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NEET Part Test - 2


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180 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series | NEET Part Test - 2

NEET Part Test - 2 for NEET 2022 is part of NEET Mock Test Series preparation. The NEET Part Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Part Test - 2 MCQs are made for NEET 2022 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Part Test - 2 below.
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NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 1

The time taken by a particle performing SHM on a straight line to pass from point A to B where it's velocities are same is 2 seconds. After another 2 seconds it returns to B. The time period of oscillation is (in seconds):

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 1

From the given information it can be concluded that points A and B are equidistant from mean position.Hence from diagram it is clear that time period of oscillation is= 2 + 2 x 2 + 2 = 8 second.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 2

For a particle in S.H.M., if the amplitude of displacement is ‘a’ and the amplitude of velocity is ‘v’ the amplitude of acceleration is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 2

Maximum velocity v = ω a
Maximum acceleeration f = ω2 a ⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 3

A body performs SHM along the straight line segment  ABCDE with C as the mid point of segment AE (A and E are the extreme position for the SHM). Its kinetic energies at B and D are each one fourth of its maximum value. If length of segment AE is 2R, then the distance between B and D is : 

  

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 3

When the particle crosses D, its speed is half the maximum speed.


or  or 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 4

A system is shown in the figure. The time period for small oscillations of the two blocks will be :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 4

Both the spring are in series
∴ 

Time period 
  
Method II

∴ 
mx1 = mx2 ⇒ x1 = x2
force equation for first block ;

Put x1 = x2 ⇒ 

∴  

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 5

Two light strings, each of length l, are fixed at points A and B on a fixed horizontal rod xy. A small bob is tied by both strings and in equilibrium, the strings are making angle 45° with the rod. If the bob is slightly displaced normal to the plane of the strings and released then period of the resulting small oscillation will be :  

              

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 5


Resulting torque on the bob = 
MI of bob about axis 
For small angle θ

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 6

A metre stick swinging in vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis passing through its one end undergoes small oscillation  of  frequency f0 as shown in figure. If the bottom half of the stick were cut off, then its new  frequency of  small oscillation would become:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 6


where, ℓ is distance between point of suspension and centre of mass of the body. Thus, for the stick of length L and mass m : 

when bottom half of the stick is cut off
 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 7

A 25 kg uniform solid sphere with a 20 cm radius is suspended by a vertical wire such that the point of suspension is vertically above the centre of the sphere. A torque of 0.10 N-m is required to rotate the sphere through an angle of 1.0 rad and then maintain the orientation. If the sphere is then released, its time period of the oscillation will be:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 7

τ = -kθ
0.1 = -k(1.0), where k is torsional constant of the wire.
k = 1/10
  = 4π second

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 8

A rod of length l is in motion such that its ends A and B are moving along x-axis and y-axis respectively. It is given that  rad/s always. P is a fixed point on the rod as shown in figure. Let M be the projection of P on x-axis. For the time interval in which q changes from 0 to π/2 ,

choose the correct statement :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 8


 ∴ θ = 2t
Let BP = a ∴ x = OM = a sin θ = a sin (2t)
Hence M executes SHM with in the given time period and its acceleration is opposite to 'x' that means towards left 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 9

Which of the following is greatest in SHM ? (assuming potential energy = 0 at mean position)

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 9

Average kinetic energy with respect to position
Average potential energy with respect to position  
Average kinetic energy with respect to time  
Average potential energy with respect to time

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 10

m1 & m2 are connected with a light inextensible string with m1 lying on smooth table and m2 hanging as shown in figure. m1 is also connected to a light spring which is initially unstretched and the system is released from rest :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 10

After the system is released, m2 moves down.
The extention in the spring becomes : 
 which is the new equilibrium position of the system.
For small 'x' : restoring force on the system is F = kx 
⇒  (For (m1 + m2 + spring) systeem)
⇒  
⇒ Angular frequency  
F.B.D. of m1 and m2 just after the system is released : 


mmoves towards right till the total kinetic energy acquired does not converted to potential energy.Hence  (D) is also incorrect.Hence (B) is the answer

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 11

The potential energy of a particle executing SHM changes from maximum to minimum in 5 sec. Then the time period of SHM is : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 11

P.E. is maximum at extreme position and minimum at mean position. 
Time to go from extreme position to mean position is, t = T/4 ; where T is time period of SHM 
5 s = T/4 ⇒ T = 20 s.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 12

A body is executing simple harmonic motion. At a displacement x from mean position, its potential energy is E1 and at a displacement y from mean position, its potential energy is E2. The potential energy E at a displacement (x + y) from mean position is (the potential energy is zero at mean position) :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 12


Therefore 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 13

In the figure shown a block of mass m is attached at ends of two springs. The other ends of the spring are fixed. The mass m is released in the vertical plane when the spring are relaxed. The velocity of the block is maximum when:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 13

