UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS)


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QUESTION: 1

Consider the following events:
1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Q. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

Solution:

The first communist ministry ever to come to office through popular elections was the ministry headed by Comrade E.M.S. Namboodiripad in Kerala. In the 1957 elections the undivided Communist Party of India won the elections to the Kerala Legislative assembly. Though this ministry was later dismissed undemocratically by an authoritarian Congress regime ruling at the Centre, it drew world-wide attention. Presently, the CPI(M) heads three governments in the states of West Bengal, Kerala and Tripura.
The Imperial Bank of India, which became the State Bank of India after independence, came into existence on January 27, 1921. On July 1, 1955, as per the State Bank of India Act 1955, the State Bank of India (SBI) was constituted and it took over the business and undertaking of the Imperial Bank. In the same year the State Bank of India (Subsidiary Bank) Act was passed, with the State Bank of Hyderabad becoming the first subsidiary of the SBI
The Air Corporation Bill was legislated into an Act which brought forth two nationalized Air Corporation, viz Indian airlines Corporation (for operation of internal air services in the country and adjacent countries like Burma, Ceylon and Pakistan) and the Air India International for operation of long distance International Services, was constituted on 15th June 1953 and took over the undertakings of the nine air transport companies with effect from 1st August 1953. The Indian air transport system was composed of the following airlines: 1. Air India Ltd. 2. Air Services of India Ltd. 3. Airways India 4. Bharat Airways 5. Deccan Airways 6. Himalayan Aviation Ltd. 7. Indian National Airways 8. Kalinga Airlines 9.Air India International Ltd.
On December 19, 1961, Goa officially became part of India and two years later, held its first general election.

QUESTION: 2

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately and appropriately imply the above statement?

Solution:

The nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court has unanimously delivered its judgment in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India holding that privacy is a constitutionally protected right which not only emerges from the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the constitution, but also arises in varying contexts from the other facets of freedom and dignity recognised and guaranteed by the fundamental rights contained in Part III of the Indian constitution. 

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
Q. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

Solution:

Barley, Finger millet (Ragi), Groundnut, Sesamum, are covered under MSP fixed by GOI.

QUESTION: 4

In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

Solution:

Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary (862 km2, 92°36’ – 93°09'E and 26°54 – 27°16'N) lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It was declared a sanctuary in 1977, and was earlier part of the Khellong Forest Division. It has been recently declared a tiger reserve in 2002 based on a proposal in 1999.

QUESTION: 5

With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. PSLV is launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Both PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) are the satellite-launch vehicles (rockets) developed by ISRO. PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to SunSynchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude.
The remote sensing satellites orbit the earth from pole-to-pole (at about 98 deg orbital-plane inclination). An orbit is called sun-synchronous when the angle between the line joining the centre of the Earth and the satellite and the Sun is constant throughout the orbit. GSLV Mk III is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.

QUESTION: 6

With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

B is the correct option. The govt has been infusing large amounts in seven public sector banks through recapitalisation bonds but this not has been steady as the statement 1 says, so, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct.To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.for example the merger of SBI associate banks will result in the creation of a stronger merger entity.

QUESTION: 7

Consider the following items:
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?​

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements:
1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. In a bid to undo historical injustice meted out to primitive tribal communities living in central India, the government of Madhya Pradesh has for the first time recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baigas. Habitat rights for primitive and vulnerable tribal groups are decided by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. 

QUESTION: 9

Consider the following:
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Q. Which of the above spread plant diseases?

Solution:

Birds, Dust blowing, rain, and wind blowing all spread plant diseases.

QUESTION: 10

​With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Program for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001
• APEDA functions as the secretariat for the implementation of NPOP
• Sikkim becomes the first fully organic state of India 

QUESTION: 11

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

Money Bills
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
1. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
2. The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
3. The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
4. The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
5. Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure;
6. The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state; or
7. Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.

QUESTION: 12

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The value of each MLA is determined according to the population of the state so it varies. The value of MPs from both the houses is same.

QUESTION: 13

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

Solution:

• The most natural result of ratifying the additional protocol will be greater ease to International Atomic Energy Agency to monitor India’s civilian atomic programme. It does not give India automatic membership of NSG.
• Military nuclear establishments will not be kept under the inspection of IAEA. Under the deal Indo-U.S. nuclear cooperation agreement, India was to sign and ratify the Additional Protocol of the IAEA. A separation plan was chalked out after the deal, segregating the military and civilian reactors. The civilian reactors were to be placed under the IAEA safeguards by December 2014, which will enable India to use the much needed international fuel for civilian reactors.

QUESTION: 14

Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Q. Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?

Solution:

ASEAN has five free trade agreements (FTAs) with six Dialogue Partners, namely China, Japan, Republic of Korea, India, and Australia and New Zealand. All Parties have ratified the FTA Agreements.

QUESTION: 15

With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA); which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

India is not a member of GACSA, hence it did not play a role in establishing it.
Being a member does not create any binding obligations and members determine their particular voluntary actions according to their needs and priorities. It started working in 2014, hence it cannot be the outcome of Paris summit, 2015

QUESTION: 16

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?
1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

In order to transform the entire ecosystem of public services through the use of information technology, the Government of India has launched the Digital India programme with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
Under the Digital India Plan, NII would integrate the network and cloud infrastructure in the country to provide high speed connectivity and cloud platform to various government departments up to the panchayat level. Cities with population of over 1 million and tourist centres would be provided with public wi-fi hotspots to promote digital cities. The scheme would be implemented by DoT and Ministry of Urban Development (MoUD). Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following pairs:
Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Q. ​Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution:

Aleppo is in Syria, Kirkuk and Mosul are in Iraq while Majar-i-Sharif is in Afghanistan. These cities have been in recent news due to war and violence. 

