AIPMT 2011 Solved Preliminary Paper


200 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers | AIPMT 2011 Solved Preliminary Paper


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This mock test of AIPMT 2011 Solved Preliminary Paper for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET AIPMT 2011 Solved Preliminary Paper (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this AIPMT 2011 Solved Preliminary Paper quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this AIPMT 2011 Solved Preliminary Paper exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other AIPMT 2011 Solved Preliminary Paper extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The dimensions of   are:

Solution:

Given expression is that of speed of light

QUESTION: 2

The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis
passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to its length is l0. Its moment of inertia
about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is

Solution:

I=lCM+Mh2 (Parallel  axix theorem)

QUESTION: 3

A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10
ms2, the velocity with Which it hits the ground is

Solution:

V =

QUESTION: 4

A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button one
control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0ms-2. If g = 10
ms^(-2), the tension in the supporting cable is :

Solution:

T = (M + m) (g + a) = (940 + 60) (10 + 1) = 11000 N

QUESTION: 5

A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth's radius
before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest

Solution:

 Just before hitting q is zero and both F, Vare maximum

QUESTION: 6

The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the
equation θ (t) = 2t3 - 6t2 The torque on the wheel becomes zero at

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2
π s. The acceleration of the particle is

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with
the same velocity. The Impulse experienced by the body is

Solution:

Impulse = MV – (– MV) = 2 MV

QUESTION: 9

A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively. Then the ratio v1/ v2

Solution:

 ( angular momentum is Constant)

 

QUESTION: 10

A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency n and the nucleus
recoils. The recoil energy will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

The potential energy of a system increases if work is done

Solution:

By definition

QUESTION: 12

A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity
becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10
m/s2 , the range of the missile is

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in
the figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is

Solution:

 

Work = Area under (F – d) graph
= 8 + 5 = 13 J

QUESTION: 15

A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is
doubled, then the outward electric flux will

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

Four electric charges +q, +q, –q and –qare placed at the corners of a square of side
2L(see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charges +q and
+q, is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field E (V/m) in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d (m) and area of each plate is A(m)2 the energy (joules) stored in the condenser is

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

If power dissipated in the 9 W resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the
potential difference across the 2  resistor is

Solution:

Current in 9 is 2A, so that in 6 is 3A. Total current is 2 + 3 = 5A. Potential drop = 5 × 2 = 10V

QUESTION: 19

A current of 2 A flows through a 2 resistor when connected across a battery.
The same battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9 resistor. The
internal resistance of the battery is

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

The rate of increase of thermo e.m.f. with temperature at the neutral temperature
of a thermocouple

Solution:

Slope is zero at neutral temperature

QUESTION: 21

A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC
is placed in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm
BC is ,the force on the arm AC is

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

The power obtained in a reactor using U235 disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass
decay of U235 per hour is

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

There are four light-weight-rod samples, A, B, C, D separately suspended by
threads. A bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations
are noted

(i) A is feebly repelled
(ii) B is feebly attracted
(iii) C is strongly attracted
(iv) D remains unaffected

Which one of the following is true?

Solution:

Diamagnetic will be feebly repelled. Paramagnetic will be feebly attracted.
Ferromagnetic will be strongly attracted

QUESTION: 24

The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating
along the +z-axis, can be represented by

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same
direction in certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is
pointed along direction of fields, then the electron

Solution:

Bfield will not apply any force. E field will apply a force opposite to velocity of the
electron hence, speed will decrease

QUESTION: 26

The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of
induced emf with time would be

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200 √2 sin100t volts is connected to capacitor of capacity 1 μF.The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and inductor L in series. If R and the inductive reactance are both equal to 3 , the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is

Solution:

QUESTION: 29

When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0° C, the resulting change in its entropy,
taking latent heat of ice to be 80 cal/°C is

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does –150 J of work against
its surrounding. This implies that

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown.
Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small, which graph
correctly depicts the position of the particle as a function of time?