Speed of block is maximum at mean position. At mean position upper string is extended and lower spring is compressed.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 14

Figure shows the kinetic energy K of a simple pendulum versus its angle θ from the vertical. The pendulum bob has mass 0.2 kg. The length of the pendulum is equal to (g = 10 m/s2) :  

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 14

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 15

The equation of a wave is given by (all quantity expressed in S.I. units) Y = 5 sin10π (t – 0.01x) along the x-axis. The magnitude of phase difference between the points separated by a distance of 10 m along x- axis is     :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 15

The magnitude of phase difference between the points separated by distance 10 metres.
= k x 10 = [10π x 0.01] x 10 
= π 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 16

A certain transverse sinusoidal wave of wavelength 20 cm is moving in the positive x direction. The transverse velocity of the particle at x = 0 as a function of time is shown. The amplitude of the motion is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 16



⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 17

Two vibrating strings of same material stretched under same tension and vibrating with same frequency in the same overtone have radii 2r and r. Then the ratio of their lengths is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 17

 and  
v1 = v2

 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 18

A chord attached about an end to a vibrating fork divides it into 6 loops, when its tension is 36 N. The tension at which it will vibrate in 4 loops is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 18

For waves along a string
⇒ 
Now, for 6 loops : 3λ1 = L ⇒ λ1 = L/3
& for 4 loops : 2λ2 = L ⇒ λ2 = L/2 
⇒  ⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 19

Sinusoidal waves 5.00 cm in amplitude are to be transmitted along a string having a linear mass density equal to 4.00 × 10–2 kg/m. If the source can deliver a maximum power of 90 W and the string is under a tension of 100 N, then the highest frequency at which the source can operate is  (take π2 = 10) :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 19


⇒ 
 ⇒ 
using data f = 30 Hz.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 20

What is the percentage change in the tension necessary in a sonometer of fixed length to produce a note one octave lower (half of original frequency) than before :`

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 20

In Sonometer 
 (Wave length constant for fixed length)
 ∴  ⇒  
∴ %

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 21

Figure shown is a graph, at a certain time t, of the displacement function S(x,t) of three sound waves 1,2 and 3 as marked on the curves that travel along x–axis through air. If P1,P2 and P3 represent their pressure amplitudes respectively, then correct relation between them is :    

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 22

Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, In which of the following gases the velocity of sound will be largest : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 22

The speed of sound in air is 
 of H2 is maximum, hence speed of sound in H2 shall be maximum.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 23

In a sound wave, to increase the intensity by a factor of 10, pressure amplitude must be changed by a factor of :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 23


 ⇒  
⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 24

The two pipes are submerged in sea water, arranged as shown in figure. Pipe A with length LA = 1.5 m and one open end, contains a small sound source that sets up the standing wave with the second lowest resonant frequency of that pipe. Sound from pipe A sets up resonance in pipe B, which has both ends open. The resonance is at the second lowest resonant frequency of pipe B. The length of  the pipe B is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 24

For pipe A, second resonant frequency is third harmonic thus
For pipe B, second resonant frequency is second harmonic thus 

⇒  

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 25

A source of sound of frequency 256 Hz is moving rapidly towards a wall with a velocity of 5 m/sec. If sound travels at a speed of 330 m/sec, then number of beats per second heard by an observer between the wall and the source is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 25

For a stationary observer between wall and source, frequency from direct source 
frequency from reflected sound 
So no beats will be heard. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 26

A stationary observer receives sonic oscillations from two tuning forks, one of which approaches and the other recedes with same speed. As this takes place the observer hears the beat frequency of 2 Hz. Find the speed of each tuning fork, if their oscillation frequency is 680 Hz and the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 26

 ⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 27

A source of frequency f is stationary and an observer starts moving towards it at t = 0 with constant small acceleration. Then the variation of observed frequency f ' registered by the observer with time is best represented as :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 27

After a time t, velocity of observer V0 = at
∴ 

Which is a straight line graph of positive slope.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 28

Two persons A and B each carrying a source of frequency 596 Hz and 600 Hz respectively are standing at rest a few metres apart. A starts moving towards B with a velocity of 2 m/s. If the speed of sound is 300 m/s. Which of the following statement is true?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 28

Beats heard per second by A is 8 and B is zero.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 29

In a horizontal spring–mass system, mass m is released after being displaced towards right by some distance at t = 0 on a frictionless surface. The phase angle of the motion in radian when it is first time passing through the equilibrium position is equal to :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 29

Using x = A sin (ωt + φ) and V = Aω cos(ωt + φ) for conditions at t = 0 → x = A and V = 0 then φ = π/2 
When it passes equilibrium position for the first time  t = T/4

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 30

A 75 cm string fixed at both ends produces resonant frequencies 384 Hz and 288 Hz without there being any other resonant frequency between these two. Wave speed for the string is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 30