QUESTION: 18

In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

Solution:

The Government of India Act of 1935 envisaged an all-India federation consisting of eleven Governor’s provinces, six Chief Commissioner’s provinces, and such Indian States as would agree to join the federation. The governmental subjects were divided into three Lists i.e. Federal, Provincial and Concurrent. The provincial legislatures were given exclusive power to legislate with respect to matters in the Provincial list. The federal legislature had the exclusive power to make law on matters in the Federal List. The federal and the provincial legislatures had concurrent jurisdiction with respect to matters in the Concurrent List. In case of conflict between a provincial law and a federal law on a matter enumerated in the Concurrent List, the latter was to prevail, and the former would, to the extent of the repugnancy be void. Residuary powers were vested in the Governor-General, who could, in his discretion, assign any such power by a public notification to the federal legislature or the provincial legislature.

QUESTION: 19

Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases:

1. if he ceases to be a member of the assembly;
2. if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker; and
3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice. 
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Article 179 of the Indian Constitution provides that whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 20

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

Solution:

The term 'liberty' means absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individuals.
However, liberty does not mean 'license' to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution and various laws. The concept of liberty is not absolute. Absense of laws does not ensure liberty.

QUESTION: 21

Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Like the President, the governor is also entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Governor is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 22

The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

Solution:

Bani Thani is an Indian painting in the Kishangarh school of paintings. Bani Thani was painted by an artist by the name of Nihâl Chand. The painting's subject, Bani Thani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of king Savant Singh.

QUESTION: 23

What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?

Solution:

The Terminal High Altitude Area Defense, or simply abbreviated as THAAD, is a American missile defence system that is designed to intercept and destroy short and medium-range ballistic missiles in their final flight phase. First proposed in 1987 and then finally deployed in 2008, the THAAD cannot be used as a form of attack against an enemy.

QUESTION: 24

With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtana are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct. Most of Tyagaraja’s songs were in praise of Rama, who, like Krishna, is believed to be an incarnation of the god Vishnu.
Statement 2 is correct. Tyagaraja is credited with various musical innovations, including the use of a structured variation of musical lines within the performance, a practice that may have been derived from improvisatory techniques.
Statement 3 is not correct. Tyagaraja belonged to the 18th century and Annamacharya to the 15th century. Statement 4 is correct. Annamācārya was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu.

QUESTION: 25

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
​Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Fundamental rights enshrined in part III of the constitution is a restriction on the law making power of the Indian Parliament. The state has got no power to deprive a person of his life and liberty without the authority of law.
The secondary meaning of rule of law is that the government should be conducted within a framework of recognized rules and principles which restrict discretionary powers. Dicey’s Concept of Rule of Law-In his book, the law and the constitution, published in the year 1885, Dicey attributed three meanings to the doctrine of rule of law: 1. Supremacy Of Law
2. Equality Before The Law
3. Predominance Of Legal Spirit

QUESTION: 26

Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

CHARTER ACT OF 1813: The Act incorporated the principle of encouraging learned Indians and promoting knowledge of modern sciences in the country. The Act directed the. Company to sanction one lakh rupees annually for this purpose. However, even this petty amount was not made available till 1823, mainly because of the controversy raged on the question of the direction that this expenditure should take. In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education. That committee consisted of 10(ten) European members belonging to 2 groups Anglicists and Orientalists. Hence, it promoted both Indian and english education.
ORIENTALIST-ANGLIC1ST  CONTROVERSY: Within the General Committee on Public Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the government spending on education should be exclusively for modern studies. The. Orientalists said while western sciences and literature should be taught to prepare students to take up jobs, emphasis should be placed on expansion of traditional Indian learning. Even the Anglicists were divided over the question of medium of instruction—one faction was for English language as the medium, while the other faction was for Indian languages (vernaculars) for the purpose. Lord Macaulay's Minute (1835), This famous minute settled the row in favour of Anglicists—the limited government resources were to be devoted to teaching of western sciences and literature through the medium of English language alone.

QUESTION: 27

Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

Solution:

Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamilnadu, India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from USA.

QUESTION: 28

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
The Short Term Training imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TCs) is expected to benefit candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed. Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy.

QUESTION: 29

In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “ Swarajya Sabha”?

Solution:

Gandhi had become the president of the All India Home Rule League in 1920. Its name was changed to 'Swaraj Sabha'

QUESTION: 30

Which among the following events happened earliest?

Solution:

1. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj - 1875
2. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan - 1858-59
3. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath - 1882 
4. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination – 1863

QUESTION: 31

Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water –table
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

Excessive instream sand-andgravel mining causes the degradation of rivers. Instream mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea. The effect of mining is compounded by the effect of sea level rise. Any volume of sand exported from streambeds and coastal areas is a loss to the system.
Excessive instream sand mining is a threat to bridges, river banks and nearby structures. Sand mining also affects the adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people make of the river.
Sand aquifer helps in recharging the water table and sand mining causes sinking of water tables in the nearby areas, , drops leaving the drinking water wells on the embankments of these rivers dry. Turbidity increases at the mining site.

QUESTION: 32

With reference to agricultural soils, consider of the following statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Organic matter affects both the chemical and physical properties of the soil and its overall health. Properties influenced by organic matter include: soil structure; moisture holding capacity; diversity and activity of soil organisms, both those that are beneficial and harmful to crop production; and nutrient availability. Increased levels of organic matter and associated soil fauna lead to greater pore space with the immediate result that water infiltrates more readily and can be held in the soil. The improved pore space is a consequence of the bioturbating activities of earthworms and other macro-organisms and channels left in the soil by decayed plant roots.
  • Sulfur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulfur cycle describes the movement of sulfur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things. Although sulfur is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, it is particularly important to living things because it is a component of many proteins. Sulfur is released by weathering of rocks and minerals. Water, temperature and chemical reactions break down minerals releasing their component elements. Once sulfur is exposed to the air, it combines with oxygen, and becomes sulfate (SO4). Plants and microbes take up sulfate and convert it into organic compounds. As animals consume plants, the sulfur is moved through the food chain and released when organisms and plants die and decompose.
  • Primary salinization occurs naturally where the soil parent material is rich in soluble salts, or in the presence of a shallow saline groundwater table. In arid and semiarid regions, where rainfall is insufficient to leach soluble salts from the soil, or where drainage is restricted, soils with high concentrations of salts (“salt-affected soils”) may be formed. Several geochemical processes can also result in salt-affected soil formation. When an excess of sodium is involved in the salinization process this is referred to as sodification. Secondary salinization occurs when significant amounts of water are provided by irrigation, with no adequate provision of drainage for the leaching and removal of salts, resulting in the soils becoming salty and unproductive. Salt-affected soils reduce both the ability of crops to take up water and the availability of micronutrients. They also concentrate ions toxic to plants and may degrade the soil structure.
QUESTION: 33

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE),a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies,emerged at

Solution:

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories. PAGE seeks to put sustainability at the heart of economic policies and practices to advance the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and supports nations and regions in reframing economic policies and practices around sustainability to foster economic growth, create income and jobs, reduce poverty and inequality, and strengthen the ecological foundations of their economies.
PAGE brings together five UN agencies – UN Environment, International Labour Organization, UN Development Programme, UN Industrial Development Organization, and UN Institute for Training and Research – whose mandates, expertises and networks combined can offer integrated and holistic support to countries on inclusive green economy, ensuring coherence and avoiding duplication.

