UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 2 (CSAT)


80 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Previous Year Question Papers | UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 2 (CSAT)


Description
This mock test of UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 2 (CSAT) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 80 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 2 (CSAT) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 2 (CSAT) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 2 (CSAT) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 2 (CSAT) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is

Solution:

First, you need to know how many 5's are there from 1 to 100.

5, 15, 25, ... , 95 = ten 5s at the unit's place.

50, 51, ..., 59 = ten 5s at the ten's place.

So, occurrence of 5 from 1 to 100 = 20 times.

So, from 1 to 1000, 5's in tens and units place would be 20 x 10 = 200 times

Occurrence of 5 at hundredth place from 500 to 600 = 100 times

Therefore, total number of times 5 digit would appear = 200 + 100 = 300.

QUESTION: 2

A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such that opposite faces are of same colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of two different sizes such that 32 cubes are small and the other four cubes are Big. None of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue. How many cubes have only one face painted?

Solution:

Size of bigger cubes is twice the size of smaller cubes. Also, as none of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue, so each one of the bigger cube has one face painted yellow, one is black and all other faces are unpainted.

Number of cubes with one face painted = 8

Number of cubes with two faces painted = 8 smaller cubes on each of blue painted surface + 4 bigger cubes

= (8 x 2) + 4 = 20

The correct option is C.

QUESTION: 3

A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight increases by 60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is removed from the top of A?

Solution:

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1- assume the weight of A=100%

Step 2-if you place B on A 60% increases

i.e, 100%+60%= 160%

Step 3- If you remove B with respect to total weight of A and B

i.e, total [A+B]-B= 160% - 60%

Reduction in weight with respect to total weight of A and B

(A/A+B) × [A+B]-B = 100/160 × 60 %

=37.5% is the answer

QUESTION: 4

Mr. 'X' has three children. The birthday of the first child falls on the 5th Monday of April that of the second one falls on the 5th Thursday of November. On which day is the birthday of his third child, which falls on 20th December?

Solution:

5th Monday of April can be

either 29th April or 30th April

Case 1 : 29th April is 5th Monday

then 1 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 1 = 186 Days = 26*7 + 4

=> so 1 November will be Friday

=>  which means 29th , 30th Nov are  Friday & Saturday

so there's no 5th Thursday in November when 5th Monday of April is on 29th .

Case 2 :  30th April Monday is 5th Monday

then 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 1 = 185 Days = 26*7 + 3

=> so 1 November will be Thursday

=> which means 29th Nov is 5th Thursday, which is our case

=> so 6th Dec is also Thursday

6 + (2 * 7) = 20

=> So, 20th Dec is also Thursday (3rd Thursday of December)

QUESTION: 5

Consider the following Statements and Conclusions:
Statements:
1. Some rats are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
3. No dog is a cow.
Conclusions:
I. No cow is a cat.
II. No dog is a rat.
III. Some cats are rats.
Q. Which of the above conclusions is/are drawn from the statements?

Solution:

The conclusion of 'Some rats are cats' is 'Some cats are rats'. So conclusion III is valid. No conclusion can be drawn in terms of rats and dogs as statement I and II both are starting with 'some'. So, conclusion II is not valid. That eliminates all options except option (c).

The only conclusion in terms of cat and cow will be 'Some cats are not cows'. So conclusion I is not valid.

 

QUESTION: 6

The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines, is

Solution:

In the diagram, let’s count the parallelograms one by one.

Case I - Parallelograms of 1 × 1 (ABFE type) - ABFE, BCGF, CDHG, EFJI, FGKJ, GHLK, IJNM, JKON, KLPO – total 9.

Case II - Parallelograms of 1 × 2 (ACGE type) - ACGE, BDFH, EGKI, FHLJ, IKOM, JLPN – total 6.

Case III - Parallelogram of 2 × 1 (ABJI type) - ABJI, EFNM, BCKJ, FGON, CDLK, GHPO – total 6.

Case IV - Parallelograms of 1 × 3 (ADHE type) - ADHE, EHLI, ILPM – total 3.

Case V - Parallelograms of 3 × 1 (ABNM type) - ABNM, BCON, CDPO – total 3.

Case VI - Parallelograms of 2 × 2 (ACKI type) - ACKI, BDLJ, EGOM, FHPN – total 4.

Case VII - Parallelograms of 3 × 2 (ADLI type) - ADLI, EHPM – total 2.

Case VIII - Parallelograms of 2 × 3 (ACOM type) - ACOM, BDPN – total 2.

Case IX -Parallelograms of 3 × 3 (ADPM type) – ADPM – total 1.

Total 36.

A much shorter method is by using permutations and combinations.

Select any two of the first set of 4 lines. That can be done in 4C2 ways.

Now select any two of the second set of 4 lines. That can also be done in 4C2 ways.

So the total number of ways of doing it = 4C2  x 4C2 = 6 x 6 = 36 ways.

QUESTION: 7

In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a football player if and only if the identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a cricketer if and only if the identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to 100 is assigned to a student, then how many of them play cricket as well as football?