Δv = 384 - 288 = 96
Thus 288 and 384 (96 x 3; 96 x 4) are third and fourth harmonics.
For fundamental mode: 
λ/2 = 0.75 λ = 1.5 m
η = 96
⇒ v = 96 x 1.5 = 144 m/s.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 31

A particle undergoes SHM with a time period of 2 seconds. In how much time will it travel from its mean position to a displacement equal to half of its amplitude : 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 31


NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 32

A horizontal rod of mass m and length L is pivoted smoothly at one end. The rod ’s other end is supported by a spring of force constant k. The rod is rotated (in vertical plane) by a small angle q from its horizontal equilibrium position and released. The angular frequency of the 
subsequent simple harmonic motion is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 32

Restoring rorque :
τ = ky L = KL2θ  (Since y ≌ Lθ from figure)
⇒  

⇒ (torque due to mg was already balanced so it is not taken in calculation)

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 33

A traveling wave y = A sin (kx - ωt + θ) passes from a heavier string to a lighter string. The reflected wave has amplitude 0.5 A. The junction of the strings is at x = 0. The equation of the reflected wave is: 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 33

As wave has been reflected from a rarer medium,therefore there is no change in phase.Hence equation for the opposite direction can be written as: 
y = 0.5A sin (-kx - ωt + θ) = -0.5A sin (kx + ωt - θ)

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 34

A string of length 1.5 m with its two ends clamped is vibrating in fundamental mode. Amplitude at the centre of the string is 4 mm. Minimum distance between the two points having amplitude 2 mm is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 34

λ = 2ℓ = 3m
Equation of standing wave y = 2A sin kx cos ωt y = A as amplitude is 2A. 
A = 2A sin kx 
⇒ 
and  ⇒ x2 = 1.25 m ⇒ x2 - x1 = 1m

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 35

The average density of Earth’s crust 10 km beneath the surface is 2.7 gm/cm3. The speed of longitudnal seismic waves at that depth is 5.4 km/s. The bulk modulus of Earth’s crust considering its behavior as fluid at that depth, is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 35

⇒ B = V2ρ
= (5.40 x 103 m/s)2 (2.7 x 103) = 7.9 x 1010 Pa.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 36

The second overtone of an open pipe A and a closed pipe B have the same frequencies at a given temperature. Both pipes contain air. The ratio of fundamental frequency of A to the fundamental frequency of B is:    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 36

Second overtone of open pipe  
second overtone of closed pipe  
Since, ratio of frequency are same ∴  
Now, the ratio of fundamental frequencies :  

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 37

A thin uniform rod  is suspended in vertical plane as a physical pendulum about point A. The time period of oscillation is T0. Not counting the point A, the number 'n'  of  other points of suspension on rod such that the time period of oscillation (in vertical plane) is again T0. Then  the value of n is : (Since the rod is thin, consider one point for each transverse cross section of rod)    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 37

When the point of suspension is at a distance x from centre of length of rod, the time period of oscillation is  where I is length of the rod.
The time period of oscillation will be same (T0) if the point of suspension is a distance x = λ/2 or x = λ/6 from centre of the rod. Thus there will be three additional points. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 38

Two radio station that are 250m apart emit radio waves of wavelength 100m. Point A is 400m from both station. Point B is 450m from both station. Point C is 400m from one station and 450 m from the other. The radio station emit radio waves in phase. Which of the following statement is true ?    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 38

At points A and B, path difference between the waves coming from two radio stations is zero. Hence there will be constructive interference at A and B, 


For point C, path difference between the waves is 50 metre i.e. λ/2 so 
destructive interference takes places at point C.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 39

A particle performs SHM with a time period T and amplitude 'a'. The magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the time interval during which it travels a distance a/2 from the extreme position is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 39

The magnitude of displacement in the given time interval = a/2 
Time taken by the particle to cover a distance a/2 starting from rest = T/6 
Hence the magnitude of average velocity over given time interval is

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 40

A simple pendulum 50 cm long is suspended from the roof of a cart accelerating in the horizontal direction with constant acceleration √3 g m/s2. The period of small oscillations of the pendulum about its equilibrium position is (g = π2 m/s2) :    

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 40

With respect to the cart, equilibrium position of the pendulum is shown. If displaced by small angle θ from this position, then it will execute SHM about this equilibrium position, time period of which is given by : 


 ;  
⇒ geff = 2g  ⇒ T = 1.0 second

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 41

A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions along x and y directions according to, x = 3 sin 100 πt; y = 4 sin 100 πt :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 41

x = 3 sin 100 πt
y = 4 sin 100 πt
Equation of path is


which is equation of a straight line having slope = 4/3
Equation of resulting motion is  
Amplitude is 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 42

When a wave pulse traveling in a string is reflected from a rigid wall to which string is tied as shown in figure. For this situation two statements are given below :                 