QUESTION: 34

“3D printing” has applications in which of the following ?
1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

3D printing or additive manufacturing is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. The creation of a 3D printed object is achieved by laying down successive layers of material until the object is created. Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal crosssection of the eventual object.
Recently 3-D printed food restaurant has come up in Netherlands.
In America , 3D printed bionic ear was generated via 3D printing of a cell-seeded hydrogel matrix in the anatomic geometry of a human ear.
Industrial 3D printers have opened new paths at each stage of production of motor vehicles; from the functional prototyping phases, design, and tooling production to parts manufacturing, the automotive industry is one of the pioneers in the use and integration of 3D printing in its processes.
3D printing has been used in reconstructive surgery to help repair damaged tissue for example in cases of birth defects or traumatic injuries to severe burns or disease. 3 D printing is used to produce computer parts (such as circuit boards) which are used in data processing.

QUESTION: 35

Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
​3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Barren Island is India’s only active volcano. It is located 140kms to the east of Port Blair (lies in South Andaman) while Great Nicobar is southernmost region of Andaman & Nicobar and lies further south of Port Blair.
The Barren Island volcano had been lying dormant for more than 150 years until it saw a major eruption in 1991. Since then it has shown intermittent activity, including eruptions in 1995, 2005 and 2017.

QUESTION: 36

Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

Solution:

Prosopis juliflora (P juliflora), an exotic tree, is one of the top invaders in India. A native of South and Central America, it was introduced in India to meet the fuel and wood requirement of the rural poor and to restore degraded lands. A recent study has shown that apart from threatening local plants, with whom it competes for resources, this tree is also affecting the nesting success of birds.

QUESTION: 37

​Consider the following statements:
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Q. Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?

Solution:

Most coral reefs are located in tropical shallow waters less than 50 meters deep, in the western regions of the Indian ocean, Pacific Ocean and Greater Caribbean.
Global distribution of coralsAustralia-17% Indonesia-16% Philippines-9% So, Australia, Indonesia and Philippines together host more than one-third of world’s corals. 32 of the 34 recognised animal Phyla are found on coral reefs compared to only 9 Phyla in tropical rainforests.

QUESTION: 38

“Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

Solution:

The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world.

QUESTION: 39

With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:

​Q. Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Solution:

1. Pair 1 is not correctly matched In 1791, Jonathan Duncan started the Sanskrit College at Benares.
2. Pair 2 is correctly matched Calcutta Madrasa was established by Warren Hastings in 1781 for the study of Muslim law and related subjects.
3. Pair 3 is not correctly matched Fort William College was set up by Lord Richard Wellesley in 1800 for training of civil servants of the Company in languages and customs of Indians.

QUESTION: 40

Consider the following pairs:

Q. Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution:

Catalonia is a semi-autonomous region in north-east Spain. Crimea was earlier part of Ukrain, currently under Russian control. Mindanao is in Philippines and was in news for insurgency. Oromia is in Ethiopia and has been in recent news for ethnic clashes.

QUESTION: 41

With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The space segment consists of the IRNSS constellation of Seven satellites, NavIC. Three satellites are located in suitable orbital slots in the geostationary orbit and the remaining four are located in geosynchronous orbits with the required inclination and equatorial crossings in two different planes.
Statement 2 is not correct: IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.
Statement 3 is not correct: India will not have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

QUESTION: 42

Consider the following phenomena:
1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Q. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

Solution:

General relativity predicted radical things, such as that light is deflected by gravity. It also predicted black holes. It showed that space and time are malleable or flexible, and ever expanding. Which basically predicted that our universe was ever expanding.

QUESTION: 43

With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard ) developed in India, consider the following statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: According to the developers, the GM mustard uses a system of genes from soil bacterium that makes the plant better suited to hybridisation than current methods.
Statement 3 is not correct: The GM mustard was developed by Delhi University-based Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP) under the leadership of Deepak Pental, a former vice-chancellor of the university

QUESTION: 44

​Consider the following pairs:

Q. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched:

Solution:

The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons (heavy particles containing a bottom quark). Belle II is the successor to the Belle experiment, and is currently being commissioned at the SuperKEKB accelerator complex at KEK in Tsukuba, Ibaraki Prefecture, Japan.
Blockchain technology can be integrated into multiple areas. The primary use of blockchains today is as a distributed ledger for cryptocurrencies, most notably bitcoin. While a few central banks, in countries and regions such as India, China, Hong Kong, United States, Sweden, Singapore, South Africa and the United Kingdom are studying issuance of a Central Bank Issued Cryptocurrency (CICC).
CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome editing tool. It is short for clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats and CRISPRassociated protein 9.

QUESTION: 45

Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

Solution:

The carbon fertilization effect (CFE) is in principle simple: the larger amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere that has resulted from rising anthropogenic emissions should help the growth of plants, which use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. The effect ought to increase crop yields.

