UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2012: Paper 1 (GS)

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The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is
1. To promote institutional deliveries
2. To provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. To provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
Q. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?


The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:


The person who is not a member of either house of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister. But within six months he should become the member of either house of Parliament otherwise he ceases to be the Prime Minister. This was held in Supreme Court in 1997.


​With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • The Delimitation commissionor Boundary commission of India is a commission established by the Government of India under the provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act.
  • The main task of the commission is redrawing the boundariesof the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on a recent census.
  • The representation from each Stateis not changed during this exercise. However, the number of SCand ST seats in a state are changed in accordance with the census.
  • The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 censusunder the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002.
  • The Commission is a powerful and independent body whose orders cannot be challenged in a court of law. The orders are laid before the Lok Sabhaand the respective State Legislative Assemblies. However, modifications are not permitted.

Consider the following:
1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions
​Q. The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under “Employees’ State Insurance Scheme’?


In March 1943, B. P. Adarkar was appointed by Government of India to create a report on health insurance scheme for industrial workers. The report became the basis for the Employment State Insurance (ESI) Act of 1948
The act was initially intended for factory workers but later became applicable to all establishments having 10 or more workers. As on 31 March 2016, the total beneficiaries are 82.8 million.


According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer the using the codes given below:


The reports and statements get by president to be laid before parliament is / are as follows:

  1. Annual Financial Statement
  2. Reports of Auditor General
  3. Annual report of UPSC
  4. Reports of Finance Commission
  5. Reports of Special officers of SC & ST
  6. Report of the Special officers of Linguistic Minorities and Backward Classes.

A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill.
  • A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House:
  • if the bill is rejected by the other House;
  • if the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill;
  • or if more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House without the bill being passed by it.
  • In the above three situations, the president can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill.
  • In the case of a money bill, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each House separately.üIt must be noted here that the provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
  • If the bill (under dispute) has already lapsed due to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, no joint sitting can be summoned.üIn reckoning the period of six months, no account can be taken of any period during which the other House (to which the bill has been sent) is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days.

But, the joint sitting can be held if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the President has notified his intention to summon such a sitting (as the bill does not lapse in this case). After the President notifies his intention to summon a joint sitting of the two Houses, none of the Houses can proceed further with the bill


How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and interdepartmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
​4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for antipoverty programmes.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties, laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
​Q. Select the correct answer, using the codes below:

  • to abide by the constitution and respect its ideal and institutions;
  • to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
  • to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
  • to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
  • to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
  • to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
  • to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wild-life and to have compassion for living creatures;
  • to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
  • to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
  • to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement. Further, one more Fundamental duty has been added to the Indian Constitution by 86thAmendment of the constitution in 2002.
  • who is a parent or guardian , to provide opportunities for education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years

What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India .
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


C is the correct option. Only statement 4 is true.

  • The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA : 2. Appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.

  • A member of the higher judiciary, which means the Judges and Chief Justices of the Supreme Court of India and the state High Courts, can be removed from service only through the process of impeachment under Article 124 (4) of the Constitution.

  • There are two types of expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India- voted and charged. Voted expenditures are those which are discussed upon in the parliament or legislature and later becomes the budget of the country. (salaries are to be voted)

  • While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. ... All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

(the correct statement)


To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on Thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In thiscontext, what advantage does Thorium hold over uranium?
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste in comparison to uranium.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?


The advantages of thorium

  • According to the UN nuclear agency IAEA there are many benefits with thorium compared to uranium, which is currently used in nuclear reactors.
  • To begin with, there is limited radioactive debris when thorium is used. And in terms of chemical stability and resistance to radioactivity thorium is a safer alternative compared to uranium.
  • Depending on the core process utilized, thorium leads to more energy that can be recovered from this cheap, available and relatively safe energy.
  • thorium is regarded as a less dangerous, less expensive, more accessible and more environmentally friendly alternative to uranium,

The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs


Carbon dioxide molecules trap heat as they are transparent to sunlight but not to the heat radiation. If the amount of carbon dioxide crosses the delicate proportion of 0.03 per cent, the natural greenhouse balance may get disturbed. Carbon dioxide is the major contributor to global warming. 


Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?


The correct option is B.
Carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen were primarily responsible for the origin of life on earth.


What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of BT brinjal in India?
1. BT brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
2. The seeds of BT brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of BT brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of BT brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created? 1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
​4. To increase their shelf life
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Consider the following statements:
The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he
1. Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
​3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

Which among the above statements is/ are correct?


The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he was first Indian t get british parliament membership. He lived in London and got to know how Indian economy was being exploited by britishers, he wrote books like “unbritish rule” and hailed the concept of wealth drain from india to England. With his continuous efforts Indians  came to know about their wealth exploitation,this sensed nationalism among the people.


With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?
1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput Kingdom period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
​3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

  • Dhrupad is the oldest surviving form of Indian Classical music and traces its origin to the chanting of vedic hymns and mantras. Though a highly developed classical art with a complex and elaborate grammar and aesthetics, it is also primarily a form of worship, in which offerings are made to the divine through sound or nada.
  • Dhrupad is a vocal tradition based on the practice of nada yoga, and is also performed on instruments like the Rudra Veena and the Sursringar. For the past five centuries Dhrupad has thrived primarily under the patronage of Mughal and Rajput kings.
  • A Dhrupad performance starts with the alap which is a slow and elaborate development of a Raga (mode) using free flowing melodic patterns. The elaboration of Dhrupad alap is done using the syllables of a mantric phrase 'om antaran twam, taran taaran twam, ananta hari narayan om'.