(1) The reflected pulse will be in same orientation of incident pulse due to a phase change of p radians
(2) During reflection the wall exert a force on string in upward direction
For the above given two statements choose the correct option given below :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 42

Reflected pulse will be inverted as it is reflected by a denser medium. The wall exerts force in downward direction.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 43

The equation of displacement due to a sound wave is s = s0 sin2 (ωt - kx). If the bulk modulus of the medium is B, then the equation of pressure variation due to that sound is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 43

The equation of pressure variation due to sound is

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 44

A point source of power 50π watts is producing sound waves of frequency 1875Hz. The velocity of sound is 330m/s, atmospheric pressure is 1.0 x 105 Nm-2, density of air is 1.0 kgm-3.  Then pressure amplitude at r = m from the point source is (using π = 22/7) :      

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 44

where P, P0 , V are power, pressure amplitude and velocity respectively. 
⇒ 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 45

An organ pipe of length L is open at one end and closed at other end. The wavelengths of the three lowest resonating frequencies that can be produced by this pipe are :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 45

   
 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 46


has correct IUPAC named as :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 46

 when attached to a ring, it is named as carboxamide.
 has higher priority than  – C ≡ N
(3) – C ≡ N has perfix cyano

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 47

The homologue of Ethyl propanoate is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 47

are homologue

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 48

Geometrical isomerism is not shown by 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 48

Conditions for geometrical isomerism is not fulfilled in C.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 49

Identify the option of correct isomeric relation.



Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 49

I & II have change in position of π-bond.
II & III have different geometrical orientations.
I & III also have change in position of π-bond. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 50

 'm' monochloro structural isomeric products

The value of m and n are respectively :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 50

'm' no. of products 
'n' no. of products 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 51

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 51

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 52

 reacts with carbonyls (Aldehyde/ketones) to give yellow ppt. 

A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde is heated with 2,4 DNP. How many fractions of organic products will obtained after fractional distillation of product mixture.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 52

Benzaldehyde is unsymmetrical, gives 2 product but formaldehyde is symmetrical ,gives only one product.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 53

Compare the physical properties (μ, b.p, m.p, &stability) in the geometrical isomers CH3 - CH = CH - CNChoose from the following options:

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 53

In trans isomer there is linear addition of bond dipoles hence μ isgreater and its B.P will be  more. Packing in trans is better hence m.p is more.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 54

An organic compound X(C5H10) on ozonolysis gives Y & Z. The product mixture Y and Z on reaction with NH2 – OH gives four oximes. The structure of X is

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 54

  

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 55

Which is least acidic.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 55

-I group increases acidic strength and I effects depend upon distance.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 56

Which of the following structures are superimposable (identical) :

 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 56

Both in (I) & (III) configuration at lower chiral carbon is 'R' and upper chiral carbon is 'S'.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 57

If optical rotation is produced by   is + 36o then that is produced by 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 57

Rotation of the compound in question is zero because it is a meso compound.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 58

The major product (ester) of the following reaction is

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 58

 (single stereoisomers)

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 59

The most stable conformation of 3-fluorobutan-2-ol is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 59

(Stable due to intramolecular H bonding)

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 60

Arrange in decreasing order of e-density in Benzene ring-

 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 60

Electron donating ability of group order :
-NH2 > -N(CH3)2 > - NH - CHO > -NH2

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 61

A Natural Drug was having [a] = 40.3º in polarimeter experiment in clockwise direction what can be the structure of this drug.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 61

is optically active compound so it rotate the plane of ppl.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 62

Acetaldehyde and acetylene can not be distinguished by :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 62

Lucas reagent can not be used to distinguished Acetaldehyde and acetylene.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 63

Which is the most stable resonating structure.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 63

Negative charge on more electronegative atom is more stable.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 64

In which delocalisation of positive charge is possible

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 64

In all other cases positive charge is not in conjugation.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 65

Which of the following  pairs of structures do not represent resonating structures ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 65

Structures given in option(A) are tautomers.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 66

Catalytic hydrogenation of which of the following, gives a product that gives two monophotochlorination products (considering structural isomers only)?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 66




NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 67

Stability of following alkenes in the increasing order is:




Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 67

No of hyperconjugation structures in I ,III ,IV and II are respectively 3,6,6 and 6.Trans is more stable than cis isomer.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 68

Which of the following can not give H2 gas with sodium metal ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 68

Ketones do not give H2 gas with sodium metal.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 69

Select the structure with correct numbering for IUPAC name of the compound.        