Solution:

Motion given here is SHM starting from rest.

QUESTION: 32

Two waves are represented by the equations  where x is in meter and t in s.
The phase difference between them is

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents
SHM?

 

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass.
The wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and
gamma rays is

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that
of the second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number Z of
hydrogen like ion is

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?

Solution:

Difference between the apparent and real depth of the pond is because of the refraction that occurs due to the difference in refractive index of water and air.

QUESTION: 38

A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the
following options describe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30
cm from the lens?

Solution:

In general we have assumed μ = 1.5,
So, f = 20 cm and calculate v = 60 cm

QUESTION: 39

In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the
kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping
potential is

Solution:

Answer:

C) 0.5V

Explanation:

Stopping Potential or the cut-off potential is defined as the potential necessary to stop any electron from reaching on to the other side. The stopping potential Vs is related to the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons.

Kmax = eVs

Kmax = eV

0.5 eV = eVs or Vs = 0.5 V

Since, the stopping potential is amount of voltage needed to stop maximum energy electron.

Here maximum Kinetic energy = 0.5 eV  (Given)

Therefore, the stopping potential = 0.5 V

QUESTION: 40

Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If
the voltage is increased to 100 km then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the
electrons would

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively.
Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 42

In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the
electron gun can be increased by

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

The half life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 years. It decays to another element Y
which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio of 1: 15 in a
sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be

Solution:

After t second fractional amount of X left is  

t = 4 × T1/2
t = 4 × 50
= 200 years

QUESTION: 44

Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain
minimum

Solution:

Concept of threshold frequency

QUESTION: 45

Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

A nucleus   emits one a particle and two β-particles. The resulting nucleus is

Solution:

α emission decreases mass number by 4 and atomic number by 2. One β– emission
increases atomic number by one but leaves mass number unchanged

QUESTION: 47

A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at VC = 2 V such that a
change in the base current from 100 mA to 300 mA produces a change in the collector
current from 10 mA to 20 mA. The current gain is

Solution:

QUESTION: 48

If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal

Solution:

Addition of antimony will make it an N-type semiconductor

QUESTION: 49

In forward biasing of the p-n junction

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown as

Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively :

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is

Solution:

Number of atomic orbitals in an orbit = n2= 42=16

QUESTION: 52

The electrode potentials for V and +0.50 V respectively. The value of  .

Solution:

QUESTION: 53

Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

Solution:

Mole fraction of solute = 1/56.55 = 0.0177

QUESTION: 54

By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?

Solution:

Average Velocity =

QUESTION: 55

A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration of  is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 x 10-5,  what is the pH of this solution?

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in
20 and 10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B
will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under
adiabatic condition?

Solution:

For an ideal gas, for free expansion q=0,ΔT=0, w=0

QUESTION: 58

For the reaction  the equilibrium constant is K1. The
equilibrium constant is K2 for the reaction  What is K for the
reaction 

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following
relations is not related to adsorption process?

Solution:

x/m = P × T is the incorrect relation

QUESTION: 60

If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol-1 at 27°C, the entropy change for the process would be

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one
solvent and association in other solvent is respectively

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Standard electrode potential for sn4+/sn2+ couple is +0.15 V and that for the cr3+/cr couple is –0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total
pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2)
in the mixture is

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

If the   for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of ΔG° and Keq?

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

The freezing point depression constant for water is –1.86° cm -1 If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is dissolved in 45.0 g H2O,the freezing point is changed by –3.82°C. Calculate the van't Hoff factor for Na2SO4

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The
relation between their wavelengths i.e. l1 and l2 will be

Solution:

λ1=2 λ2

QUESTION: 67

Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are –1.2 V, +0.5 V and –
3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be

Solution:

Z > X > Y; higher the reduction potential lesser the reducing power

QUESTION: 68

Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect?