How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues are found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?


Correct Answer :- a

Explanation : Dancing on brass plate is a feature of Kuchipudi and not Bharatnatyam.


With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
1. Meditation and control of breath
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


The early Sufis led an austere, simple life and conversed with people in their dialect, Hindawi or Hindi. These Sufi saints made themselves popular by adopting musical recitations called 'Sama', to create a mood of nearness to God. Many saints like Nizamuddin Auliya adopted Yogic breathing exercises, so much so that the Yogis called him a Sidh or "Perfect". So all the given statements are true.


The Rowlatt Act aimed at


In the year 1919, the British Government passed a new rule called Rowlatt Act, under which the Government had the authority and power to arrest people and keep them in prisons without any trial if they are suspected with the charge of terrorism. The government also earned the power to refrain the newspapers from reporting and printing news. The Act was ill famed as 'Black Act' by the people and Indians revolt in protest against the Rowlatt Act.


The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:
1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
3. A resolution was passed rejecting the twonation theory in that Session
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


the lahore session was of great in the indian national movement for was in this session that purna swaraj was declared as india's goal.the leaders aimed for nothing but complete independence.this session also formed an important cause for the civil disobedience movement.


With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
​3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • The Act provided a dual form of government (dyarchy) for the major provinces.
  • In each such province, control of some areas of government, (transferred list), were given to a Government of ministers answerable to the Provincial Council. The transferred list included Agriculture, supervision of local government, Health and Education.
  • All other areas of government (reserved list) remained under the control of the Viceroy. The reserved list included Defence, Foreign Affairs, and Communications.

During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?


Which of the following parties ‘were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party
Q. Select the correct answer the codes given below:


Scheduled Castes Federation (SCF) was founded by Dr. Ambedkar in 1942 to fight for the rights of the Dalit community. SCF was the successor organization of the Independent Labour Party led by Ambedkar.


With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements
1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
​2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


Consider the following crops of India:
1. Groundnut
2. Sesame
3. Pearl millet
​Q. Which of the above is / are predominantly rain fed crop/crops?

  • Sesamum is mainly a rain fed crop and is grown on marginal, dry and sloppy lands. Nearly 80% of the area sown to groundnuts in India is rain fed and relies entirely on summer monsoon rainfall.
  • Among cereals, the main rain fed cereals grown in India are sorghum, pearl millet (Bajra), Finger Millet (Ragi).
  • Nearly 80% of the area sown to groundnuts in India is rain fed and relies entirely on summer monsoon rainfall.
  • Among cereals, the main rain fed cereals grown in India are sorghum, pearl millet (Bajra), Finger Millet (Ragi).

When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:
1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land sliding
Q. Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?


Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because:
1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface
2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


The acidification of Oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?
1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. Survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected
​Q. Which among the statements given above is / are correct?


In India other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Q. ​Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolizes


The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of:


The Rig Vedic hymns throw liberal light on the Rig Vedic Religion or Early Vedic Religion. The Rig Vedic Aryans ascribed life to many objects of nature. Worship of different forces of nature formed a part of their religious belief. They believed that some divine power works behind these objects of nauture such as fire, water, wind, etc.


Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Brahmo Samaj denounced polytheism and idol-worship. It was against caste restrictions. It made faith in the doctrines of Karma and Rebirth optional.


The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?
1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


RBI Bankers' Bank

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution, which controls the monetary policy of the Indian rupee.
  • The RBI plays an important part in the Development Strategy of the Government of India.
  • The RBI is an independent apex monetary authority which regulates banks and provides important financial services like storing of foreign exchange reserves, control of inflation, monetary policy report.
  • The bank is also active in promoting financial inclusion policy and is a leading member of the Alliance for Financial Inclusion (AFI).
  • The bank is often referred to by the name Mint Street.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank which implies:
  1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
  2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
  3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Main Functions of the RBI

  • Financial Supervision
  • Regulator and supervisor of the financial system
  • Managing of exchange control
  • Issue of currency

Due to the above functions, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank


Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?
1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Capital gains are profits from the sale of a capital asset, such as shares of stock, a business, a parcel of land, or a work of art. A capital gain is realized when a capital asset is sold or exchanged at a price higher than its basis (an asset’s purchase price, plus commissions and the cost of improvements, minus depreciation). Similarly, a capital loss occurs when an asset is sold for less than its basis. Gains and losses (like other forms of capital income and expense) are all measured in nominal terms—that is, not adjusted for inflation.


Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
2. Deposit of currency in the commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • Money Supply is the current total supply of money in circulation in the whole economy of the country. There are three measures of money supply referred to as M1, M2, and M3.
  • M1 is a narrow measure of money's function as a medium of exchange. It includes all coins, publicly held currency, traveler's checks, and money account balances for checking accounts, credit union accounts, NOW accounts, and automatic transfer service accounts.
  • M2 is a broader measure that also reflects money's function as a store of value. M2 includes M1 plus savings and small time deposits, overnight repossessions at commercial banks, and non-institutional money market accounts. M2 is a key economic indicator which helps forecast inflation.
  • M3 is an even broader measure that includes close substitutes for money. M3 includes M2 plus large time deposits, repossessions of maturity greater than one day at commercial banks, and institutional money market accounts.

