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NEET Part Test - 2 - NEET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - NEET Part Test - 2

NEET Part Test - 2 for NEET 2025 is part of NEET preparation. The NEET Part Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Part Test - 2 MCQs are made for NEET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Part Test - 2 below.
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NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 1

Specific resistance of a conductor increases with

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 1

Resistance of a conductor is given by R = ρ l/A,
where ρ is the specific resistance, l is the length and A is the cross-sectional area of the conductor.
Now, when l = 1 and A = 1, R = ρ. So specific resistance or resistivity of a material may be defined as the resistance of a specimen of the material having unit length and unit cross-section. Hence, specific resistance is a property of a material and it will increase with the increase of temperature, but will not vary with the dimensions (length, cross section) of the conductor.
 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 2

Two cells of emf 1.25V , 0.75V and each of internal resistance 1Ω are connected in parallel. The effective emf will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 2

We want the Voltage difference VAB.
let A and B be open and not connected to any thing.
There is a current that flows from cell of larger emf to the cell of small emf.
Call that current as  I Amperes.

1.25 V - 0.75 V - I * R2 - I * R1 = 0

I = 0.5 / (R1+R2)
VAB =  -0.75 - I * R2 =  - 0.75 - 0.5 * R2 / (R1+R2)

= - (0.75 R1 + 1.25 R2) / (R1+R2)

= - ().75 * 1 + 1.25 * 1) / (1 + 1)  volts

=  - 1 volts

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 3

Three identical cells, each having an e.m.f. of 1.5 V and a constant internal resistance of 2.0Ω, are connected in series with a 4.0Ω resistor R, first as in circuit (i), and secondly as in circuit (ii).

What is the ratio 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 3

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 4

In a meter bridge experiment a balance point is obtained at a distance of 60 cm from the left end when unknown resistance R is in a left gap and 8 ohms resistor is connected in the right gap. When the position of R and 8 ohm resistor is interchanged the balance point will be at distance of

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 4

60/40 = l/100-l, = R/8

so R=12

now changed position 8 is proportional to l and 12 to (100-l)

8/12 = l/100-l

l = 40ohm

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 5

An observer looks at a tree of height 15 metre with a telescope of magnifying power 10. To him, the tree appears

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 5

The magnifying power of a telescope tells us how much closer an object appears when viewed through the telescope. If a telescope has a magnifying power of 10, it means the object appears 10 times nearer than it actually is. So, a tree at a certain distance will seem to be at one-tenth of its real distance from the observer.

Magnification of a telescope is given by:
M= θio​ ​​
10= (h/di)/(h/do​) ​​
10= do​​/di​
Distance of image, di​=do​​/10

This does not mean the tree appears taller; rather, its apparent distance is reduced by a factor of 10, making it appear 10 times nearer.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 6

A convex lens forms a real image of an object on a screen; the magnification of the image being 3/2. The object and the screen are kept fixed and the lens is moved through a distance of 16 cm when a sharp image is again formed on the screen; the magnification now being 2/3. What is the focal length of the lens?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 6

3/2=v/u…...1
2/3=(v-16)/(u+16)......2
from these equation
we get v=48, u=32
so now f=(vxu)/(v+u)=96/5=19.2
The correct answer is option B.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 7

An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a co-axial combination of two lenses A and B in contact. The combination forms a real image three times the size of the object. If lens B is concave with a focal length of 30 cm, what is the nature and focal length of lens A ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 7

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 8

An infinitely long rod lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f. The near end of the rod is at a distance u > f from the mirror. Its image will have a length

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 8

At infinity, image of B will form at focus since it is at infinity. Image of A will be at A which can be calculated by mirror formula.
1/v​+(1/−u)​=(1/−f)
⟹v= fu /(f−u)​=−( fu/(u−f)​)
Image length = v−f=(fu/(u−f)​)−(f)

= f2​/(u−f)
(We take the absolute values of the distances to calculate the rod length)

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 9

In case of concave mirror, the minimum distance between a real object and its real image is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 9

When an object is placed at the centre of curvature then image is formed at radius of curvature. 
So, the minimum distance is zero.
OR
Let focal length be f and an object is placed at u=2f
1/−f=(1/v)+(1/u)=(1/v)+(1/−2f)
v=−2f. 
Image will form at the object location. 
So the minimum distance is zero.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 10

A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has both surfaces of same radius of curvature R. On immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will behave as a:​