QUESTION: 46

When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognizes the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.
Q. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

Solution:

What Is The Internet Of Things?
The Internet of Things, or IoT, refers to billions of physical devices around the world that are now connected to the internet, collecting and sharing data.
This can be anything from cellphones, coffee makers, washing machines, headphones, lamps, wearable devices and almost anything else you can think of.
How Does This Impact You?
There are many examples for what this might look like or what the potential value might be. Say for example you are on your way to a meeting; your car could have access to your calendar and already know the best route to take. If the traffic is heavy your car might send a text to the other party notifying them that you will be late. What if your alarm clock wakes up you at 6 a.m. and then notifies your coffee maker to start brewing coffee for you? What is an example of an Internet of Things device?
A lightbulb that can be switched on using a smartphone app is an IoT device, as is a motion sensor or a smart thermostat in your office or a connected streetlight. An IoT device could be as fluffy as a child's toy or as serious as a driverless truck.At an even bigger scale, smart cities projects are filling entire regions with sensors to help us understand and control the environment.

QUESTION: 47

With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power traffics are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct. Manufacture of solar panels (also called modules) start with polysilicon, which is made from silicon. Polysilicon is made into ingots, which are cut into wafers. Cells are made with wafers and a string of cells is a module. Today, only modules and cells are made in India, with imported material. At present, the only incentives available for manufacturing these is the Modified-Special Incentive Package Scheme, which is available to all electronic goods manufacturers and implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, but there have been few takers for the scheme.
Statement 2 is not correct. "Solar Energy Corporation of India ltd" (SECI) is a CPSU under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It aims to become the leader in development of large scale solar installations, solar plants and solar parks and to promote and commercialize the use of solar energy to reach remotest corner of India. It also explores new technologies and their deployment to harness solar energy.
Solar Power tariffs are determined either through the regulations of Central Electricity Regulatory Commission/State Electricity Regulatory Commission or through competitive bidding.

QUESTION: 48

The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

Solution:

Cotton, raw silk, saltpetre, opium were the major commodities exported from Bengal by the English East India Company.

QUESTION: 49

Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagarha?

Solution:

Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 opened a new phase in the national movement by joining it to the great struggle of the Indian peasantry for bread and land.It was the first peasant movement to have garnered nationwide attention. The Champaran Satyagraha yoked the peasant unrest to the freedom struggle. Subsequently, Gandhi’s localised movements in Ahmedabad (for mill workers) and Kheda (where he supported distressed peasants) were, in a sense, the training grounds for the massive nationwide protests after the landmark year of 1919 all of which eventually contributed to the liberation of India from the inglorious British rule. 

QUESTION: 50

Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?

Solution:

The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) is a National Trade Union Centre in India. It was founded in Hawrah on 24.12.1948 by Socialist, Forward Bloc follower and independent unionists. Its founders included Basawan Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Mani Benkara, ShibnathBenerajee, R.K. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, VS. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. Mr. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta as its General Secretary. The HMS absorbed the Royists Indian Federation of Labour and the Socialist Hind Mazdoor Panchayat. The Hind Mazdoor Sabha was intended to be a third force in Indian trade unionism, balancing between INTUC on one side and AITUC on the other. INTUC was discarded because it was believed to be under the control of the government and AITUC was rejected because it was controlled by the Communist Party. The independence of trade unions from the Government, the employers and political parties is the basic feature of HMS.

QUESTION: 51

With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

Solution:

Sthānakavāsī is a sect of Śvētāmbara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha. The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain reformer. Sthānakavāsins accept thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, the Śvētāmbara canon.

QUESTION: 52

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Buland Darwaza or the "Door of victory", was built in 1602 A.D. by Mughal emperor Akbar to commemorate his victory over Gujarat. It is the main entrance to the Jama Masjid at Fatehpur Sikri, which is 43 km from Agra, India. The Buland Darwaza is made of red and buff sandstone, decorated by white and black marble and is higher than the courtyard of the mosque.

Khankah also have white marbles.

Second statement is wrong. “Rumi Darwaza, Bara Imambara, monuments in the Lucknow city are fragile in terms of structural strength (because) The common material used for raising most of the monuments in Lucknow was brick and plaster. The two ingredients used are unique in their own sense but their strength when compared with rock solid stones is much less.

QUESTION: 53

Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

Solution:

The Hope Diamond, said to be mined in the Kollur mines in Andhra Pradesh, and acquired by French gem merchant, JeanBaptiste Tavernier, in 1666. It is unclear as to how the merchant got the diamond, but according to the Smithsonian, Tavernier purchased the 112 3/16 carat diamond who then sold it to French King Louis XIV of France.

QUESTION: 54

With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

Solution:

The universe of the Great Vehicle contains numerous Bodhisattvas, chief of whom, from the earthly point of view, is Avalokiteshwar ("The Lord who Looks Down"), also called Padmapani ("The Lotus-Bearer") also called Lokesvara in Sanskrit (The Lord of the World). His special attribute is compassion, and his helping hand reaches even to Avici, the deepest and most unpleasant of the Buddhist purgatories. Another important Bodhisattva is Manjusri, whose special activity is to stimulate the understanding, and who is depicted with a naked sword in one hand, to destroy error and falsehood, and a book in the other, describing the ten paramilas, or great spiritual perfections, which are the cardinal virtues developed by Bodhisattvas. Vajrapani, a sterner Bodhi-sattva, is the foe of sin and evil, and, like the god Indra, bears a thunderbolt in his hand. The gentle Maitreya, the future Buddha, is worshipped as a Bodhisattva. Also worthy of mention is Ksitigarbha, the guardian of the purgatories, who is thought of not as a fierce torturer, but rather as the governor of a model prison, doing his best to make life tolerable for his charges, and helping them to earn remission of sentence.

QUESTION: 55

Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

Solution:

The Company forced the states into a “subsidiary alliance”. According to the terms of this alliance, Indian rulers were not allowed to have their independent armed forces. They were to be protected by the Company, but had to pay for the “subsidiary forces” that the Company was supposed to maintain for the purpose of this protection. If the Indian rulers failed to make the payment, then part of their territory was taken away as penalty. During this phase, from 1813 to 1857, the British made almost all the Indian States subordinate to their power, by compelling them to enter into subsidiary alliances with them. The Indian Princes were put under obligation to accept the British Paramountcy.
Napoleonic invasion of Egypt in the summer of 1798 offered Wellesly a useful tool to soften London's resistance to expansion, although he never believed for a moment that there was any danger of a French invasion of British India either over land from Egypt or a naval attack round the Cape of Good Hope. However, to assuage London's concerns he evolved the policy of 'Subsidiary Alliance', which would only establish control over the internal affairs of an Indian state, without incurring any direct imperial liability.
There was no component of fixed income under this system.