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 69

OH is senior than SH.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 70

Find the acid strength order:

(I) O2N - CH2 - COOH
(II) F - CH2 - COOH
(III) H3CO - CH2 - COOH 
(IV) CH3 - CH2 - COOH

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 70

(Acidity ∝ -I strength of groups attached)
-I strength is in order -NO2 > -F> -OCH3 & -CH2CH3 is +I group

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 71

Mark the strongest acid in following questions     

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 71

-NO2 at para position increases acidity at the maximum extent due to its strong -m and -I effect.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 72

Consider the set of three compounds, which is true about basicity of these compounds in water ?
(1) MeNH2        
(2) Me2NH and         
(3) Me3

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 72

In RNH2, R2NH, R3N ; the order of base strength is 2° > 1° > 3° when R = Me and the order is 2° > 3° > 1° when R = Et. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 73

A saturated hydrocarbon 'X' having molecular formula (C6H12) will form only one monochloro product on reaction with Cl2 in presence of ultravoilet light. Calculate the number of dichloroproducts (structural only) of the same compound 'X'.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 73

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 74

Which resonating structure is more contributor to the actual structure ?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 74

The structures with the least separation of formal charges are more stable. In structure C the charges are closer together making it more stable. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 75

The correct structure of tautomer of the following compound  can be: 

 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 75

The corresponding anion

because negative charges is stablised by two -m groups.

∴ The enolate ion is easily formed

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 76

Acidic strength of marked hydrogen of following compound in decreasing order is

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 77

The correct IUPAC name of following compound is

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 77

 is parent chain and  (2- hydroxybutyl) group is substituent.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 78

A hydrocarbon (P) on ozonolysis in presence of zinc gives only one dicarbonyl compound, which gives both Tollen’s and iodoform test. Identify the structure of (P).

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 78


Product gives both tollen's & iodoform test.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 79

Consider the true/false of the following statements:
S1: The most stable resonating structure of p-nitrophenol (not having aromatic ring) is  .
S2 : In  all C–O bonds are of equal length.
S3 : CH3COONa is more resonance stabilised than the protonated acid CH3COOH.
S4 : Benzene ring is more electron dense in phenol than phenoxide.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 79

S1 : Most stable resonating structure is 
group has greater +m effect, so it makes phenoxide ion more electron dense. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 80

Choose the strongest base among the following :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 80

Only in (D) the l.p of N atom is not involved in resonance with benzene ring.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 81

A hydrocarbon ‘X’ C7H10 is catalytically hydrogenated to C7H14 ‘Y’. 'Y' gives six monochloro products after photochemical chlorination. The structure of 'X'  is -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 81

C7H10 DU = 3
six monochloro products

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 82

The feasible reaction is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 82

Salicylic acid  is more acidic than p-hydroxy benzoic acid.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 83

The incorrect information about the given reaction is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 83

The compound (I) does not racemise during enolisation, because the carbon atom with α-H is not asysmmetric carbon atom.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 84

For the given reaction the correct reactivity order of H-atoms is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 84

Reactivity depends upon stability of free radicals generated at y,zx and w respectively. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 85

In the given sequence of reactions which of the following is the correct structure of compound A.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 85

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 86

Which of the following is not correctly ordered for resonance stability 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 86

Follow the rules for stability of resonating structures (structure with more number of p-bonds is more stable).

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 87

Amongst the following compounds select  the strongest acid.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 87

In acid (C), the group at ortho position is a –M group.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 88

Amongst the following compounds select  the strongest acid.

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 88

Sulphonic acid will be strongest acid. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 89

Amongst the following compounds select the correct acidic strength order 




Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 89

–M effect increases acidic strength more as compare to –I effect. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 90

Arrange the following carbocations in increasing order of stability:



Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 90

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 91

Which of the following is not a connective tissue? 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 91

The human body possesses four types of tissues, namely muscle, epithelial, connective and nervous. Connective tissue is further divided into six types, blood, lymph, bone, cartilage, adipose tissue, tendons and ligaments.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 92

Few features are given-

(I) hypodermal sclerenchyma  

(II) Conjoint Vascular bundle

(III ) unequal size Vascular bundle

(IV) parenchymatous endodermis

(V) presence of protoxylem in vascular bundle

How many features can belong to dicot stem-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 92

Dicot stem have conjoint vascular bundle and endodermis is made up of parenchyma and also protoxylem present in primary xylem

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 93

Which of the following option have all cell/tissue is present as a ground tissue in plant organ-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 93

Transverse section – epidernmis – vascular bundle = ground tissue

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 94

Which of the following feature belong to meristimatic cells-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 94

Meristematic cells are: thin walled, dense cytoplasm, in an active state of division, conspicuous nuclei, small size, isodiametric or polyhedral in shape, possess only primary cell wall, no lignin/suberin deposition, plasmodesmata present.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 95

Which of the following is not parenchymatous in nature-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 95

pericycle of dicot stem- sclerenchyma  and hypodermis of monocot stem sclerenchyma

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 96

Age of tree can be calculated by counting number of –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 96