 Ways to increase the money supply

  • Print more money – usually, this is done by the Central Bank, though in some countries governments can dictate the money supply. For example in Zimbabwe 2000s – the government printed more money to pay wages.
  • Reducing interest rates. Lower interest rates reduce the cost of borrowing. This makes investment relatively more profitable, and so encourages economic activity. Consumers will also see cheaper mortgage payments leading to higher disposable income. Read more – effect of cutting interest rates
  • Quantitative easing The Central Bank can also electronically create money. Under a policy of quantitative easing, they decide to increase their bank reserves ‘effectively create money out of thin air’. The created money can be used to buy assets; the idea is to increase cash reserves of banks.
  • Reduce the reserve ratio for lending. The reserve ratio is the percentage of deposits that bank keeps in cash reserves. If the reserve ratio is reduced, then the bank will lend more and due to the money multiplier, we will see a rise in bank lending. Central Banks can set a minimum reserve ratio. Reducing this ratio
  • Increase confidence in the banking system. If banks have confidence in the financial system, then they will be more willing to lend. In the credit crisis, it was necessary for the government to guarantee bank deposits and nationalise struggling banks
  • Central Bank buying government securities. The Central Bank pays investors holding bonds. If the Central Bank buy Government securities (or corporate bonds) people who were holding the bonds have more money to spend. Banks see illiquid assets become liquid. Therefore, in certain circumstances, this can lead to an increase in the money supply. However, it depends on whether the bond purchases are sterilised or ‘unsterilised’. Unsterilised means they create money to buy bonds.
  • Expansionary fiscal policy. In a recession, there is often a ‘paradox of thrift’ business and consumers want to increase savings – and this leads to a fall in spending and investment. If the government borrows from the private sector and spends on public work investment schemes then this will start a multiplier effect where households gain wages to spend and encourage private sector investment.

Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
​4. Portfolio investment
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Foreign direct investment (FDI) is a direct investment into production or business in a country by an individual or company of another country, either by buying a company in the target country or by expanding operations of an existing business in that country. Foreign direct investment is in contrast to portfolio investment which is a passive investment in the securities of another country such as stocks and bonds.


Consider the following statements:
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
1. World Bank
2. Demand for provided by concerned goods/services the country
3. Stability of the government of the concerned country
4. Economic potential of the country in question
​Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • The World Bank is a vital source of financial and technical assistance to developing countries around the world. It has no relation with price of currency in international market. So we can eliminate  option c and option d.
  • Price of any currency is determind like price of any other commodity i.e, by forces of demand and supply. Demand for a currency is created by two factors, its exports that is other countrieswho want to buy, or the investments that people want to make in that currency. Therfore, Option 2 is correct.
  • Stability of the government is very important factor too as an unstable govt may not be able to take effective economic decisions which will in turn affect export and import.

The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that:


Consider the following:
1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
​Q. Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

  • Raja Todarmal had introduced the assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops, as Akbar’s able minister.
  • Akbar’s grandfather Babur had already done conquest Delhi through his brilliant use of mobile light canon, centuries before British.
  • The third statement is also incorrect. Correct answer is none

With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


This question is based upon a very special reference made by Kautilya in Arthashstra about the registration of Guilds. He had devises the method of regulation of guilds by:
1. Registration of the Guilds
2. Laying down the checks and balances on the activities of the artisans and forming the penal laws to prevent their transgression
3. Appointment of special tribunals to administer the laws.
All statements in this question are correct.


​The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the:


Government of India Act, 1935
As far as legislative powers are concerned, the constitution of India follows a system that is similar to the Canadian Constitution, but Indian Constitution has a more elaborate Concurrent List which was a result of following the Australian Constitution. The scheme of division of legislative powers is almost same as in the Government of India Act 1935. Then, if we talk about the distribution of the taxing power and revenues under the Indian Constitution, we find that it follows the scheme of 1935 act, which was actually based upon the experiences of 65 years since the times of Lord Mayo. Correct answer is C.


Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?
1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coalbased and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
​3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • Coal is and will continue to be the backbone of India's economic and development growth. India has the world's fifth largest coal reserves and is also the world's third largest producer and importer of coal.
  • The issue for India is that the gap between domestic supply and demand is growing at a phenomenal rate. This gap is being filled by imported coal and the graph below shows how it is rapidly increasing.
  • Coal imports to India. Source: World Coal.

Despite India's efforts to reduce the volume of coal imports, it appears that the demand for coal is outpacing all of the actions. It is difficult to see this trend reversing anytime soon, unless there is a major delay in India's plans for development in its economy and infrastructure. Here are three main reasons why India's coal imports will continue to grow.

1. Available land

Despite India holding the fifth largest coal reserves in the world, domestic coal production has not come close to meeting domestic demand. People will point to politics as the main culprit and the recent ‘coal-gate’ saga is a good example of that. True, it has been a setback for the Indian coal industry, but I don't think this will be the major issue for the future. Even if the political issues are resolved, the major issue will be the availability of land to construct new coal mines and infrastructure.
India has the second largest population in the world and it is a very crowded country. So to build new mines and infrastructure you have to relocate the people currently living there. The issue is where do you find vacant land in India to construct new townships. You don't – and that is a major reason why new coal mines have not come online in India. A recent example is Reliance Power cancelling the Tilaiya Ultra Mega Power Project and associated 40 million tpa coal mine, stating that it was due to the government not providing the required land. This is also why the major Indian companies (including Coal India) have been on a shopping spree to purchase mining leases outside of India.