QUESTION: 56

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

Solution:

Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt. Legal tender can only be issued by the national body that is authorized to do so

QUESTION: 57

​If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

Solution:

Opportunity cost is the cost of choosing one alternative over another and missing the benefit offered by the forgone opportunity, investing or otherwise. Opportunity cost refers to a benefit that a person could have received, but gave up, to take another course of action. Stated differently, an opportunity cost represents an alternative given up when a decision is made. Opportunity cost is also called the economic cost.

QUESTION: 58

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

Solution:

An essential aspect of development is to enable the maximum number to experience the fruits of development. Concepts of per capita income (per capita GDP or per capita NSDP) are not able to capture this aspect of development.
There may be a case wherein increase in absolute and per capita GNP is reflective of growth in income of a small section of society and that majority of the population is poverty stricken and unemployed. Multi-dimensional non-monetary social indicators are better reflectors of overall economic development in the society.

QUESTION: 59

Consider the following statements:
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

Solution:

According to Harbison, the human capital formation indicates, “the process of acquiring and increasing the number of persons who have the skills, education and experience which are critical for the economic and the political development of the country.

QUESTION: 60

Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

Solution:

Capital formation means increasing the stock of real capital in a country. In other words, capital formation involves making of more capital goods such as machines, tools, factories, transport equipment, materials, electricity, etc., which are all used for future production of goods. For making additions to the stock of Capital, saving and investment are essential.
Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. For example, suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the economic growth corresponding to this level of investment is 8%. Here, a Rs 32 investment produces an output of Rs 8. Capital output ratio is 32/8 or 4. In other words, to produce one unit of output, 4 unit of capital is needed.
Hence, if the capital-output ratio is high, there will not be significant increase in output despite high savings and investment.

QUESTION: 61

After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure / measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

In 1855-56 the Santhal Revolt took place. Santhals are a group of tribals concentrated in the state of Jharkhand. This was the first peasant movement which took place in India. The revolt has reference to the establishment of the permanent land settlement of 1793.

Santhal rebellion was led by four Murmu brothers named Sindhu, Kanhu, Chand and Bhairav against the oppressive zamindari system. The Santhals showed exemplary courage in fighting against the British, despite being beaten and harassed.

The British knew it well that if they want to rule in the area they have to agree to the main demands of the Santhals and accord them the dignity due to them. Therefore, the District of Santhal Pargana was created in 1885 after the partition of Bhagalpur and Birbhum.

QUESTION: 62

Economically, one of the results of the British rule in the 19th century was the

Solution:

Economic Impact of British rule-
1. Deindustrialisation - Ruin of artisans and handicraftsmen: cheap and machine made goods imports flooded the Indian market after the Charter Act of 1813 allowing one-way free trade for British citizens. On the other hand, Indian products found it more and more difficult to penetrate the European markets. After 1820, European markets were virtually closed to Indian exports. Even the newly introduced rail network helped the European products to reach the remotest corners of the country. Hence, option (a) is not correct. Another feature of deindustrialisation was the decline of many cities and a process of ruralisation of India. Many artisans, faced with diminishing returns and repressive policies of the Company abandoned their professions and moved to villages and took to agriculture. This resulted in increased pressure on land. An overburdened agriculture sector was a major cause of poverty overburdened agriculture sector was a major cause of poverty during British rule and this upset the village economic set-up. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
2. Impoverishment of Peasantry
-The Govt. was only interested in maximisation of rents and in securing its share of revenue , had enforced the Permanent Settlement in large parts. Transferability of land was one feature of the new settlement which caused great insecurity to the tenants who lost all their traditional rights in land.
3. Development of Modern Industries - It was only in the second half of 19th Century that modern machine based industries started coming up in India. The first cotton textile mill was started in 1853 in Bombay by Cowasjee Nanabhoy and the first jute mill came up in 1855 in Rishra (Bengal). But most of the industries were foreign owned and controlled by British managing agencies. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
4. Commercialisation of Indian Agriculture
- In the latter half of the 19th century, another significant trend was the emergence of the commercialisation of agriculture. Agriculture began to be influenced by commercial considerations. Certain specialised crops began to be grown not for consumption in the village but for sale in the national and even international markets. Commercial crops like cotton, jute, groundnut, oilseeds, sugarcane, tobacco, etc. were more remunerative than foodgrains. Hence, option (c) is correct.

QUESTION: 63

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 365 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

Solution:

The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state:
1. He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state.
2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
3. He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to any body or authority in the state.
The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly.
The Parliament passes the state legislative bills and the state budget.
Hence, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 64

Consider the following pairs:

Q. ​Which of the pairs given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Toda tribe of Tamil Nadu do intricate Pithukuli work on cream coloured shawls. The colours are always red and black, and the shawl can be used both sides.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched. Sujani (also known as Sujini) is a form of embroidery originating from the Bhusura village of Bihar in India.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Uppada jamdani sarees are diaphanous silk saree that trace its origin to Uppada in Andhra Pradesh. Jamdani itself is a hand woven fabric that is also known as muslin.

QUESTION: 65

In which of the following areas can GPS technology is used ?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
​3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

Global positioning system applications generally fall into 5 major categories:
1. Location - determining a position
2. Navigation - getting from one location to another
3. Tracking - monitoring object or personal movement
4. Mapping - creating maps of the world
5. Timing - bringing precise timing to the world GPS's accurate time facilitates everyday activities such as banking, mobile phone operations and even the control power grids by allowing well synchronized hand-off switching. 

QUESTION: 66

Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Reserve Bank of India manages public debt and issues Indian currency denominated loans on behalf of the central and the state governments under the powers derived from the Reserve Bank of India Act. The RBI is the debt manager for both the Central Government and the State Governments. RBI manages the debt of state governments on the basis of separate agreements. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day. Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91 day Treasury bill of Rs 100/- (face value) may be issued at say Rs 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, Rs 1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of Rs 100/-. The return to the investors is the difference between the maturity value or the face value (that is Rs 100). Hence, statement 2 and 3 are also correct.