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H(g) → 2H2(g) is –869.6 kJ. The dissociation
energy of H – H bond is

Solution:

The dissociation energy of H – H bond is 869.6/2 = 434.8 KJ

QUESTION: 70

If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?

Solution:

CaI2 has lowest melting point

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method?

Solution:

Zr and Ti are purified by van Arkel method

QUESTION: 73

The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to
the formation of

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +
2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order?

Solution:

On the basis of electrode potentials, the correct order is Mn > Fe > Cr > Co

QUESTION: 76

Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridization of orbitals

Solution:

 both have same hybridization

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent
in the pig iron?

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

Which of the following is least likely to behave is Lewis base?

Solution:

BF3 is an electron deficient species

QUESTION: 79

Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder
for bleaching action?

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

The complex, [Pt (Py) (lNH3) Br Cl ] will have how many geometrical isomers?

Solution:

QUESTION: 81

Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of is shared?

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

The complexes [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6 ] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism?

Solution:

Co-ordination isomerism

QUESTION: 83

The d-electron configurations of  respectively. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour?

Solution:

QUESTION: 84

Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature?

Solution:

Ni has dsp hybridisation where CN(-) is a strong ligand

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following has the minimum bond length?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

The value of RH for the reaction

 is less than zero.Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at 

Solution:

Δ ng = –ve and ΔH = –ve

QUESTION: 87

Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer?

Solution:

Terylene is a polyester polymer because it is formed by the monomer units terephthalic
acid and ethylene glycol

QUESTION: 88

What is the product obtained in the following reaction

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D.

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

In Dumas' method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave
55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound would be (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent ?

Solution:

+R effect of OH > OCH3

QUESTION: 92

Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following?

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule
among the following which is linear?

Solution:

QUESTION: 94

In the following reactions,

Solution:

QUESTION: 95

The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By
doing so it.

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

The correct IUPAC name of the compound

Solution:

4–Ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene

QUESTION: 97

Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the
following?

Solution:

QUESTION: 98

Which one of the following is employed as Antithistamine?

Solution:

Diphenyl hydramine is employed as Antihistamine

QUESTION: 99

Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose?

Solution:

(+) lactose is a reducing sugar and it exhibit mutarotation

QUESTION: 100

Which one of the following statement is no true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

The "Eyes" of the potato tuber ar

Solution:

Axillary buds developing at nodes/notch/eyes

QUESTION: 102

Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a

Solution:

Methanogens are archaebacteria abundant in cattle yard, and paddy fields

QUESTION: 103

Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?

Solution:

The largest phylum in animal kingdom is arthropoda, and the largest class is insecta with
7,50,000 species.

QUESTION: 104

Archegoniophore is present in

Solution:

Stalk bearing archegonial cluster at tip in Marchantia thallus

QUESTION: 105

Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular
plants tend to be

Solution:

Gametophytes are reduced and few celled in all vascular plants

QUESTION: 106

The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in

Solution:

In gymnosperms and angiosperms gametophytes are dependent on sporophyte

QUESTION: 107

Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is

Solution:

Golgi complex performs glycosyl transferase activity for addition of glycans on lipids and proteins.

QUESTION: 108

Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in

Solution:

Ribosomes are site of peptide bond formation

QUESTION: 109

In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is

Solution:

Lipoprotein cell membrane is found in both but ribosomes are of different kinds

QUESTION: 110

Mutations can be induced with

Solution:

Mutation can be induced with high energy radiations like UV rays, gamma rays, which
cause change in the structure of DNA.

QUESTION: 111

A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the
genes of a crop is called

Solution:

Germplasm can be selected as seed or plantlets for their superior traits.

QUESTION: 112

Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?

Solution:

23 S rRNA is catalytic RNA

QUESTION: 113

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

Tomato — Berry, Orchid seed — no endosperm formation, Primrose — Free central
placentation.

