adj) - Showing the wearing effects of overwork, care or suffering
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3.​

The correct sentence is: The recent rains that filled our empty reservoirs were a boon to the whole community.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 17

Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the statement sentences.

Fake news is a big problem. Real news is a big problem too.
1. but
2. and
3. so

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 17
• The connectors that can connect both the given sentences and imply the same meaning are both 1 and 2.
• 'And' is used to join two phrases or sentences that are to be considered together.
• 'But' is used to introduce a phrase or clause that is contradictory to the previous statement. It can be used to connect the sentences.
• 'So' is used to say something that has occurred because of the fact that has been mentioned previously. It cannot be used to join the sentences as it changes the meaning of the sentence.

Clearly, both 1 and 2 can be used to join the sentences.​ The sentences will be-

• Fake news is a big problem but real news is a big problem too.
• Fake news is a big problem and real news is a big problem too.
SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 18

Directions: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given that may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically as well as contextually correct and meaningful. If all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are correct as your answer'.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 18
• Let us explore the grammatical errors in the sentences:
• In Option 2, the use of the singular form of the verb 'lives' is incorrect.
• We know that the words (People, Children, Men, Women, Mice, Feet, etc.) are irregular plural nouns (nouns that are not formed by adding -s) and they take the plural form of the verb.
• Therefore, the plural form of the verb 'live' should be used in place of the singular form of the verb 'lives'.
• Correct Sentence: I clearly empathize with the people who live in those neighborhoods.
• In Option 3, the use of the singular form of the verb 'was' is incorrect.
• We know that the words (Both Of, A Few Of, Many, Several) always take the plural form of the verb.
• Therefore, the plural form of the verb 'were' should be used in place of the singular form of the verb 'was'.
• Correct Sentence: When the ship finally reached land, only a few of the crew were left to witness the event.
• In Option 4, the use of the plural form of the verb 'have' is incorrect.
• We know that 'Everyone' is a collective noun and it refers to multiple people but they are grouped into a single entity.
• The word (Everybody, Anybody, Somebody, Nobody, Everyone, Anyone, Someone, No One) subjects are all singular.
• Therefore, the singular form of the verb 'has' should be used in place of the plural form of the verb 'have'.
• Correct Sentence: Everyone has their own ideas about the best way to bring up children.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 19

Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences which consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) which best express(es) the meaning of the word. Choose option 5 (None of the above) if the word is not suitable in any of the sentences.

SACRILEGIOUS

A. A number of churches were sacked and sacrilegious acts committed.

B. Above all, try to be sacrilegious and cautious with the old prince.

C. Leading clerics condemned the book as a sacrilegious attack on their faith.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 19
• The meaning of the word 'Sacrilegious' is involving or committing sacrilege; impious, sinful, irreverent, irreligious, unholy, disrespectful.
• Sentence A has correctly used the given word. Here, it means that churches were sacked and disrespectful acts were committed.
• In sentence B, 'sacrilegious is incorrectly used. Here, the sentence is talking to behave and give respect to the old prince. Instead, it will replaced by the word 'Respectful'. The corrected sentence will be "Above all, try to be respectful and cautious with the old prince."
• Sentence C has correctly used the given word. Here, it means the clerics abandoned, destroyed, the book which is a disrespectful attack on their faith.
SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 20

Directions: The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q. Before he can get out of prison, the _______ must serve over half of his _______.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 20

The given sentence is talking about how long it would take for the prisoner to come out of jail.
​Let us explore the words in the given options:

• 'Inmate' is a person confined to an institution such as a prison or hospital.
• 'Sentence' means the punishment given by a judge to somebody who has been found guilty of a crime.

Conclusion: The prisoner must serve half of his punishment before he can get out of prison.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Complete Sentence: Before he can get out of prison, the inmate must serve over half of his sentence.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 21

Directions: Six sentences are given, in which the first sentence is fixed; also one sentence is going to be filled with the appropriate word. Arrange the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph. Read the sentences carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A. Severe Tropical Storm Nalgae, known in the Philippines as Severe Tropical Storm Paeng, was a deadly tropical cyclone that caused widespread damage across the Philippines and later impacted Hong Kong and Macau.

B. Philippines' meteorological service PAGASA also followed JMA's lead and gave it the name Paeng.

C. The disturbance, initially designated as 93W, was eventually upgraded the following day to a tropical depression by the Joint Typhoon Warning Center (JTWC) and re-designated as 26W.

D. That same day, it was upgraded again by JMA to tropical storm status, thus gaining the name Nalgae.

E. The twenty-second named tropical storm of the 2022 Pacific typhoon season, Nalgae originated from ______________.

F. The Japan Meteorological Agency (JMA) however, had already considered the disturbance as a tropical depression a day prior to JTWC's.