Solution:

The required number should be completely divisible by both 4 and 6. That means it should be divisible by LCM of 4 and 6, which is 12. Such 8 numbers are possible which are completely divisible by 12. They are 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84 and 96.

QUESTION: 8

When a runner was crossing the 12 km mark, she was informed that she had completed only 80% of the race. How many kilometres was the runner supposed to run in this event?

Solution:

This can be solved mentally. 12 km is 80% of whole race

i.e  8/10 = 4/5 of the whole race. So whole race must be 15 km.

In this question 12 km is 80% of the total race.

=> 12 km = 0.8 R => R = 12 / 0.8 = 15.

So total race will be of 15 km. 

QUESTION: 9

Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he wants to buy a mobile handset; but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy the handset. Therefore, he borrows 2000 from a friend. Then

Solution:

In this question Rs. 9000 is 75% of the cost of mobile phone. So total cost of mobile phone is Rs. 12000 ( = 9000 / 0.75). Now, as he borrows Rs. 2000, he will be still short of Rs.1000 to buy the phone.

QUESTION: 10

In 2002, Meenu's age was one-third of the age of Meera, whereas in 2010, Meenu's age was half the age of Meera. What is Meenu's year of birth?

Solution:

Answer:

Meenu's year of birth - 1994

Step-by-step explanation:

in 2002 Meenu's age was one third of the age of Meera where as in 2010,Meenu's age was half of the age of Meera.

Let say Meenu's age in 2002 = M Years

Meenu's age was one third of the age of Meera

so, Meera's age in 2002 = 3M

in 2010 i.e 8 years after 2002

Meenu's age was half of the age of Meera

Meenu age = M + 8

Meera age = 3M + 8

2(M + 8) = 3M + 8

=> 2M + 16 = 3M + 8

=> M = 8

Meenu was 8 years old in 2002

so Meenu was born in 2002-8  = 1994

Meenu's Year of Birth = 1994

QUESTION: 11

Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent 1300 and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket costs three times a ball does, then what is the price of a racket?

Solution:

Let the cost of each ball is Rs. X. Then cost of each racket will be 3X.

Cost of 10 balls = 10X, and cost of 10 rackets = 30X.

So total cost = 10X + 30X = 40X.

By the condition given in question, we have

40X = 1300 + 1500 or 40X = 2800 or X = 70. Price of each racket = Rs. 210.

QUESTION: 12

In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian.
2. At least 10 Indian participants are non-vegetarian.
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Let’s try to maximise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 70 Indians, all vegetarians (i.e, 60) can be Indians. So, at least 10 Indians will be there who will be non-vegetarians. This number can increase depending on the number of vegetarian-Indians.

Let’s try to minimise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. For that we have maximise the number of non-Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 30 Non-Indians, at max all can be vegetarian. Still 30 vegetarians remain which will fall under Indian category. So, at least 30 Indians will be there who will be vegetarians. Hence both statements are correct.

QUESTION: 13

Passage — 1
What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of 'Genetic Modification (GM)' technology is an `Intellectual Property Rights' regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies. If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and that too in the short run. That is why corporations make major investments for herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. Such properties have only a short window, as soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance. This suits the corporations. The National Farmers Commission pointed out that priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses.
Q. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

Solution:

Option (b) is not relevant to this passage. Option (c) is an extreme, and is not stated thus, in the passage. Option (d) is wrong, as the passage indicates otherwise (last part). Best answer is option (a), as the passage criticizes the approach of private corporations, and indicates what India really needs (which private firms won’t do, and hence only public enterprises can or have to)

QUESTION: 14

Passage — 1
What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of 'Genetic Modification (GM)' technology is an `Intellectual Property Rights' regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies. If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and that too in the short run. That is why corporations make major investments for herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. Such properties have only a short window, as soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance. This suits the corporations. The National Farmers Commission pointed out that priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses.
Q. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
​1. The issue of effects of natural calamities on agriculture is not given due consideration by GM technology companies.
2. In the long run, GM technology will not be able to solve agricultural problems arising due to global warming. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Assumption 1 is correct, as that is clearly mentioned in the passage. Assumption 2 is too broad, as it assumes that GM technology will “never” be able to do it, which may be wrong. Hence, option (a) is best.

QUESTION: 15

Passage - 2
Most invasive species are neither terribly successful nor very harmful. Britain's invasive plants are not widespread, not spreading especially quickly, and often less of a nuisance than vigorous natives such as bracken. The arrival of new species almost always increases biological diversity in a region; in many cases, a flood of newcomers drives no native species to extinction. One reason is that invaders tend to colonise disturbed habitats like polluted lakes and post-industrial wasteland, where little else lives. They are nature's opportunists.
Q. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Solution:

Option (d) uses the term “foreign plants” which makes in unsuitable. Same holds for options (b) and (c) too.