QUESTION: 67

Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Earth's magnetic field has flipped its polarity many times over the millennia. Magnetic Reversals are the rule, not the exception. Earth has settled in the last 20 million years into a pattern of a magnetic pole reversal about every 200,000 to 300,000 years.
Statement 2 is not correct. When Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago, it had almost no atmosphere. As Earth cooled, an atmosphere formed mainly from gases spewed from volcanoes. It included hydrogen sulfide, methane, and 10 to 200 times as much carbon dioxide as today’s atmosphere.
Statement 3 is correct. Living organisms includes plants and microbes. Life started to have a major impact on the environment once photosynthetic organisms evolved. While photosynthetic life reduced the carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere, it also started to produce oxygen. So, when living beings originated, they did modify the atmosphere.

QUESTION: 68

The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

Solution:

The WannaCry ransomware attack was a May 2017 worldwide cyberattack by the WannaCry ransomware cryptoworm, which targeted computers running the Microsoft Windows operating system by encrypting data and demanding ransom payments in the Bitcoin cryptocurrency. It propagated through EternalBlue, an exploit in older Windows systems released by The Shadow Brokers a few months prior to the attack.
Petya is a family of encrypting ransomware that was first discovered in 2016. The malware targets Microsoft Windows-based systems, infecting the master boot record to execute a payload that encrypts a hard drive's file system table and prevents Windows from booting. It subsequently demands that the user make a payment in Bitcoin in order to regain access to the system.

QUESTION: 69

​With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Conservation Agriculture is a set of soil management practices that minimize the disruption of the soil's structure, composition and natural biodiversity. Despite high variability in the types of crops grown and specific management regimes, all forms of conservation agriculture share three core principles. These include:
maintenance of permanent or semi-permanent soil cover (using either a previous crop residue or specifically growing a cover crop for this purpose); minimum soil disturbance through tillage (just enough to get the seed into the ground) ; regular crop rotations to help combat the various biotic constraints;
CA also uses or promotes where possible or needed various management practices listed below: utilization of green manures/cover crops (GMCC's) to produce the residue cover;
no burning of crop residues; integrated disease and pest management; controlled/limited human and mechanical traffic over agricultural soils.
When these CA practices are used by farmers one of the major environmental benefits is reduction in fossil fuel use and greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. But they also reduce the power/energy needs of farmers who use manual or animal powered systems.

QUESTION: 70

The term “sixth mass extinction/ sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

Solution:

Scientists have warned that the sixth mass extinction of life on Earth is unfolding more quickly than feared. Wildlife is dying out due to habitat destruction, overhunting, toxic pollution, invasion by alien species and climate change. The ultimate cause of all of these factors is human overpopulation and continued population growth, and overconsumption.

QUESTION: 71

Consider the following statements:
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank's capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.

QUESTION: 72

​The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Aadhaar Authentication is the process wherein Aadhaar number, along with other attributes, including biometrics, are submitted online to the Central Identities Data Repository for its verification and such repository verifies the correctness, or the lack thereof, on the basis of the information available with it. An authentication request is entertained by the UIDAI only upon a request sent by a requesting entity electronically in accordance with its regulations. The modes of authentication include: Demographic Authentication, one-time pin based authentication, Biometricbased authentication, Multi-factor authentication. To support strong end to end security and avoid request tampering and man-in-the-middle attacks, it is essential that encryption of data happens at the time of capture on the capture device. Authentication related APIs are enabled only for valid ASAs and only for their registered static IP addresses coming through a secure private network.

QUESTION: 73

Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

Solution:

Yemen is now on the brink of “the world’s largest famine”, according to the United Nations. Already, 17 million people are dependent on external aid for food and medicine, while the country is fighting a massive cholera outbreak. The breakdown of government services, lack of drinking water and a crumbling health sector, besides the miseries of civil war and aerial bombardment, are fast turning Yemen into a failed state, and a breeding ground for extremist groups such as al-Qaeda in the Arabian Peninsula. One year after South Sudan briefly declared a famine, more than half of the people in the world’s youngest nation face extreme hunger amid civil war. A new report by the United Nations and South Sudan’s government says more than six million people are at threat without aid, up about 40 % from a year ago.

QUESTION: 74

Regarding wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the "Magna Carta of English Education in. India", this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India. 
1. It asked the Government of India to assume responsibility for education of the masses, thus repudiating the 'downward filtration theory', at least on paper.
2. It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. Statement 3 is not correct.
3. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.
4. It laid stress on female and vocational, education, and on teachers' training.
5 . It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.
Statement 1 is correct.
6. It recommended a system of grantsin-aid to encourage private enterprise.
Statement 2 is correct. The Despatch recommended the establishment of universities in the three Presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. The universities were to be modeled after the London University and these were to have a senate comprising of a Chancellor, a Vice-Chancellor, and fellows who were nominated by the Government. The Universities would confer degrees to the successful candidates after passing the examinations, (of Science or Arts Streams) conducted by the Senate. The universities were to organize departments not only of English but also of Arabic, Sanskrit and Persian, as well as law and civil engineering.

QUESTION: 75

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

Solution:

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make rules, regulations, byelaws, schemes or other statutory instruments conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised. In both the Houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.
Hence, the answer is (b).

QUESTION: 76

Consider the following statement :
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by concerned state Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of Teacher education institutions are directly under the State Government.
Q. ​Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: In accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has laid down the minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in class I to VIII, vide its Notification dated August 23, 2010. Statement 2 is correct: One of the essential qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in any of the primary schools is that he/she should pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) which will be conducted by the appropriate Government.
Statement 3 is not correct: From the mid-1960s to 1993, the number of TEIs in India went up from about 1,200 to about 1,500. After the NCTE was set up, the number of TEIs exploded, to about 16,000 (over 90% private) by 2011.

