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NEET Unit Test - 7 - NEET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - NEET Unit Test - 7

NEET Unit Test - 7 for NEET 2026 is part of NEET preparation. The NEET Unit Test - 7 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Unit Test - 7 MCQs are made for NEET 2026 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Unit Test - 7 below.
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NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 1

The physical properties of electromagnetic waves are decided by their

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 1

Electromagnetic waves vary in wavelength and frequency. Longer wavelength electromagnetic waves have lower frequencies, and shorter wavelength waves have higher frequencies. Higher frequency waves have more energy.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 2

Oscillating circuits produce

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 2

An oscillator is a circuit which produces a continuous, repeated, alternating waveform without any input. Oscillators basically convert unidirectional current flow from a DC source into an alternating waveform which is of the desired frequency, as decided by its circuit components.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 3

Which one is not an electromagnetic wave?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 3

Ultrasound waves are a type of a sound wave which is longitudinal in nature while others are electromagnetic waves because they are transverse in nature.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 4

If a ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle 60° from the mirror surface, then deviation produced by mirror is

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 4

According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence and angle of reflection are equal. Both these angles are measured with respect to a line normal to the reflection surface. If I understand the question correctly, the incident ray makes an angle of 60 degrees with the mirror surface, then the angle of incidence can be calculated as:

Angle of incidence = 90 - angle made with the mirror surface

= 90 - 60 = 30 degrees.

Since, angle of incidence = angle of reflection = 30 degrees.

The incident ray will have an angle of reflection of 30 degrees (made with a surface normal to the mirror surface).

The reflected ray will make an angle of 60 degrees (90 - 30 degrees) with the mirror surface.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 5

An object is initially at a distance of 100 cm from a plane mirror. If the mirror approaches the object at a speed of 5 cm/s. Then after 6 s the distance between the object and its image will be

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 5

Given that,
The distance of object from plane mirror D=100cm
So, initial distance of image and object
=100−(−100)
=200cm
Now, object approaches the mirror with the speed=v=5cm/s  
So, distance travelled by object in 6 sec
D=5×6
D=30cm
At this instant,
Distance between mirror and object
D=100−30
D=70cm
Now, the distance between image and object is
D=70−(−70)
D=140cm
Hence, the distance between the object and its image is 140 cm.
 

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 6

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion(A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.

Assertion (A): According to Huygens theory no back-ward wavefront is possible.

Reason (R): Amplitude of secondary wavelets is proportional to (1+ cos q), where q is the angle between the ray at the point of consideration and direction of secondary wavelet.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 6
According to Huygens theory each and every point on a wavefront is the source of secondary wavelets. Secondary wavelets do not proceed backward. So the assertion is true.

Kirchhoff’s explained that amplitude of secondary wavelets is proportional to (1+ cos q), where q is the angle between the ray at the point of consideration and direction of secondary wavelets. In the backward direction q = 180°; so 1 + cos q = 0; so their secondary wavelets do not proceed backward.

Hence assertion and both are true and the reason properly explains the assertion.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 7

Emission and absorption is best described by,

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 7

The Particle Model of emission and absorption is based on the idea that light is composed of discrete particles called photons, and these photons carry quantized energy. This model helps us understand how atoms and molecules interact with light by either emitting or absorbing photons during electronic transitions.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 8

A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650nm and 520nm, is used to obtain interference fringes in a Young's double-slit experiment. Find the distance of the third bright fringe on the screen from the central maximum for wavelength 650nm.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 8

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 9

Estimate the distance for which ray optics is good approximation for an aperture of 4 mm and wavelength 400 nm.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 9

Here,
Aperture, a = 4 mm = 4 × 10-3 m
Wavelength, λ = 400 nm = 400 × 10-9 m = 4 × 10-7 m 

Ray optics is good approximation upto distances equal to Fresnel's distance (ZF).
Fresnel's distance is given by,

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 10

Trioxalato aluminate (III) and tetrafluorido-borate (III) ions are respectively :

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 10

O. N. of Al = +3
O. N. of B = + 3
[BF4]-
[Al(C2O3)3]3-

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 11

Consider the following statements, "According the Werner's theory. :

(1) Ligands are connected to the metal ions by covalent bonds.

(2) Secondary valencies have directional properties.

(3) Secondary valencies are non-ionisable.

(4) Secondary valencies are satisfied by either neutral or negative legands.

Of these statements.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 11

Werner’s coordination theory describes primary and secondary valencies in coordination compounds:

Ligands are connected to the metal ions by covalent bonds: Incorrect. Werner proposed that ligands are bound by coordinate (dative) bonds, not covalent bonds (Statement 1 is false).

Secondary valencies have directional properties: Correct. Secondary valencies (coordination number) determine the geometry of the complex (e.g., octahedral, tetrahedral), which is directional (Statement 2 is true).

Secondary valencies are non-ionizable: Correct. Secondary valencies involve ligands bound to the metal within the coordination sphere, which do not ionize in solution (Statement 3 is true).

Secondary valencies are satisfied by either neutral or negative ligands: Correct. Secondary valencies are satisfied by ligands like NH₃ (neutral) or Cl⁻ (negative) (Statement 4 is true).

Thus, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Answer: A

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 12

A complex of platinum, ammonia and chloride produces four ions per molecule in the solution. The structure consistent with the observation is :

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 12


[Pt(NH3)4]Cl4 → 5 ions
[Pt(NH3)2Cl4] → 0 ions
[Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 → 3 ions

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 13

What is the correct increasing order of reactivity of the  followings in SN2 reaction ?