Q. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 21

The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is AECFBD.

• The sentence 'A' is the given first sentence which is independent of any other sentence as it introduces the subject ''Severe Tropical Storm Nalgae'' known in the Philippines as Severe Tropical Storm Paeng. Hence, 'A' is the first sentence.
• Sentence E will come after B as it is giving information about the place and date of the origin of Severe Tropical Storm Nalgae.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is giving information about the initially designated disturbance created by the storm i.e. 93W.
• Sentence F will come after C as it is saying that the JMA had already considered the disturbance as a tropical depression a day prior to JTWC's.
• Sentence B will come after F as it is talking about the meteorological service i.e. PAGASA that followed JMA's lead and gave it the name Paeng.
• The sentence 'D' is the final or sixth sentence as it is concluding by saying that the name Paeng was upgraded again by JMA to tropical storm status, thus gaining the name Nalgae.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: Severe Tropical Storm Nalgae, known in the Philippines as Severe Tropical Storm Paeng, was a deadly tropical cyclone that caused widespread damage across the Philippines and later impacted Hong Kong and Macau. The twenty-second named tropical storm of the 2022 Pacific typhoon season, Nalgae originated from an invest located east of the Philippines on October 26. The disturbance, initially designated as 93W, was eventually upgraded the following day to a tropical depression by the Joint Typhoon Warning Center (JTWC) and re-designated as 26W. The Japan Meteorological Agency (JMA) however, had already considered the disturbance as a tropical depression a day prior to JTWC's. Philippines' meteorological service PAGASA also followed JMA's lead and gave it the name Paeng. That same day, it was upgraded again by JMA to tropical storm status, thus gaining the name Nalgae.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 22

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Gaming has long been a common pastime for many young and older people. It has reached new heights due to the pandemic, the introduction of smartphones, and their accessibility. Because of its popularity, gaming has gained a favourable reputation. In addition, online gaming promotes a healthy and competitive environment and improves players’ cognitive capacities, as it entirely depends on the user’s skills and knowledge. It is an additional tool therapists can use to address the escalating mental health challenge, even though it is not a replacement for conventional ways of mental health treatment. Gaming as a pastime has benefited people’s mental health and daily lives for a myriad of factors. While excessive gaming’s adverse repercussions are often discussed, its positive aspects are sometimes disregarded. According to expert research, playing video games have several advantages, including fostering the growth of a gaming community, social contact, and developing complex problem-solving skills. The mind can be stimulated, and video games can improve mental health. It offers a means of unwinding after work, making friends, and getting better at something. However, it is true what people say-consuming too much of anything is bad for your health. In moderation, mobile gaming has more advantages than disadvantages.

There are many myths about how video games affect mental health. The truth is that playing video games can help you learn how to solve complex problems and even encourage social connection through internet gaming. The mind can be stimulated, and video games can improve mental health. There are many advantages to playing video games for your mental health. You can get your mind moving and relieve tension by playing video games. The following are some benefits: Most of your brain’s cognitive processes are activated when playing video games to support higher-level thinking. You should immediately strategize, analyse, and think, depending on how complex the game is. Playing video games engages the deeper brain regions that ________ critical thinking and intellectual growth. You must complete objectives and goals in the game. Once you accomplish them, you feel a great sense of happiness, which enhances your general well-being. Playing games that award you medals or badges for achieving certain objectives enhances this sense of achievement. You have something to strive for when you try to gain more. Multiplayer games support social interaction and make people feel less lonely and isolated in a world where these issues are prevalent. Playing with known or even random individuals fosters a sense of companionship, teamwork, and belonging within the gaming community. Online and multiplayer games promote virtual social contact. You must learn whom to trust and whom to leave behind in the fast-paced environments. Games with several players promote collaboration. Moreover, it’s a risk-free setting where you can experiment with establishing conversations and friendships with strangers.

Running, working, or drawing are all hobbies that require moderation. While playing video games too much can be detrimental to your physical and mental health, doing so in moderation can help with well-being while still being a fun activity. Additionally, playing games might help us divert our attention from strong emotions like fear or tension. Furthermore, playing video games can help us deal with these emotions and dramatically reduce anxiety while regaining our equilibrium and can aid in fostering emotional toughness. Contrary to popular beliefs, playing video games improves mood and has long-lasting impacts. It is a fantastic option, whether you use it to unwind your day with friends or relieve stress.