Secondary xylem is the type of xylem formed fromsecondary growth. In comparison, the primary xylemforms during primary growth. Because of this, thesecondary xylem is associated with lateral growth rather than vertical growth as in the primary xylem.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 97

Which of the following group of feature belong to Dicot stem-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 97

The presence of interfasicular cambium and Vascular bundle is shown in the diagrammatic representation of dicotyledonous stem above.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 98

Which of the following is not present in Monocot stem-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 98
  • Phloem parenchyma is ordinary living elongated parenchyma cells having abundant plasmodesmata. They store food, resins, latex, mucilage, etc. Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the monocots and some herbaceous dicots. 
  • Cambium is a thin strip of primary meristem present between the xylem and phloem in dicot stems. Cambium is absent in the monocotyledons.
  • Phloem parenchyma is found in both primary and secondary phloem. It is a part of the phloem elements. These are found in dicot roots, leaves, and stems but are absent in monocot plants.
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 99

Mark the incorrectly matched-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 99

Spring wood have less amount of xylem fibres that are present in secondary xylem and due to this reason density of spring wood is less.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 100

Which of the following is not product of redifferentiation-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 100

Cork cambium is product of dedifferentiation

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 101

Which of the following not undergo dedifferentiation-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 101

Interfasicular cambium is product of dedifferentiation.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 102

Mark the correctly matched about monocot-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 102

The sclerenchymatous hypodermis is present in a monocotyledonous stem. The hypodermis is two to three-layered thick and lies below the epidermis. It is made up of thick-walled lignified sclerenchyma fibers. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 103

Lenticels and collenchymatous hypodermis both can be present in-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 103

Lenticels are present in dicot stem and dicot root.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 104

In Given, how many are present in monocot plant – Lenticels, stomata, phloem parenchyma, phloem fibre , cuticle, endodermis, root hair, phellogen ,secondary medullary rays

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 104

lenticels, secondary medullary rays are product of secondary growth Phloem fibre and phloem parenchyma absent in monocot and phellogen also absent in monocot.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 105

Which of the following not conduct Water –

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 106

Which of the following is not role of parenchyma-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 106

The functions of parenchyma tissues are storage, photosynthesis, and to help the plant float on water. Collenchyma- Are similar to parenchyma cells with thicker cell walls. They are meant to provide mechanical support to the plant structure in parts such as petiole of the leaf.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 107

Which of the following have thickest wall –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 107

Sclereids are a reduced form of sclerenchyma cells with highly thickened, lignified cellular walls that form small bundles of durable layers of tissue in most plants. The presence of numerous sclereids form the cores of apples and produce the gritty texture of guavas.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 108

In Given Examples, how many are triploblastic-

Echinus, Cucumaria, pleurobranchia , Ctenoplana , Gorgonia , Ascidia and Salpa

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 108
  • Triploblastic animals start from playthelminthis to the chordate, hence phylum is not triploblastic.
  • Pleurobranchia,ctenoplana,gorgonia are diploblastic because they're the members of phylum.
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 109

Mark the correctly matched –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 109

Clarias batrachus, a benthic species, has both a suprabranchial chamber (SC) and a Weberian apparatus-linked, encapsulated gas bladder (WGB).

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 110

Consider the following statements, mark the incorrect-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 110

In mosses, as in liverworts and hornworts, the leafy shoots belong to the gametophytic phase and produce sex organs when they mature. The leafy shoots (often called gametophores, because they bear the sex organs) arise from a preliminary phase called the protonema, the direct product of spore germination.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 111

Mark the wrong statement-

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 112

Consider the following statements, mark the incorrect-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 112

The fucus has a diplontic life cycle. Both the male and female fuse in the ostiole of the bump.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 113

Match the following-  which is/are correctly matched-

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 114

Consider the following statement- 

(a) Marchantia have dioceious sporophyte
(b) homosporus Pteridophye have both sporophye and gametophyte freeliving
(c) gemmae cup develop on thallus produce sexual bud 

Mark the correct option-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 114
  • Marchentia (a liverwort) have diocious gametophyte not sporophyte
  • In pteridophyte both sporophyte and gametophyte are free living. 
  • Gemma buds are asexual.
  • Hence, only statement  b is correct.
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 115

Consider the following statement- 

(a) Zygote of algae always undergo reduction division except in diplontic and haplo-diplontic algae 
(b) Both algae and bryophyte is homosporus   

How many statements are  correct - 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 116

Consider the following statements and mark the incorrect-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 116

Red algae is non motile.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 117

Match the following-

Which is/are correctly matched- 
(1) Heterosporus - selaginella and salvinia
(2) Gymnosperm female gametophyte - archegonia and embryo sac
(3) Air pollinated - Cedrus, ficus, pinus
(4) Prothallus - Dryopteris and Pteridium

How many are the correct - 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 117

Gymnosperm lack embryosac and prothallus is present in homosporus  pteridophyte like fern.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 118

Which of following features matched with  most of the bryophytes-

(1) spore  stage undergo mitosis.