2. Coal transport infrastructure

To produce the coal is only one part of the process. Transporting the coal to the power plants is another challenge altogether. India has a vast railway network, yet connectivity from the coal mines to the power plants on the coastal regions is a major bottleneck. Coal India's plan to produce 1 billion tpa relies heavily on improvements to the rail network. The Indian government has acknowledged this issue and is exploring joint ventures between Coal India, Indian Railways and various states. The issue is that they are only now just exploring the options, which will be some years before the necessary work is completed. The issue of securing domestic coal supply for the coastal coal-fired power plants will continue and the most viable option will be to continue to import coal.

3. Lower cost of imported coal

The international price for coal has lowered considerably in the last several years as has the shipping freight charges. Imported high-energy coal is now a lower cost than similar coal purchased from Coal India for a large number of coal-fired power plants. As the cost of imported coal has decreased, the price of domestic coal has increased over the same period of time. This is causing a number of Indian power companies to increase their purchase of imported coal. India's largest power generator, NTPC, is reportedly considering increasing its share of imported high-energy coal.


​A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the:


direction keeping the polestar to his left


Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why?
​1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • They are 17 elements highly valued for their uses in high-tech applications, such as wind turbines, laser-guided weapons, consumer electronics and hybrid-car batteries.
  • The process of bringing rare earth metals to an exploitable form includes mining (mostly from bastnaesite mineral deposits), separation, refining oxides into metals, fabricating alloys, and final manufacturing into various components.
  • Until the late 1980’s, the US dominated global production mostly through mining in Mountain Pass, California. In the past 20 years, US production has slowed due to environmental and safety concerns, the resulting regulations and restrictions causing prohibitive mining costs.
  • In recent years, China has actively expanded its rare earth metals reserves and tends to manage its exports with little transparency. A Reuters report from the US Geological Survey estimated that China holds about half the world’s rare earth metals reserve and produces more than 95% of the world’s supply.
  • the same time, demand has been growing annually. Currently, worldwide demand is at about 134,000 tons each year while production is only at 124,000 tons.
  • India is the second largest producer of rare earth materials after china, china presently produces more than 95% of all rare earth materials that are vital in the creation of a big variety of electronic technologies .                                                                                                           

Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis inIndia. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • Biomass gasification, or producing gas from biomass, involves burning biomass under restricted air supply for the generation of producer gas. Producer gas is a mixture of gases: 18%–22% carbon monoxide (CO), 8%–12% hydrogen (H2), 8%–12% carbon dioxide (CO2), 2%–4% methane (CH4) and 45%–50% nitrogen (N2) making up the rest.
  • Producer gas applications
  • The producer gas obtained can be used either to produce heat or to generate electricity.
  • Thermal applications Producer gas can also be burnt directly in open air, much like Liquid Petroleum Gas (LPG), and therefore can be used for cooking, boiling water, producing steam, and drying food and other materials.
  • Dryer: The hot gas after combustion can be mixed with the right quantity of secondary air to lower its temperature to the desired level for use in dryers in the industries such as tea drying, cardamom drying etc.
  • Kilns: Firing of tiles, pottery articles, limestone and refractories, where temperatures
  • of 800–950 °C are required.
  • Boilers: Producer gas can be used as fuel in boilers to produce steam or hot water
  • Power applications Producer gas can be used for generating motive power to run either dual-fuel engines (which run on a mixture of gas and diesel, with gas replacement of up to 85% of diesel) or engines that run on producer gas alone (100% diesel replacement). In general, the fuel-toelectricity efficiency of gasification is much higher than that of direct combustion: The conversion efficiency of gasification is 35%–45% whereas that of combustion is only 10%– 20%. Generated electricity can be fed into the grid or can be used for farm operations, irrigation, chilling or cold storage, and other commercial and industrial applications.

What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


Ultraviolet water purification uses ultraviolet (UV) rays to penetrate the harmful pathogens in your home’s drinking water. The light does not necessarily destroy the organisms, but disables their ability to multiply. Ultraviolet light is invisible but we are exposed to it every day from all sources including the earth’s sun. Ultraviolet water purification is a simple but effective process that destroys around 99.99% of the harmful organisms in water. Aside from drinking water at homes, it is also used by untreated private water systems. UV water purification is usually done in conjunction with other forms of filtration such as reverse osmosis or carbon block.


Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?
1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, Leos and organic LEOs.
Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?


Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


With reference to ‘stem cells’ frequently in the news, which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Stem cell, an undifferentiated cell that can divide to produce some offspring cells that continue as stem cells and some cells that are destined to differentiate (become specialized). Stem cells are an ongoing source of the differentiated cells that make up the tissues and organs of animals and plants. There is great interest in stem cells because they have potential in the development of therapies for replacing defective or damaged cells resulting from a variety of disorders and injuries, such as Parkinson disease, heart disease, and diabetes.

  • There are two major types of stem cells: embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells, which are also called tissue stem cells.
  • Embryonic stem cells (often referred to as ES cells) are stem cells that are derived from the inner cell mass of a mammalian embryoat a very early stage of development, when it is composed of a hollow sphere of dividing cells (a blastocyst). Embryonic stem cells from human embryos and from embryos of certain other mammalian species can be grown in tissue culture.

Some tissues in the adult body, such as the epidermis of the skin, the lining of the small intestine, and bone marrow, undergo continuous cellular turnover. They contain stem cells, which persist indefinitely, and a much larger number of “transit amplifying cells,” which arise from the stem cells and divide a finite number of times until they become differentiated. The stem cells exist in nichesformed by other cells, which secrete substances that keep the stem cells alive and active. Some types of tissue, such as liver tissue, show minimal cell division or undergo cell division only when injured. In such tissues there is probably no special stem-cell population, and any cell can participate in tissue regeneration when required.


Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone depleting substances, are used
1. in the production of plastic foams
2. in the production of tubeless tyres
3. in cleaning certain electronic components
​4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter?
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of antimatter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the ‘continued expansion of universe?
1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of red shift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?


With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?
1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


The correct option is Option D.

(d) 1st, 3rd and 4th are correct.

Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by the 1st century AD.

The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.

The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.


With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?
1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
​4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • Kindly pay attention to statement 2. You must be aware that in last few years, Government has strengthened the district as the unit of planning in almost all Centrally sponsored programmes. Government has also consciously structured the flagship programmes in a manner that strengthens decentralized management through local institutions.
  • In the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan and the National Rural Health Mission, District level Plans are being prepared and funded. In the National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme, village panchayat level plans are prepared and aggregated at the District level as a District Plan and funds released to executing agencies which happen to be largely the panchayats. Similarly in the urban areas, under JNNURM, 63 cities have evolved medium term development plans for the cities and have been supported with Central Government funds.
  • Each district planning committee has a crucial role in building a thoughtful vision for its district through a participative and inclusive process. This is a correct statement. Option 3 & 4 are also correct. Correct answer is 2,3 & 4 only.

​The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the:


The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because:


None of them was a reason. The actual reason was that congress, following its policy of non-cooperation in the war effort had called upon the ministries to resign. For Jinnah , it was a recipe for organizing the DOD on 22.12.1939


Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

  • To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
  • The second part of the given statement in option B First part of this statement is also correct and is as per the article 249., which says 249 (1) Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in force.

How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agri-business centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pumpsets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) is a poverty alleviation project implemented by Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. This scheme is focused on promoting self-employment and organization of rural poor. The basic idea behind this programme is to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups) groups and make them capable for self-employment.


The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Which of the following is / are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Q. ​Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog), after its recent push for Rs 6,000 crore (US$ 889 million) textile sector package, aims to persuade the Government for similar support in the manufacturing sectors with large-scale employment generation opportunities, such as electrical and electronics engineering, footwear and light manufacturing segments, which also have export potential.

The Government of India plans to implement a new Defence Procurement Policy (DPP) which was passed in April 2016 under which the priority will be given to the indigenously made defence products and 25 per cent share of defence production will be open to private firms.

Gujarat government is planning to set up an electronics products manufacturing hub in the state, through its newly announced Electronics Policy 2016, which will generate about 500,000 jobs in the electronics sector in the next five years.

Commerce minister Nirmala Sitharaman has launched the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund (TADF) under the National Manufacturing Policy (NMP) to facilitate acquisition of Clean, Green and Energy Efficient Technologies, by Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

Entrepreneurs of small-scale businesses in India will soon be able to avail loans under Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY). The three products available under the PMMY include: Shishu - covering loans up to Rs 50,000 (US$ 735), Kishor - covering loans between Rs 50,000 (US$ 735) to Rs 0.5 million (US$ 7,340), and Tarun - covering loans between Rs 0.5 million (US$ 7,340) and Rs 1 million (US$ 14,700).


Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and votean-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Parliamentary control over Public Corporation:

  • In the State establishing the Corporations it is often provided that their annual reports should be submitted to the Government of India giving an ac­count of the activities and then laid before both the Houses of Parlia­ment.
  • Under the Insurance Corporation Act, 1956, besides the auditor’s report and annual report, the report of the actuaries contain­ing the result of an investigation made by the actuaries into the finan­cial condition of the business of the Corporation should also be so laid.
  • The Parliamentary control over the function of the statutory cor­porations is confined to broad featured criticism and day to day functioning is outside the purview of such control. The member’s right to ask questions about the public undertakings and general debates especially the budget debate provide the occasions for such criticism.
  • The Estimates Committee of the House of the People has often been making suggestions with a view to proper working to the Damodar Valley Corporation and the Oil and Natural Gas Commis­sion and other Corporations.
  • A Committee of the Parliamentary Con­gress party under the chairmanship of Shri V.K. Krishna Menon has also gone into the matter and made certain recommendations. Amongst other things it has suggested the appointment of a Commit­tee of the Lok Sabha for exercise of continuous broad supervision.
  • The Committee has made recommendations with a view to make Parliament’s control “real and gainful” by watching the functioning of the Corporations.
  • It is difficult to say exactly how this Committee shall work in such a manner that it makes the Parliamentary super­vision “real and gainful” and at the same time not provide an instru­ment of interference into the normal working of the Corporations.

Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because:


With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the statements:
1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:
1. Low birth rate with low death rate
2. High birthrate with high death rate
3. High birthrate with low death rate
​Q. Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:



  • In stage one, pre-industrial society, death rates and birth rates are high and roughly in balance.
  • In stage two, that of a developing country, the death rates drop quickly due to improvements in food supply and sanitation, which increase life expectancies and reduce disease. The improvements specific to food supply typically include selective breeding and crop rotation and farming techniques.
  • In stage three, birth rates fall due to various fertility factorssuch as access to contraception, increases in wages, urbanization, a reduction in subsistence agriculture, an increase in the status and education of women, a reduction in the value of children's work, an increase in parental investment in the education of children and other social changes. Population growth begins to level off.
  • During stage four there are both low birth rates and low death rates. Birth rates may drop to well below replacement level as has happened in countries like Germany, Italy, and Japan, leading to a shrinking population, a threat to many industries that rely on population growth. As the large group born during stage two ages, it creates an economic burden on the shrinking working population. Death rates may remain consistently low or increase slightly due to increases in lifestyle diseases due to low exercise levels and high obesityand an aging population in developed countries.