QUESTION: 114

The correct floral formula of chilli is

Solution:

Chilli belongs to Solanaceae

QUESTION: 115

Nitrifying bacteria

Solution:

Step (1) — Nitrification by Nitrosomonas

Step (2) — Nitratification by Nitrocystis

 

QUESTION: 116

The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is

Solution:

LHB is O2 scavanger

QUESTION: 117

Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?

Solution:

Calcium is not remobilised, as it is a structural component in cell.

QUESTION: 118

A drupe develops

Solution:

Tomato — Berry, Wheat — Caryopsis, Pea — Legume

QUESTION: 119

Ground tissue includes

Solution:

Ground tissue system includes — cortex, endoderm, pericycle and pith.

QUESTION: 120

In land plants the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having

Solution:

Guard cells are specialised chlorophyllous epidermal cells.

QUESTION: 121

The ovary is half inferior in flowers of

Solution:

Ovary is half inferior in perigynous flowers.

QUESTION: 122

The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called

Solution:

Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are collectively called periderm.

QUESTION: 123

Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

Solution:

Puccinia — rust fungi.

QUESTION: 124

Flowers are Zygomorphic in

Solution:

Datura, mustard and tomato have actinomorphic flowers.

QUESTION: 125

CAM helps the plants in

Solution:

These are succulent plants with water storing cells

QUESTION: 126

Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is

Solution:

Plants capture 2-10% of PAR.

QUESTION: 127

A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont found in

Solution:

Anabaena cycadae is a BGA found in coralloid roots of Cycas

QUESTION: 128

Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of

Solution:

Nucellus polyembryony is common in Citrus,mango and Opuntia.

QUESTION: 129

Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of

Solution:

These are fingure like projections at micropylar end of synergids.

QUESTION: 130

What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with
42 chromosomes in its roots tip cells?

Solution:

Aleurone is triploid and root tip is diploid.

QUESTION: 131

Wind pollination is common in

Solution:

Wind pollination is common in grasses and gymnosperms.

QUESTION: 132

In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?

Solution:

Self pollination is favoured by cleistogamy

QUESTION: 133

Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called

Solution:

Standing state represent all non-living matter in an area at a given time.

QUESTION: 134

Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy?

Solution:

It was not a tragedy related to radioactivity

QUESTION: 135

Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a

Solution:

Secondary sewage treatment involves aerobic and anaerobic microbes.

QUESTION: 136

Eutrophication is often seen in

Solution:

It is process of enrichment of lakes by phosphates, nitrates etc

QUESTION: 137

Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in

Solution:

Lianas and epiphytes are more common in tropical rain forest.

QUESTION: 138

Which one of the following expanded forms of the followings acronyms is
correct?

Solution:

IPCC — Intergovernmental Panel for Climate Change

QUESTION: 139

Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?

Solution:

Secondary biotic succession occurs in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests and
lands that have been flooded

QUESTION: 140

Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?

Solution:

Rice has more than 50,000 genetically different strains, while mango has 1000 varieties in India.

QUESTION: 141

Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?

Solution:

Agrobacteriumis a gene transfer agent

QUESTION: 142

Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of
microorganisms in human body?

Solution:

Physiological barriers to the entry of micro-organisms in human body are tears in eyes,
saliva in mouth and HCl in stomach.

QUESTION: 143

Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?

Solution:

Glomus is a endomycorrhiza for phosphorus absorption

QUESTION: 144

'Himgiri' developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against
rust pathogens is a variety of

Solution:

This variety is resistant against leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt.

QUESTION: 145

Which of the followings is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria
on sewage?

Solution:

It is by the activity of methanogens

QUESTION: 146

Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in

Solution:

Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in gel electrophoresis

QUESTION: 147

Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of

Solution:

95% of the existing transgenic animals are mice

QUESTION: 148

Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to

Solution:

Continuous addition of sugar in fed 'batch' fermentation is done to purify enzymes.

QUESTION: 149

The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants
resistant to

Solution:

RNAi i.e., RNA interference is used in the development of plants resistant to nematode like Meloidegyne incognita.