I. CH2 = CHCH2 — Br
II. CH2 = CH— I
III. CH3CH2CH2 — I
IV. CH3OCH2CH2 — I 

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 13

Allyl bromide (I) is most reactive among the given halides as pi bonds from allylic position stabilises the transition state. Vinyl iodide (II) is least reactive due to partial double bond character. Electron withdrawing inductive effect of CH3O- increases reactivity of (IV) over (III)

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 14

 Which of the following is major product of following reaction?
CH3CH = CH2 + HBr 

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 14

The correct answer is Option D.
As HBr in the presence of a peroxide follows antimarkonikoff rule where the negative group should attach to the carbon having less no of hydrogen atoms.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 15

RCl + NaI   R-I+NaCl


This reaction is known as:

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 15

The correct answer is option D

where, X=Cl or Br.
This reaction is known as the Finkelstein reaction. Finkelstein's reaction is used to prepare alkyl iodides starting from alkyl chlorides and alkyl bromides.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 16

How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 16

Here, again carbon is not chiral in nature.
So, only one alcohol is chiral in nature

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 17

An organic compound X is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with Phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structure of X is

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 17

Since the product of oxidation reacts with phenyl hydrazine, it is a carbonyl compound. Since it does not answer silver mirror test, it must be a ketone. Ketones are produced by the oxidation of secondary alcohols. So the compound X is isopropyl alcohol

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 18

A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C5H9Cl in bright sunlight. The hydrocarbon is

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 18

Since monochlorinated compound is formed so that menas all the hydrogens are same.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 19

Directions : In this question, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.

Assertion (A): (CH3)3C−O−CH3 gives (CH3)3C−I and CH3OH on treatment with HI.
Reason (R): The reaction occurs by SN1 mechanism.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 19

(CH3)3C−O−CH3 gives (CH3)3C−I and CH3OH on treatment with HI. The reaction occurs by SN1 mechanism.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 20

Directions: In this question, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.

Assertion (A): Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols.
Reason (R): Phenols are ortho and para directing.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 20

Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols as the carboxylate ion, the conjugate base of carboxylic acid is stabilized by two equivalent resonance structures. Thus, the negative charge is delocalized effectively. However, in phenols, negative charge is less effectively delocalized over oxygen atom and carbon atoms in phenoxide ion.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 21

Protein encoding gene expressed in heterologous host is called as______.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 21

Protein encoding gene expressed in heterologous host is called as recombinant protein. Protein encoding genes are commonly described as structural or regulatory. Structural gene encodes enzymes and structural protein.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 22

A bioreactor is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 22

Fermentation is defined more from the point of view of engineers. They see fermentation as the cultivation of high amount of microorganisms and biotransformation being carried out in special vessels called fermenter or bioreactors.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 23

The bacterial cells can be lysed by using ______ enzyme.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 23

The enzyme used for breaking or lysis of bacterial cells is lysozyme. It helps in the breakdown of carbohydrates found in a bacterial cell. It is also found in tears.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 24

Which of the following methods should be used to increase crop production without use of chemicals and fertilizers?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 24

Use of genetically modified crops may increase crop production many times without use of chemicals and fertilizers. Gene coding form higher nutrient and resistance to disease can be incorporated in crop.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 25

Assertion: For toxicity testing, transgenic animals are made to carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substance.

Reason: Transgenic animals are exposed to toxic substance to be study to know their effect.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 25

Transgenic animals are used to study the toxicity effects of certain chemical in which animals are made to carry gene which make them more sensitive to toxic substance and exposed to toxic substance to be studied.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 26

An important objective of biotechnology in the area of agriculture is ________

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 26

An important objective of biotechnology in the area of agriculture is to produce pest-resistant varieties of plants.

This will help in less wasting of crops with high yield.
It will also give more products in less time and space.
NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 27

Which attribute is characteristic of a population and not an individual organism?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 27

The attribute that is characteristic of a population and not an individual organism is the sex ratio. While an individual organism is either male or female, a population has a sex ratio that represents the proportion of males to females within the population. This attribute is specific to populations and provides insights into the demographics and reproductive dynamics of the population as a whole.

Option b) "Sex ratio" is the correct answer because it accurately identifies an attribute that is characteristic of populations.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 28

Which level does natural selection operate on to evolve desired traits?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 28

Natural selection operates on the population level to evolve desired traits. While individual organisms have to cope with changes in their environment, it is at the population level that natural selection acts to shape the genetic composition and traits of the population over time.

Population ecology, links ecology to population genetics and evolution. It is at the population level that variations in traits occur due to genetic diversity and interactions with the environment. Individuals with traits that confer advantages in survival, reproduction, and adaptation are more likely to pass on those traits to the next generation through interbreeding.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 29

An age pyramid with a wide base and narrow top indicates a population that is:

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 29

An age pyramid with a wide base and narrow top indicates a population that is growing rapidly.

In an age pyramid, the width of each age group represents the proportion or percentage of individuals in that specific age group. A wide base indicates a larger population of young individuals, while a narrow top indicates a smaller population of older individuals.

When the base of an age pyramid is wide and the subsequent age groups gradually decrease in width towards the top, it suggests that there is a higher proportion of young individuals compared to older individuals. This is indicative of a population that is growing rapidly because there is a high birth rate.

NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 30

What does a population's birth rate refer to?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 7 - Question 30

A population's birth rate refers to the number of births per capita. A population has birth rates and death rates, and these rates are expressed as changes in numbers (increase or decrease) with respect to members of the population.

To calculate the birth rate, the number of births is divided by the population size or the number of individuals in the population. The birth rate per capita provides a measure of the average number of births per individual in the population.

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