In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
​5. Textiles
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Core Industries:
 The Eight Core Industries comprise nearly 38 % of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
 The Eight Core Industries are Electricity, steel, refinery products, crude oil, coal, cement, natural gas and fertilisers.


Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
​5. Seventh Schedule
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


The correct option is Option B.


Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn ‘. What is the importance of this plant?
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Sea- Buck Thorn
    Seabuckthorn is a medicinal plant found in the Himalayan region. Our country holds tremendous potential in respect of Seabuckthorn fruit production and diverse varieties which have health-promoting properties and can play a crucial role in preventing soil erosion and help nitrogen fixation in cold and desert areas.
  2. This is the most important environmental benefit of the Seabuckthron.
  3. Seabuckthorn fruit grows in the cold deserts of Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, Lahul-Spiti in Himachal Pradesh and some parts of Arunachal Pradesh.
    Please note that as of now, it has not been established that Seabuckthorn oil is a “Rich” source of Biodiesel. It was studied as a good option / cadidate for the manufacture of biodiesel. The major use of seabuckthorn oil is in medicinal and food use. In my view, statement 2 is incorrect.

Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming?


The chief characteristic of “mixed farming” is rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together

This method of mixed farming is practised mostly in Asian countries like India, China, and Indonesia etc.

This type of farming creates a sustainable environment in which the dug of the live stock is used as a manure for the farming industry and also the agricultural weeds can be used as a feed for the livestock. They grow with mutually benefitting each other.  


A particular State in India has the following characteristics:
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.
​Q. Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?


As per the State of Indian Forests Report 2011, in Arunachal Pradesh, the recorded forest area is 61.55% of its Geographical area. The protected areas here constitute 11.68% area of the state. The total forest cover of Arunachal Pradesh is 68,019 km², which is 81.22% of its area. So the correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.


Consider the following crops of India:
1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea
​Q. Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?


Consider the following factors
1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
​4. Revolution of the Earth
Q. Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?


There are a variety of factors that affect how ocean currents (water in motion) are created, including a combination of two or more factors.


Wind is the single biggest factor in the creation of surface currents. Strong winds moving across an expanse of water move the surface of the water. These strong winds are not random breezes; the major winds that most often effect the creation of ocean currents are the Westerlies, which blow west to east, and the Trade Winds, which blow east to west.

Water Density

Another major factor in the creation of currents is water density, caused by the amount of salt in a body of water, and its temperature. Water with a higher salinity, or colder water, is more dense and likely to sink. Sinking water pushes the water below it up. The combination of sinking and rising in the same area causes a current.

Ocean Bottom Topography

Water contours to the topography of the ocean floor or bed. If the ocean bottom "drops out," like in a valley or trench, the moving water will move downward. If there is a rise in the ocean bottom, like a ridge or mountain, the water moving along it will be forced upward. The sudden upward or downward change of direction causes water displacement, creating a current.

Coriolis Effect

When a rotating object collides with another moving or stationery force, it creates a new motion. The Earth's rotation creates two currents: one, a clockwise movement of water in the Northern Hemisphere; the other, a counter-clockwise movement of water in the Southern hemisphere. When these currents are deflected by land masses, they create huge ocean currents called gyres.
Statements  1, 2 & 3 are correct.


Consider the following protected areas;
1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
​4. Sunderbans
Q. Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?


Consider the following statements:
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

  • The amount of rainfall decreases from east to west owing to the progressive decrease in humidity of the winds.
  • Southern part of India, being near to sea, gets rainfall early and for a longer duration than in northern part.

Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?​


Tropical Savannah has a definite dry and wet season. The wet summer season lasts 6 to 8 months and during these days, there is plenty of rainfall. Winter lasts for 4 to 6 months and there might be no rains in winter. This winter is the dry season in which there are frequent forest fires.


In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people are not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

  • In 1970, the Indian Board for Wildlife drafted a national wildlife policy. This policy identified the cause for wildlife depletion and made specific recommendations for wildlife conservation in the country.
  • The major threats to wildlife species and habitats identified were: habitat changes, use of pesticides, lack of legislative support, commercial exploitation, introduction of exotics, poaching, biotic interference, use of crop protection guns and lack of organisation and guidelines for management.
  • The policy recommended that establishment of a central organisation to maintain territorial integrity of wildlife areas and suggested that 4% of total land area be managed as national parks by a central organisation. Following the 1970 policy on wildlife conservation, several major initiatives were taken during the decades of the 70s and early 80s. These included:

a) The enactment of the Wildlife (protection) Act in 1972. This provides for three categories of protected areas: national parks, sanctuaries and closed areas. However levels of protection afforded in each category differ, as do the degrees of restriction on human activities.
b)National parks are given highest level of protection, with no grazing and no private land holding or rights permitted within them.
c)Sanctuaries are given a lesser level of protection, and certain activities may be permitted within them for better protection of wildlife or for any other good and sufficient reason. The state government may declare an area closed to hunting of wild animals for a specified period; other activities are permitted to continue.
d) Establishment of the central and State Directorates of Wildlife Preservation,
e)Initiation of major species conservation projects to Project Tiger, Elephant, Rhino, Asiatic Lion, Himalayan musk deer, turtles and crocodile, regulating the export and import of wildlife and their parts and derivatives;


Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird
​Q. Which of the above is/ an pollinating agent/agents?

  • There are basically two types of pollination-Biotic and Abiotic

.Biotic Pollination
is through the insects, some birds and animals, etc. Some examples could be like moths, bats, hummingbirds, butterflies, bees, and on and on.