(2) diploid stage is multicellular and  undergo meiosis

(3) diploid stage is represented by one  cell stage

(4) no free living sporophyte

How many are the correct -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 118

Diploid sporophyte is multicellular in bryophyte which is dependent and show meiosis.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 119

Consider the following statements  -

(1) In cycas male sporangia and female sporangia are borne on different tree
(2) branched stem is present in pinus and cedrus
(3) In cycas corraloid root is present
(4) In gymnosperm ovule are exposed both before and after fertilization

How many are the correct –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 119

Cycas show coralloid root, and exposed ovule is present before fertilization and after fertilization it form seed.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 120

Mark the wrongly matched - 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 121

Non motile spores are present in –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 121

Polysiphonia and porphyra is red algae and non motile.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 122

Which of the following is non-motile anisogamous-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 122

Spirogyra is non-motile anisogamou , gelidium and porphyra is non-motile but oogamous.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 123

Which of the following are oogamous and non-motile male gamets-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 123

Bryophyte and pteridophyte have motile male gamete and gymnosperm and angiosperm have non-motile gamets.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 124

Which of the following have sporophyte with vascular bundle-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 124

Pteridophyte, gymnosperm and angiosperm have vascular sporophyte.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 125

Consdier the following feature-

Internal fertilization, open circulatory system, malphigian tubule, triploblastic, nephridia, organ system-

How many feature are common in annelida and arthropoda-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 125

Annelida and arthropoda share dissimilarities on the mode of fertilisation, circulatory system and organ system.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 126

Which of the following not correct about  mollusca-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 126

Sensory tentacle located on anterior head region.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 127

Mark the correctly matched-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 127
  • Ophiura or the serpent star is a species of the brittle star in the order Ophiurida belonging to the phylum Echinodermata and class Ophiuroidea.
  • Cucumaria is a genus of sea cucumbers belonging to the phylum Echinodermata and class Holothuroidea.
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 128

Mark the incorrect statement –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 128

The body of amphibians is divisible into head and trunk.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 129

Mesoglea layer may be present in-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 129

Mesoglea layer present in diploblastic organism.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 130

Which of the following show asexual reproduction-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 130

Sponges and Coelentrata reproduce both sexually and asexually.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 131

Which of the following is not dioceious-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 131

Echinodermata and Aschehelminthes are mostly dioceious.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 132

Which of the following feature not match with Osteichthyes-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 132

The mouth of Osteichthyes is apical in position.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 133

Consider the following statements-

(1) acoelomates organism can be triploblastic
(2) some acoelomate organism  also show organ system level of organization

How many statement are correct- 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 133

Platyhelminthes are acoelomate and triploblastic but Achehelminthes show organ system but are pseudocoelomate.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 134

Internal fertilization present  in –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 134
  • Ascaris (Round worm) belong to phylum Aschelminthes. Their fertilisation is internal and development may be direct or indirect.
  • Locusta (Locust) is a gregarious pest belonging to largest phylum Arthropoda. They usually have internal fertilisation.
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 135

Organ system level of organization absent in –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 135

Flat worm (taenia) lack organ system level of organization.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 136

Water vascular system present in all except-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 136

Dentallium is an example of phylum mollusca and Asterias, Ophiura, Antedon are examples of phylum echinodermata which posses water vascular system.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 137

Water vascular system is present in all except one of the function

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 137
  • The water vascular system is present in the organisms which belong to the group of Echinoderms.
  • The system is a hydraulic system. This system is used by the organisms for respiration, food circulation, waste removal, excretion and locomotion.
  • It does not, however, play role in acting as sense organs. 
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 138

Internal fertilization is present in –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 138

Most reptiles reproduce sexually and have internal fertilisation. Calotes are an example of internal fertilisation.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 139

Mark the incorrect –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 139

Birds have direct development.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 140

Which of the following is not hypogynous –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 140

All four families –fabaceae, solanaceae,liiaceae and brassicaceae are hypogynous along with mustard, chilli and brinjal.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 141

Which of the following is not tap root modification-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 141

Asparagus is fibrous root modification and pneumatophore develop from prop root

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 142

Mark the correctly matched-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 142

Modified stems or leaves known as tendrils are seen in Vitis and passiflora. These tendrils develop from either the axillary bud or the terminal bud of the stem. Specifically, In Passiflora, the tendrils develop from the axillary bud.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 143

Which region in root is responsible for Growth of root in length-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 143

Length increase by only zone of elongation

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 144

Mark the wrongly matched-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 144

In Australian Accacia plant, leaves are small and long lived.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 145

Which is correct statement-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 145

The seed coat is thin membranous in groundnut, gram and maize seeds.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 146