Q. What is/are the advantages of multiplayer games as per the author?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 22
• Advantages mentioned in the first and the second options are correct but the third option has nowhere been mentioned. It has rather been given that online games if not played in moderation can destroy an individual’s physical and mental health.
• The second half of the second paragraph can be referred to for getting the answer of the given question

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 23

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Gaming has long been a common pastime for many young and older people. It has reached new heights due to the pandemic, the introduction of smartphones, and their accessibility. Because of its popularity, gaming has gained a favourable reputation. In addition, online gaming promotes a healthy and competitive environment and improves players’ cognitive capacities, as it entirely depends on the user’s skills and knowledge. It is an additional tool therapists can use to address the escalating mental health challenge, even though it is not a replacement for conventional ways of mental health treatment. Gaming as a pastime has benefited people’s mental health and daily lives for a myriad of factors. While excessive gaming’s adverse repercussions are often discussed, its positive aspects are sometimes disregarded. According to expert research, playing video games have several advantages, including fostering the growth of a gaming community, social contact, and developing complex problem-solving skills. The mind can be stimulated, and video games can improve mental health. It offers a means of unwinding after work, making friends, and getting better at something. However, it is true what people say-consuming too much of anything is bad for your health. In moderation, mobile gaming has more advantages than disadvantages.

There are many myths about how video games affect mental health. The truth is that playing video games can help you learn how to solve complex problems and even encourage social connection through internet gaming. The mind can be stimulated, and video games can improve mental health. There are many advantages to playing video games for your mental health. You can get your mind moving and relieve tension by playing video games. The following are some benefits: Most of your brain’s cognitive processes are activated when playing video games to support higher-level thinking. You should immediately strategize, analyse, and think, depending on how complex the game is. Playing video games engages the deeper brain regions that ________ critical thinking and intellectual growth. You must complete objectives and goals in the game. Once you accomplish them, you feel a great sense of happiness, which enhances your general well-being. Playing games that award you medals or badges for achieving certain objectives enhances this sense of achievement. You have something to strive for when you try to gain more. Multiplayer games support social interaction and make people feel less lonely and isolated in a world where these issues are prevalent. Playing with known or even random individuals fosters a sense of companionship, teamwork, and belonging within the gaming community. Online and multiplayer games promote virtual social contact. You must learn whom to trust and whom to leave behind in the fast-paced environments. Games with several players promote collaboration. Moreover, it’s a risk-free setting where you can experiment with establishing conversations and friendships with strangers.

Running, working, or drawing are all hobbies that require moderation. While playing video games too much can be detrimental to your physical and mental health, doing so in moderation can help with well-being while still being a fun activity. Additionally, playing games might help us divert our attention from strong emotions like fear or tension. Furthermore, playing video games can help us deal with these emotions and dramatically reduce anxiety while regaining our equilibrium and can aid in fostering emotional toughness. Contrary to popular beliefs, playing video games improves mood and has long-lasting impacts. It is a fantastic option, whether you use it to unwind your day with friends or relieve stress.

Q. Which of the given options provides the correct theme of the given passage?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 23

The given passage discusses how online games gained popularity and how they have since helped in the development of human brains by keeping them away from depression and enabling them to develop conversations and friendships that won’t harm them. The basic premise that the author follows is that we neglect the positives of gaming and focus only on the negatives most of the times.

Option (a) encapsulates the essence of the passage very well. (b) is too general an option which can be eliminated. (c) talks about a topic in general but does not exactly touch the theme. (d) and (e) are corollaries of the stated facts which may or may not be true.

Thus, (a) is the correct answer.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 24

Who did The Rock wrestle in the main event at the 1999 edition of "Wrestlemania"?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 24

This was the first time they wrestled each other at "Wrestlemania". Two years later they wrestled again with Austin winning that match as well. The third match was in 2003 in Seattle. This was Austin's last match and he finally lost to The Rock.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 25

Who invented the Automated Teller Machine (ATM)?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 25

John Adrian Shepherd-Barron, a British inventor of Indian descent, led the team that installed the first cash machine, now known as the automated teller machine or ATM.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 26

The abacus was believed to have been first used around 5000 B.C. in which country?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 26

An early form of abacus finds its origin in China.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 27

------- is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 27

Computer software, or simply software, is a generic term that refers to a collection of data or computer instructions that tell the computer how to work, in contrast to the physical hardware from which the system is built, that actually performs the work.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 28

The first supercomputer was installed at Los Alamos National Laboratory of USA and was introduced in 1976. What was its name?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 28

Cray Research created, produced, and sold the supercomputer known as the Cray-1. The first Cray-1 system, announced in 1975, was set up at Los Alamos National Laboratory in 1976. The vector processor concept was first successfully implemented in the Cray-1 supercomputer.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 29

Which language is used for developing iOS applications?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 29

Swift is the primary programming language used for iOS and macOS application development. It provides a modern and safe programming environment for building robust and efficient applications.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 25 - Question 30

The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called __________.

## SSC CGL Tier II Mock Test Series 2024

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## SSC CGL Tier II Mock Test Series 2024

66 docs|110 tests