QUESTION: 77

Consider the following pairs:

Q. Which of the pair given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correct. Chapchar Kut is the biggest festival of the Mizos and is celebrated in March after completion of jhum operation. It is a spring festival.
Pair 2 is correct. Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty British Empire in 1891. It is one of the most popular musical art forms of Manipur inciting the spirit of patriotism and nationalism among the people at one time.
Pair 3 is not correct. Manipur dance has a large repertoire, however, the most popular forms are the Ras, the Sankirtana and the Thang-Ta. Thang-ta dance of Manipur was an evolved from the martial arts drills promoted by the kings of Manipur.

QUESTION: 78

Consider the following Statements:
1. The Food Safety and Standard Act, 2006 replaced the prevention of food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and standards Authority Of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health And Family Welfare.
​Q. Which Statement given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Various central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, Fruit Products Order, 1955, Meat Food Products Order, 1973, Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947, Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation)Order 1988, Solvent Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967, Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992 etc. were repealed after commencement of FSS Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is not correct: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI. The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) have already been appointed by Government of India. Before the formation of FSSAI, from 1954 onwards Prevention of Food Adulteration was part of Directorate General of Health Services. After having detached from the direct administrative control of the Health Ministry, this authority is holding independent authority and has attained special status.

QUESTION: 79

The term “Two-State Solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

Solution:

Two- State Solution of Israel Palestine Issue: It envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel west of Jordan river. The UNSC Resolution 1397 agreed in 2000 with support from USA and becoming first UNSC resolution to agree on two state solution

QUESTION: 80

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statement:
1. The families coming under the category of below’ poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidized food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take –home ration” of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Q. Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Act provides for coverage of upto 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the population.
Statement 2 is correct: It provides that eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above is to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
Statement 3 is not correct: Besides meal to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth, such women will also be entitled to receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000.

QUESTION: 81

India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection ) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

Solution:

Geographical Indications of Goods are defined as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the geographical indication referring to a country or to a place situated therein as being the country or place of origin of that product. Typically, such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness which is essentially attributable to the fact of its origin in that defined geographical locality, region or country. Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications are covered as an element of IPRs. They are also covered under Articles 22 to 24 of the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which was part of the Agreements concluding the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations.
India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force with effect from 15th September 2003.

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements:
1. In India, State Government do not have the power to auction noncoal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
​Q. Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Unlike coal, the auction of mining licences of non-coal minerals is conducted by the respective state governments.
Iron ore mines are located in
Bhilwara in Rajasthan.
India has gold deposits spread across several states including Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan. Governments of both Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh have auctioned several gold mines in recent years.

QUESTION: 83

With reference to digital payments ,consider the following statements :
1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPIenabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.
Statement 2 is not correct: From a consumer point of view, there are three levels of authentication that are required in this app. One is the device ID and mobile number, then the bank account which you are linking to this app, and the finally the UPI Pin which is needed to complete the transaction. There are three factors of authentication versus a normal net banking app or a chippin debit card which will only have two factors of authentication 

QUESTION: 84

Among the following cities, Which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

Solution:

Delhi and Bengaluru are located almost on the same longitude.
Longitude of Delhi- 77.1025° E
Longitude of Bengaluru- 77.5946° E
longitude of Hyderabad- 78.4867° E
longitude of Nagpur- 79.0882° E
longitude of pune- 73.8567° E

QUESTION: 85

International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

Solution:

India recently ratified the two Core Conventions of International Labour Organization (ILO) Conventions 138 regarding admission of age to employment and Convention 182 regarding worst forms of Child Labour

QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the opposition” was recognized for the first times in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha , if a party does not have minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
Q. Which of the statement given above is / are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Congress party won 364 of the 489 seats in the first Lok Sabha and finished way ahead of any other challenger. The Communist Party of India that came next in terms of seats won only 16 seats.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1969, an official leader of opposition was recognised for the first time. However, it was given statutory recognition in 1977.
Statement 3 is not correct: The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than onetenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as the leader of Opposition in that House.

QUESTION: 87

Which of the following leaf modifications occur (s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

These are plants growing in extreme dry conditions throughout the year. For example, plants growing in deserts (psammophytes), on rock (lithophytes) or alpine plants growing above 14000 feet altitude.
Xerophytes Adaptations 1. Conservation of Water Modifications
a. Leaves few or absent or represented by spines only

b. Petiole modified into leaf like structure c. Stem reduced, branching sparse d. In some cases stem flattened, leaf like, green, photosynthetic in nature Thick, fleshy and succulent leaves as well as stem
2. Storage of Water Modifications Thick, fleshy and succulent leaves as well as stem
3. Prevention of loss of water by transpiration
Modifications

a. Intercellular spaces reduced
b. Spongy parenchyma/ palisade parenchyma present
c. Stomata on lower surface, sunken in stomatal pits
d. Leaves needle like
e. Thick cuticle on leaf surface
4. Prevention of excessive heat Modifications
a. Leaves covered with dense hairs;
b. Leaf surfaces shiny or glaborous
c. Leaf blade remains rolled during the day
5. Efficient mechanism of water absorption Modifications
a. Long and profusely branched roots
b. Dense root hairs
c. Well developed xylem

QUESTION: 88

As per NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percentage belong to OBCs.
3. In kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other agricultural activities.
​Q. Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Among the major States, Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households followed by Uttar Pradesh (74.8 percent) and Madhya Pradesh (70.8 percent). Kerala had the least percentage share of agricultural households (27.3 percent) in its rural households preceded by other southern States like Tamil Nadu (34.7 percent) and Andhra Pradesh (41.5 percent).
Statement 2 is not correct: During the reference period of July 2012-June 2013, about 45 percent out of the total agricultural households in the country belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBC). About 16 percent of agricultural households were from Scheduled Castes (SC) and 13 percent were from Scheduled Tribes (ST).
Statement 3 is correct: Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for majority of the households in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have earned maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

QUESTION: 89

​How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Q. Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body that was established in 2010 by the National Green Tribunal Act. It was set up to handle cases and speed up the cases related to environmental issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
The Tribunal's dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. Initially, the NGT is proposed to be set up at five places of sittings and will follow circuit procedure for making itself more accessible. New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other 4 place of sitting of the Tribunal.
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
​Q. Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the first amendment in 1951 along with Article 31-B with a view to provide a “protective umbrella” to land reforms laws to save them from being challenged in courts on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. The SC upheld the validity of Article 31-B and Parliament’s power to place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Supreme Court has said that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are open to judicial scrutiny and that such laws do not enjoy a blanket protection. Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after the Keshwanand Bharti Judgment on April 24, 1973, when it propounded the “basic structure” doctrine, were open to challenge. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 91

Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen news?