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 10

Consider refraction of light from infinity at first surface,
(μ2/v)​​−( μ1/u​)​=(μ2​−μ1/R)​​
(1.5​/ v1​)-(1.75/−∞)​=1.5−1.75​/−R
Consider refraction of this image from second surface,
​(1.75​/ v2)−(​1.5/v1)​=(1.75−1.5​)/R
Hence, v2​=3.5R
This is the image of light coming from infinity, therefore the focal length.
It is converging since focal length is positive.
 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 11

A convex lens produces a real image m times the size of the object. What is the distance of the object from the lens?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 11

M=−ϑ /u ​=−m/1​
ϑ=−mu
(1/ϑ​)−(1/u)​=1/f
1/mu​+1/u​=−1/f​
(1+m)​/xu=−1/f​
u= (1+m)​f/(m)

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 12

A sample of radioactive material contains 1018 atoms. The half life of the material is 2 days, then the activity of the sample is​

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 12

To find activity of the sample --->which is the rate of disintegration.

Since radioactivity comes under 1o kinetics.

[R]=k[A]     [A]-->amount of initial sample 1018 atoms

Given,

Half-life=2days

K=0.693/2x24x60x60 sec

R=(0.693/2x24x60x60)x1018

R≈3.5x1012 Bq

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 13

What is considered as the rivet in the ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 13

aul Ehrlich, a Stanford ecologist gave the ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’. In this hypothesis, he considered species as a rivet. This hypothesis provides a perspective on what might happen if a few species of the planet are extinct.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 14

Keystone species deserve protection because these

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 14

Keystone species are those which have significant and disproportionately large influence on the community structure and characteristics. It has often considerably low abundance and biomass as compared to dominant species. Removal of such species causes serious disruption in structure and function of community.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 15

Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 15

A. Beta diversity - Between community diversity
B. Rich biodiversity - Tropical areas
C. Gamma diversity - Diversity of whole geographical region
D. Extinct species - Dodo
E. Critically endangered species - Great Indian bustard

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 16

Study the following ecological pyramids carefully.

image

Match the following statements (i),(ii) and (iii) with given pyramids A, B and C and select the correct answer.
(i) Inverted pyramid of biomass depicting small standing crop of phytoplanktons supporting a large standing crop of zooplanktons
(ii) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem showing about 6 million producers
(iii) Upright pyramid of biomass

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 16

When the biomass of producer is less and that of the consumer is more the pyramid will have an inverted shape. It occurs in a pond and lake ecosystem. Here the biomass of diatoms in planktons is negligible as compared to their date of crustaceans and small fishes. inverted pyramid soil found in that ecosystem where the number and biomass of producers of more and those of consumers are less.
In most of the ecosystems, the number of the biomass of producers is more than those of a consumer is less. This type of ecosystem has a pyramid where the apex is pointed upwards. This type of pyramid is known as upright pyramid.
In some ecosystem, the number of the producers is more than the consumers. The apex is pointed upwards. This is known as the upright pyramid of the number. Found in the grassland ecosystem.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 17

Refer to the given table. If '+' sign has been assigned for beneficial interaction, sign for detrimental interaction and '0' for neutral interaction, identify the type of interaction (i), (ii) and (iii) and select the correct option.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 17

In competition, both species are harmed. In predation and parasitism, one species derives benefit and the other one is harmed. Commensalism is an interaction in which one species is benefitted and other one remains unaffected.

Topic in NCERT: Population Interactions

Line in NCERT: "Even in minimal communities, many interactive linkages exist, although all may not be readily apparent. Interspecific interactions arise from the interaction of populations of two different species. They could be beneficial, detrimental or neutral (neither harm nor benefit) to one of the species or both."

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 18

A microbial biocontrol agent that can be used to control butterfly caterpillars is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 18

An example of microbial biocontrol agent is bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt).
It can be introduced in order to control butterfly caterpillars.
These are available in sachets as dried spores that are mixed with water and sprayed onto vulnerable plants such as Brassica and fruit trees, where these are eaten by the insect larvae. In the gut of larvae, the toxin is released and the larvae get killed. The bacterial disease will kill the caterpillars, but leaves other insect uharmed. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 19

Identify the blank spaces A, B, C and D in the table given below and select the correct answer.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 19

Trichoderma polysporum is a fungal species that is known to make cyclosporine A compound. This compound exhibits antifungal and anti-inhibitory properties. The key property of this compound is that it is able to inhibit the activation of T-cells. These cells are involved in recognizing foreign and self elements. During the time of grafting usually, our body rejects the graft as T-cells recognize it as foreign. But using cyclosporine A we can inhibit this rejection by T-cells. So, the medical application of Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressive agent.
Monascus purpureus is a yeast strain belonging to the fungus that is known to make statin. Statin is a competitive inhibitor of cholesterol synthesis. This means that it negatively affects the cholesterol synthesis process. So, its medical application is that it is used to lower blood cholesterol levels.
Thus, from the above discussion, we can conclude that option A is the correct answer.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 20