QUESTION: 150

"Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of

Solution:

Jaya and Ratna are released throughout the rice growing belts of India

QUESTION: 151

Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells

Solution:

E. coli is a prokaryotic bacterium

QUESTION: 152

Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular
named taxonomic category?

Solution:

The zoological name of tiger is Panthera tigris in which Panthera is genus and tigris is species.

QUESTION: 153

In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?

Solution:

Salamandra is a tailed amphibian, has tymphanum which represents ear.

QUESTION: 154

Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one
characteristic feature without even a single exception?

Solution:

All chondrichthyes possess cartilaginous endoskeleton without exception

QUESTION: 155

What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?

Solution:

In class chondrichthyes males possess claspers on the pelvic fins

QUESTION: 156

The curve given below show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration)

What do the two axises(x and y) represent?

Solution:

X-axis represent temperature and Y-axis represent enzyme activity. All enzymes act at an optimum temperature, above and below this temperature the enzyme activity declines.

QUESTION: 157

The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in

Solution:

Ciliated columnar epithelium lines bronchioles and fallopian tubes

QUESTION: 158

Select the correct option with respect to mitosis

Solution:

Chromatids show poleward movement in anaphase; golgi and ER disappears in late
prophase.

QUESTION: 159

Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is
correctly identified along with its related function?

Solution:

A is the formula of Lecithin. Lecithin is a phospholipid and is the component of the cell membranes. B is the formula of adenine which is a nitrogenous base not a nucleotide.

QUESTION: 160

What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo
sapiens) from his ancestors?

Solution:

The most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from the
ancestors is increasing brain capacity

QUESTION: 161

Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of
determining the sex in the given example?

Solution:

X/A ratio determines sex in Drosophila  ; is heterogametic (ZW) in birds. In 'XO type'
the 'O' determines maleness.

QUESTION: 162

A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much
blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has
a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What
would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?

Solution:

The person with blood group O is said to universal donor, because in this, there are no antigens on the surface of RBC.

QUESTION: 163

What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes
when viewed under electron microscope?

Solution:

Nucleosome consist of octameric histone core wrapped by dsDNA

QUESTION: 164

Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function

Solution:

Vasopressin (ADH) is synthesised in hypothalamus but released into the blood
from posterior lobe of pituitary,so it is called as a hormone of posterior lobe. It
stimulates reabsorption of water in distal tubules in the nephron

QUESTION: 165

Which of the following is correctly stated as happens in the common
cockroach?

Solution:

In cockroach the food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard. In insects there is no oxygen transporting pigment and nitrogenous excretory product is uric acid.

QUESTION: 166

A large proportion of oxygen is left unused the human blood even after its
uptake by the body tissues. This O2

Solution:

Our tissues are able to utilise only 25% of O2 carried by arterial blood. Our
venous blood is still 75% saturated with O2. This O2 acts as a reserve during
muscular exercise.

QUESTION: 167

Which one of the following enzymes carries on the initial step in the digestion of
milk in humans?

Solution:

In humans milk protein digesting enzyme in stomach is pepsin. In calves it is rennin.
Rennin is also present in small amounts in human infants but not adults. Pepsin acts on water soluble caseinogen (milk protein) to form solubles 'casein'. This combines with
calcium salts to form insoluble calcium paracaseinate, which gets readily digested
enzymatically.

QUESTION: 168

Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?

Solution:

In Bowman's capsule PCT and DCT are in renal cortex, whereas, loops of Henle are in
medullary pyramids.

QUESTION: 169

One very special feature in the earthworm pheretima is that

Solution:

In earthworm, mid dorsal villi typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine

QUESTION: 170

Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts
coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper
movement of

Solution:

If a person suddenly starts coughing while swallowing food, it is due to improper
movement of epiglottis. If the glottis is not properly closed some food can enter
respiratory tract.

QUESTION: 171

Arteries are best defined as the vessels which

Solution:

Arteries are best defined as vessels which carry blood away from the heart to different
organs.

QUESTION: 172

'Bundle of His' is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?