Solution:

Merchant Discount Rate is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers through credit and debit cards in their establishments. It compensates the card issuing bank, the lender which puts the PoS terminal and payment gateways such as Mastercard or Visa for their services. MDR charges are usually shared in pre-agreed proportion between the bank and a merchant and is expressed in percentage of transaction amount.

QUESTION: 92

What is/are the consequence/consequence of country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the NonProliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.
​Q. Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

Solution:

Membership of the NSG means:
1. Access to technology for a range of uses from medicine to building nuclear power plants for India from the NSG which is essentially a traders’ cartel. India has its own indigenously developed technology but to get its hands on state of the art technology that countries within the NSG possess, it has to become part of the group. Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. With India committed to reducing dependence on fossil fuels and ensuring that 40% of its energy is sourced from renewable and clean sources, there is a pressing need to scale up nuclear power production. This can only happen if India gains access to the NSG. Even if India today can buy power plants from the global market thanks to the one time NSG waiver in 2008, there are still many types of technologies India can be denied as it is outside the NSG.
3. India could sign the Nuclear non proliferation treaty and gain access to all this know how but that would mean giving up its entire nuclear arsenal. Given that it is situated in an unstable and unpredictable neighbourhood India is unlikely to sign the NPT or accede to the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) that puts curbs on any further nuclear tests.
4. With access to latest technology, India can commercialize the production of nuclear power equipment. This, in turn will boost innovation and high tech manufacturing in India and can be leveraged for economic and strategic benefits.
Statement 2 is not correct: Adherence to one or more of the NPT, the Treaties of Pelindaba, Rarotonga, Tlatelolco, Bangkok , Semipalatinsk or an equivalent international nuclear nonproliferation agreement, and full compliance with the obligations of such agreement(s); Hence, it does not automatically become a member of NPT.
Support of international efforts towards non-proliferation of weapons of mass destruction and of their delivery vehicles.

QUESTION: 93

With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: Equalisation Levy was introduced in India in 2016, with the intention of taxing the digital transactions i.e. the income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from India. It is aimed at taxing business to business transactions.
As the levy was not introduced as part of the Income Tax Act but as a separate legislation under the Finance Bill, global firms that offer such services in India cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the double taxation avoidance agreements

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements :
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Governments and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

1. The FRBM Review Committee (Chairperson: Mr. N.K. Singh) submitted its report in January 2017. The Report was made public in April 2017. The Committee suggested using debt as the primary target for fiscal policy. A debt to GDP ratio of 60% should be targeted with a 40% limit for the centre and 20% limit for the states. The targeted debt to GDP ratio should be achieved by 2023. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a per cent of GDP, States’ liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
3. The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements:
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry with contribution of around 10% in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils (extracted from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic production, leading to dependence on imports (60% of requirement).
Statement 2 is not correct. Government imposes customs duty on edible oils to safeguard the interests of domestic oil crushing industry. The duty on two major edible oils, namely crude sunflower seed oil and crude canola/rapeseed/mustard is 25 per cent, while crude soyabean oil attracts 30 per cent duty. 

QUESTION: 96

He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

Solution:

Lala Lajpat Rai was gifted with a perceptive mind, he was a prolific writer and authored several works like – “Unhappy India”, “Young India: An Interpretation”, “History of Arya Samaj”, “England’s Debt to India” and a series of popular biographies His biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi and. Shivaji were published in 1896 and those of Dayanand and. Shri Krishna in 1898. His purpose in selecting Mazzini and Garibladi was to infuse patriotic sentiment in the youth of Punjab, who had no access to books in English. He wanted his countrymen to become acquainted with the teachings of Italian leaders who had so impressed his own mind. He had seen the points of similarity between the problems of India and those the Italian leaders had to face.
Lala Lajpat Rai travelled to the US in 1907. He toured Sikh communities along the West Coast in the USA and noted sociological similarities between the notion of 'color-caste' there and within castes in India.
He joined Swaraj Party in 1926 and was elected its Deputy Leader in the Central Legislative Assembly. He later resigned from the Swaraj Party in August 1926.

QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship of domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated of omitted by the Issuing Authority.
​Q. Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 says that the number can’t be used as proof of citizenship or domicile.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Aadhaar Act regulations, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The regulations give the Authority the power to deactivate Aadhaar numbers even in the absence of an effective grievance redressal procedure for those whose numbers have been suspended.

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Once the fourth largest lake in the world, Central Asia's shrinking Aral Sea has reached a new low, thanks to decades-old water diversions for irrigation and a more recent drought. Satellite imagery released this week by NASA shows that the eastern basin of the freshwater body is now completely dry.
The change did, indeed, come quickly. Through data collected in the past 60 years, Capet discovered that the oxygen-rich top layer of the Black Sea decreased from 140 meters to 90 meters deep, which amounts to an over 40 percent dip in habitable waters.
hydro power stations on the Selenga River and its tributaries can cause the unique lake [Baikal] to dry out. The 25 million-year-old lake is on the edge of environmental catastrophe and if certain measures are not taken, it might disappear just like the Aral Sea.

QUESTION: 99

“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of following?

Solution:

The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived by the general public across the globe. It is the world’s leading source for original, independent data on the rule of law.

QUESTION: 100

Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

Solution:

National Financial Switch (NFS) ATM network having 37 members and connecting about 50,000 ATMs was taken over by NPCI from Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) on December 14, 2009. Over the span of few years, NFS ATM network has grown many folds and is now the leading multilateral ATM network in the country. As on 31 st August’ 17, there were 941 members that includes 101 Direct, 776 Sub members, 56 RRBs and 8 WLAOs using NFS network connected to more than 2.37 Lac ATM.
NFS has established a strong and sustainable operational model with in-house capabilities and today can be compared at par with other major and wellestablished switch networks. The operational functions and services are at par with most of the global ATM networks.