What is the primary purpose of passing effluent into a settling tank after reducing BOD?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 20

The primary purpose of passing effluent into a settling tank is to allow bacterial flocs to sediment, which helps in further purification of the sewage.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 21

The figure given below shows mode of action of AIDS virus. Identify steps A, B, C, D and E labelled in it.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 21

Reverse transcription takes place during the formation of viral genomic RNA from DNA.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 22

Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in grossdeformities is caused by

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 22

Elephantiasis or filariasis is caused by a number of worms. However, in India only two types of worms are responsible for this disease, Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi.This disease is transmitted by female Cu/exmosquitoes. Elephantiasis affects lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 23

Which of the following pairs correctly matches a disease and a pathogen causing it?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 23
  • Typhoid - Salmonella typhi
  • Pneumonia - Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Malaria - Plasmodium
  • Ringworm - Trichophyton
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 24

Where will you look for the sporozoites of malarial parasite?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 24

When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, Plasmodium enters the mosquito's body and undergoes further development. The parasites multiply within them to form sporozoites that are stored in their salivary glands.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 25

Consider the following statements and select the option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F).
(i) There are many side effects of tubectomy and vasectomy.
(ii) Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg formation.
(iii) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by preventing ovulation.
(iv) Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease caused by herpes virus.
(v) In India, there is rapid decline in infant mortality rate and MMR.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 25

There are no side effects of tubectomy and vasectomy. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg transport.
Contraceptive pills help in birth control by preventing ovulation. Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease caused by human papilloma virus (HPV). In India, there is rapid decline in - IMR and MMR due to better health facilities.

Topic in NCERT: Contraceptive methods and reproductive health

Line in NCERT: "Sterilisation procedure in the male is called 'vasectomy' and that in the female, 'tubectomy'. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum whereas in tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina. These techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is very poor."

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 26

How do the pills work?
(i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(ii) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms
(iii) Prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the female vagina
(iv) Inhibit spermatogenesis

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 26

Small doses of either progestogens or progesterone-estrogen combinations are used in the form of tablets by females called oral pills. Pills inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard entry of sperms inside female genital tract.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 27

Match each function below with the associated part or parts of the human male reproductive system shown in the figure.
(i) Produces sperm
(ii) Conducts the sperm through the penis to the outside of the body
(iii) Produces seminal fluid
(iv) Connects the epididymis with the urethra

image

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 27

In the given figure: 
A. Seminal vesicle
B. Vas deferens
C. Prostate gland
D. Bulbourethral gland
E. Urethra
F. Epididymis
G. Seminiferous tubules

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 28

Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D in the given figure and select the correct option.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 28

Given figure represents an anatropous ovule.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 29

Which of the following are correct?
(i)Diploblastic:Poriferans, Coelenterates
(ii)Triploblastic:Platyheliminthes to Chorodates
(iii)Acoelomate:Poriferans,Coelenterates,Platyhelminthes
(iv)Pseudocoelomate:Aschelminthes /Roundworms
(v)Eucoelomate:Annelids to Chordates

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 29

(i) Diploblastic - Poriferans, Coelenterates

(ii) Triploblastic - Platyhelminthes to Chordates

(iii) Acoelomate - Poriferans, Coelenterates, Platyhelminthes

(iv) Pseudocoelomate - Aschelminthes/Roundworms

(v) Eucoelomate - Annelids to Chordates

So, the correct answer is '(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)'.

Topic in NCERT: Diploblastic and Triploblastic Organisation

Line in NCERT: "Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, an external ectoderm and an internal endoderm, are called diploblastic animals, e.g., coelenterates. Those animals in which the developing embryo has a third germinal layer, mesoderm, in between the ectoderm and endoderm, are called triploblastic animals (platyhelminthes to chordates)."

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 30

Causal organisms of sleeping sickness belong to which of the following groups of protozoan protists?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 30

Flagellated protozoans: The members of this group are either free-living or parasitic. They have flagella. The parasitic forms cause diaseases such as sleeping sickness. Example: Trypanosoma

Topic in NCERT: Flagellated protozoans

Line in NCERT: "Flagellated protozoans: The members of this group are either free-living or parasitic. They have flagella. The parasitic forms cause diseases such as sleeping sickness. Example: Trypanosoma."

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