Few Examples are given-

Pea, bean, belladonna, Aloe, Asparagus, mustard, indigofera, Gloriosa, groundnut and makoi

How many have zygomophic flower

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 146

Examples of fabaceae are zygomorphic

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 147

Few features are given-

Endospermous, Actinomorphic, basal leaf, epipetalous, bicarpellary, superior ovary, reticulate venation and glabrous

How many belong to liliaceae-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 147

Epipetalous, bicarpellary, reticulate venation and glabrous are feature of solanaceae

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 148

Among given feature-

Axile placentation, apocarpous, diadelphous, twisted aestivation, monodelphous, alternate phyllotaxy

How many belong to china rose-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 148

China rose given separately in example of axile placentation, monodelphous, alternate phyllotaxy and twisted aestivation

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 149

Monocarpellary ovary absent in-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 149

petunia is bicarpellary as it belong to solanaceae

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 150

Which is not correct-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 150

Papilionaceous corolla has five free petals which resemble the butterfly. The posterior superior petal is larger than the others, two anterior inferior petals are more or less united forming a boat-shaped structure and are called carina or keel, two lateral petals called wings are present.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 151

Which of the following example is non-endospermous except

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 151

In non- endospermic seeds like orchid, pea, lupin, the endosperm is completely consumed by the embryo.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 152

Which is incorrect about solanaceae-               

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 152

In Solanaceae, the gynoecium is bicarpellary and the seeds are endospermic. Flowers of Solanaceae family are called as hypogynous flower as the sepals, petals, stamens are successively and freely inserted below the ovary and ovary is termed as superior. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 153

Consider the following statement-       

(1) Cassia and gulmohur  have imbricate aestivation 

(2) Superior ovary present in soyabean

How many are correct?

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 153
  • In imbricate aestivation, one petal is completely inside and one is completely outside. The remaining perianth members show one edge inside and the other edge outside and are divided into two types descending imbricate and ascending imbricate. The example is Gulmohar and Cassia.
  • Gynoecium of soyabean is monocarpellary, unilocular with ovules on marginal placentation and superior ovary.
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 154

All are example of epigynous except

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 154

In epigynous flower, the thalamus grows around the ovary, fusing with its wall. The other floral parts are present above the ovary. Hence the ovary is said to be inferior. So, peach is not epigynous.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 155

Which is incorrect about liliaceae-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 155

Formed from six tepals arranged into two separate whorls of three parts each,Superior ovary, syncarpous, with three connate (fused) carpels and is trilocular or unilocular, actinomorphic (radially symmetric) or slightly zygomorphic (bilaterally symmetric), generally large and showy but may be inconspicuous. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 156

Consider the following example-

Diatom, euglenoids, dinoflagellate, Trypanosoma, Agaricus, Ustilago, Albugo

How many can have motile asexual stage-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 156

euglenoids, dinoflagellates, trypanosome and Albugo can have motile stage

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 157

Mark the wrongly matched –

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 157

Dikaryon not visible in phycomycetes.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 158

Few structure are given –

Basidiocarp, ascocarp, conidiophores, prothallus, sporangium, Asci,

Zygospore and conidia

How many are diploid-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 158

Conidiophore, prothallus and conidia are haploid.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 159

Which of the following group of structure are genetically identical-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 159
  • Conidiophore - Erect fungal filament on which conidia are formed is called conidiophore.
  • Conidia - Conidia are formed in chain. Each conidium forms new fungal filament (mycelium) by germination.

Hence, conidia and conidiophores are genetically identical.

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 160

Which is correct about thallus of cyanobacteria-

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 161

Consider the following statement -

a) bacteria is chemosynthetic, photoautotrophic and heterotrophic

b) mostly bacteria is heterotrophic

c) bacteria show most variation in their metabolic diversity

Mark the correct option-

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 161
  • Bacterias can be chemosynthetic, photoautotrophic and heterotrophic. Most bacteria are heterotrophs while some are photo or chemosynthetic autotrophs. 
  • The bacteria is known to have the most extensive metabolic diversity because it is able to extract energy from any carbohydrate which is in its reduced form like sugar.
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 162

Which is true about viroids, how many are correct- 

1) high molecular weight RNA molecule

2) have protein coat

3) cause potato spindle tuber disease

Mark the correct option- 

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 162
  • Viroids consist solely of a low molecular weight RNA of about 75,000–130,000 and lack protein coat. 
  • Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by a small, naked, single-stranded, circular molecule of infectious RNA, which is called a viroid. Viroids have been found to be the cause of several dozen plant diseases.
  • Hence, only statement 3 is correct.
NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 163

Exogenously produced sexual spores are present in -

Detailed Solution for NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 163

Sexual spores are mainly produced by fungi. Agaricus and puccinia belong to the kingdom fungi. 

NEET Part Test - 2 - Question 164

Which of the following example have endogenously produced asexual spores-