Abiotic Pollination
is when the pollen sacks are transferred to any other flower through abiotic factors, like wind, water, etc. Around

  • The different agents of pollination are :
    1. Wind
    2. Water
    3. Insects
    4. Mammals
    5. birds

Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?​


Consider the following statements If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2. One would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3. The blotting paper would fail to function
4. The big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth
Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?


The rise and fall of a liquid surface in a small thin tube, when it is immersed vertically in a liquid is called capillarity (capillary action). The rise of the liquid surface in the tube is called as capillary rise and the fall of the liquid surface is called as capillary depression. The capillary rise and fall of the liquid is expressed in terms of cm or mm of liquid.The value of capillary rise and fall depends upon

  • Specific weightof the liquid.
  • Diameter of the tube and
  • Surface tensionof the liquid.

Examples Based on What is Capillarity or Capillary Action

  1. In plants the rise of water from the roots to all its parts takes place because of capillary action.
  2. The capillary action draws ink to the tips of a fountain pen from cartridge (reservoir) inside the  pen
  3. The towels that we use after taking bath, absorb water from our body because of capillary action.
  4. Sponge which has larger number of small pores acts as small capillaries and absorbs a large amount of water.
  5. The cotton clothes that we wear in hot summer day shows capillary action and absorbs all our body sweat and maintains the temperature of the body to normal.

The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?


What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?


Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  • Five main threats to biodiversityare commonly recognized in the programmes of work of the Convention: invasive alien species, climate change, nutrient loading and pollution, habitat change, and overexploitation. Unless we successfully mitigate the impacts of these direct drivers of change on biodiversity, they will contribute to the loss of biodiversity components, negatively affect ecosystem integrity and hamper aspirations towards sustainable use.
  • In discussing threats to biodiversityit is important to keep in mind that, behind these direct drivers of biodiversity loss, there are a number of indirect drivers that interact in complex ways to cause human-induced changes in biodiversity. They include demographic, economic, socio-political, cultural, religious, scientific and technological factors, which influence human activities that directly impact on biodiversity.
  • Indicators for trends in nutrient loadingand invasive alien species have been identified under the focal area addressed here, and are described below. Information on habitat change is provided by the indicator trends in extent ofselected biomes, ecosystems Overexploitation is discussed under the focal area on sustainable use While there is no single indicator of the impacts of climate change on biodiversity, a number of indicators, including those on trends in extent of selected biomes, ecosystems and habitats (particularly applied to coral reefs, polar ice and glaciers, and certain types of forests and drylands), abundance and distribution of selected species and incidence of human induced ecosystem failure, can serve to derive trends where specific data are available. Because small, fragmented ecosystems are more affected by changes in temperature and humidity than large contiguous ecosystems with a more balanced micro-climate, trends in connectivity/fragmentation of ecosystems provide an indicator of the vulnerability of ecosystems to climate change.

Consider the following:
1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
​Q. Which of the above are naturally found in India?

  • The cheetah is a large feline inhabiting most of Africa and parts of Iran.
  • The black-necked crane is a medium-sized crane in Asia that breeds on the Tibetan Plateau and winters mainly in remote parts of India and Bhutan. Flying squirrel, a species of rodent, is found in China, India, Indonesia, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Taiwan, Vietnam and Thailand. The snow leopard is a large cat native to the mountain ranges of Central and South Asia.

Consider the following agricultural practices:
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
​Q. In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?

  • Any method which helps the soil to retain more organic matter , so that it may work as an effective Carbon sink would be helpful in Carbon sequestrian or storage. The question gives you three options which you need to analyze one by one:
  • ContourBunding:
    Contour bunding Contour bunding is one of the extensively used soil and water conservation technique in several rainfed areas. Contour bunding is a mechanical measure which minimizs the soil erosion. Contour bunding involves the construction of small bunds across the slope of the land along a contour so that the long slope is reduced to a series of small ones. The contour bund acts as a barrier to flow of water down a slope and thus the benefit is that it increases the time so that water concentrates in an area and this more water is absorbed. The question is; whether the contour bunding helps in carbon sequestrian or not . The answer is YES. Contour bunding increases the water holding capacity while minimizing the surface evaporation. Then soil erosion is minimized, and surface residues favour the nutrient recycling and result in higher carbon storage in the soil. This is a correct option.
  • RelayCropping:
    Relay cropping means that new a crop is planted or sown before the previous one is harvested. This can provide advantages for both crops as one of them may provide nitrogen, shade, support or may discourage pests. The obvious benefit of Relay cropping is soil conservation. Then, relay cropping helps in better yield and also helps in solid conservation. It does help in Carbon Sequestrian. This is also a correct answer.
  • ZeroTillage:
    Zero tillage is also based upon the premise of soil conservation, basic premise is to minimize the disturbances to the soil leading to an increase in retention of water, nutrients and topsoil itself. No-till has carbon sequestration potential through storage of soil organic matter in the soilofcropfields. Thus, we conclude that all options help in carbon storage and correct answer is C that is 1, 2 & 3

These practices are called C-Enhancement Practices (CEP). ƒ CEPs consist of a single technology or practice aimed at conserving or enhancing carbon stock in selected land categories. Potential CEPs are mulching, organic manure application, green manure application, reduced or zero tillage, contour bunding, farm ponds, tank silt application, intercropping or multiple cropping, and cover cropping.


What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to:


Use of diclofenac  drug  has been led to a sharp decline in the vulture population. This drug was used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle


In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. What is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is:​


How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to resources genetic/biological cannot be made without approval of NBA.
​Q. Which of the statements given a above is/are correct?


The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
​Q. Select the correct answer:

  • The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 specifically aims at the creation of a National Green Tribunal which would help in the reduction of the burden of cases from the higher judiciary and effectively and efficiently dispose of issues relating to the environment, including basic rights of the individual for free and safe environment, protection of the flora and fauna, etc.
  • This act was created in consonance with the need to effectively manage and divert the increasing chunk of pending cases from the other organs of the judiciary. This tribunal was also created so that the basic right of the individuals to a safe environment can be safeguarded as part of Article 21 of the Constitution.

As the aims of the National Green Tribunal suggest, there is a huge importance attached to Article 21 of Constitution concerning environmental matters. The Supreme Court in Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar[3] observed that “Right to Live is a fundamental right under Article 21 of Constitution and includes right of enjoyment of pollution-free environment and if anything impairs that quality of life, a citizen has the right to have recourse under Article 32 by way of a petition.” Rights provided under Article 21 are basic rights and it cannot and should not be overlooked. Protection and preservation of the environment, ecological balance free from pollution of air and water comes within the ambit of the right to life and so ecological, environmental, air and water pollution should be regarded as a violation of Article 21


If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of oceanwater.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells a land for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
​Q. Which of the above Gandhian Principles reflected in the Directive of State Policy?


Directive principles which are based on Gandhian ideology are:

  • To organise village panchaYats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40)
  • To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas (Article 43)
  • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections ofthe society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46)
  • To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47)
  • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48)

Consider the following statements
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the preview of Chief Election commissioner to adjudicate election disputes.
​3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


Under the Constitution, the parliament of India consists of three parts

  1. The President
  2. The Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
  3. The House of People (Lok Sabha)
  4. Composition of two houses -> Composition of Rajya Sabha -> 2. Representation of Union Terrirotiries.
  5. .Out of the seven union territories, only two (Delhi and Pondicherry) have representation in Rajya Sabha. The Population of other five union territories are too small to have any representative in Rajya Sabha

With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/arc correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his / her behalf. Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below


In general, the consumer rights in India are listed below:

  • The right to be protected from all kind of hazardous goods and services
  • The right to be fully informed about the performance and quality of all goods and services
  • The right to free choice of goods and services
  • The right to be heard in all decision-making processes related to consumer interests
  • The right to seek redressal, whenever consumer rights have been infringed
  • The right to complete consumer education

Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • Speaker is an autonomous Constitutional body by himself, he can be removed by Lok Sabha, President has no role in this. So Speaker doesn’t hold office during the pleasure of President.Statement #1 is false.Eliminate option s involving Statement #1
  • Statement #3: is correct, Speaker can resign by writing to the Deputy Speaker.Final Answer (B)

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court -Supreme Court decides the disputes between -
1. the Centre and one or more states; or
2. between two or more states; or
3. the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other.

  • For these, Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.
  • No other court can decide such disputes.
  • Original means to hear such disputes at the first instance and not by way of appeal.
  • But, the dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
  • Also, any suit against the Centre or a state,brought before the Supreme Court,by a private citizen cannot be entertained under this.

Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following -
(a) Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.
(b) Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
(c) Dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant etc.
(d) Dispute arising out of any treaty, etc., which specifically mentions that court’s original jurisdiction will not be applicable to it.
(e) Inter-state water disputes.
(f) Adjustment of some expenses and pensions between the Centre and states.
(g) Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and states.

  • The first suit, under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, was brought by West Bengal against the Centre in 1961.

Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants
​Q. Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

  • Biopesticides are naturally occurring substances, such as microbes, Bt bacteria, plant extracts, fatty acids or pheromones. Their use is growing rapidly worldwide, and they are in demand for their value in IPM programs to enhance yields and quality along with their low impact on the environment.

Currently, the EPA recognizes three major classes of biopesticides:

  • Microbial pesticides consist of a microorganism (e.g., a bacterium, fungus, virus or protozoan) as the active ingredient used to control pests. The microorganism may occur naturally, be dead or alive, or be genetically engineered. Microbial pesticides can control many different kinds of pests, although each separate active ingredient is relatively specific for its target pest[s]. For example, there are fungi that control certain weeds, and other fungi that kill specific insects.
  • Biochemical pesticides are naturally occurring substances, such as plant extracts, fatty acids or pheromones, that control pests using a nontoxic mode of action to the pest. Conventional pesticides, by contrast, are generally synthetic materials that directly kill or inactivate the pest, most frequently by attacking the nervous system. Biochemical pesticides, while nontoxic, can be lethal such as clays that suffocate insects, anti-feeding compounds that cause starvation, or vinegar that kills plants. Other biochemical pesticides include substances such as insect sex pheromones that disrupt mating, repellents that protect plants from deer or insect pests, and various scented plant extracts that attract insect pests to traps.
  • Plant-Incorporated-Protectants (PIPs) are pesticidal substances that plants produce from genetic material that has been added to the plant, such as corn and cotton. Scientists have taken the gene for the Bt pesticidal protein, and introduced the gene into the plant’s own genetic material. The plant, instead of the Bt bacterium, manufactures the substance that destroys the pest. The protein and its genetic material, but not the plant itself, are regulated by EPA.
  • Biopesticides offer additional benefits, such as complex and novel modes of action for resistance management to extend the product life of conventional pesticides. They also add flexibility in a traditional farming operation with reduced pre-harvest intervals to manage residues for exported produce, and shorter field reentry times for workers, which reduces labor costs.