Option (d) uses the term “foreign plants” which makes in unsuitable. Same holds for options (b) and (c) too. Hence, option (a) is best, which is correct also as per the passage. Even if we do not use this logic (trick), option (b) is too extreme as in some cases we may need such laws. Option (c) is not the most logical inference (due to “sometimes”). Option (d) seems a strange way to go about it (we should rather protect our own indigenous biodiversity than destroy it). Hence (a) is best.

QUESTION: 16

Passage - 3
Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian children are mostly due to food and water contamination. Use of contaminated groundwater and unsafe chemicals in agriculture, poor hygiene in storage and handling of food items to food cooked and distributed in unhygienic surroundings; there are myriad factors that need regulation and monitoring. People need to have awareness of adulteration and ways of complaining to the relevant authorities. Surveillance of food-borne diseases involves a number of government agencies and entails good training of inspection staff. Considering the proportion of the urban population that depends on street food for its daily meals, investing in training and education of street vendors is of great significance.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Food safety is a complex issue that calls for a multi-pronged solution.
2. Great investments need to be made in developing the manpower for surveillance and training.
3. India needs to make sufficient legislation for governing food processing industry.

Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Passage - 4
The interests of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of our cities. Our cities are increasingly intolerant,', unsafe and unlivable places for large numbers of citizens and yet we continue to plan via the old ways — the static Development Plan — that draws exclusively from technical expertise, distanced from people's live experiences and needs, and actively excluding large number of people, places, activities and practices that are an integral part of the city.
Q. The passage seems to argue

Solution:

Options (a) and (b) are clearly wrong. Option (c) is not wrong, as that is one logic given right at the start. But option (d) is best as it covers option (c) as well. If we start involving peoples’ groups in city planning, then automatically we will have the interests of working class and poor people taken care of. In fact, much more than that is possible then.

QUESTION: 18

Passage - 5
A vast majority of Indians are poor, with barely 10 percent employed in the organised sector. We are being convinced that vigorous economic growth is generating substantial employment. But this is not so. When our economy was growing at 3 percent per year, employment in the organised sector was growing at 2 percent per year. As the economy began to grow at 7 - 8 percent per year, the rate of growth of employment in the organised sector actually declined to 1 percent per year.

The above passage seems to imply that
1. Most of modern economic growth is based on technological progress.
2. Much of modern Indian economy does not nurture sufficient symbiotic relationship with labour-intensive, natural resource-based livelihoods.
3. Service sector in India is not very labour intensive.
4. Literate rural population is not willing to enter organised sector.
Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Statement 4 is not mentioned anywhere. So, options (b) and (d) are ruled out. Now check statement 3. It is a big assumption we need to make to equate service sector with organized sector keeping in mind the growth of economy coming largely from services. That is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Hence, 3 is not correct. Hence, option (c) is ruled out. Hence, (a) is best.

QUESTION: 19

Passage — 6
India has banking correspondents, who help bring people in the hinterland into the banking fold. For them to succeed, banks cannot crimp on costs. They also cannot afford to ignore investing in financial education and literacy. Banking correspondents are way too small to be viewed as a systemic risk. Yet India's banking regulator has restricted them to serving only one bank, perhaps to prevent arbitrage.'Efforts at banking outreach may succeed only if there are better incentives at work for such last-mile workers and also those providers who ensure not just basic bank accounts but also products such as accident and life insurance and micro pension schemes.
Q. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

A five-storeyed building with floors from I to V is painted using four different colours and only one colour is used to paint a floor. Consider the following statements:
1. The middle three floors are painted in different colours.
2. The second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in different colours.
3. The first (I) and the fifth (V) floors are painted red.
​To ensure that any two consecutive floors have different colours

Solution:

Precondition - five floors are painted with 4 different colours.

Statement 1 – The middle three floors are painted in different colours does not guarantee any two consecutive floors of different colours as the colour of “I and II” or “IV and V” can be same.

Statement 2 – Second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in different colours does not guarantee any two consecutive floors of different colours as the colour of I and II or II and III, III and IV or IV and V can be same.

Statement 3 will ensure that any two consecutive floors have different colours as there are only four colours to be used. The remaining three floors will have different colours

QUESTION: 21

P, Q and R are three towns. The distance between P and Q is 60 km, whereas the distance between P and R is 80 km. Q is in the West of P and R is in the South of P. What is the distance between Q and R?

Solution:

A direct application of Pythagoras theorem.

Refer to the diagram given :

Using Pythagoras theorem –

Distance between Q and R
= √( (80)2+ (60)2 )=√(6400+3600)=√10000=100 km

QUESTION: 22

All members of a club went to Mumbai and stayed in a hotel. On the first day, 80% went for shopping and 50% went for sightseeing, whereas 10% took rest in the hotel. Which of the following conclusion(s) can be drawn from the above data?
1. 40% members went for shopping as well as sightseeing.
​2. 20% members went for only shopping.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Percentage of members went for shopping  = 80%

percentage of members went for sightseeing = 50%

Percentage of members took rest in the hotel = 10%

Members who either went for shopping or sightseeing or both

= 100% - 10% = 90%

Members who went for both shopping and sightseeing

= 80% + 50% - 90% = 40%

Members who went only for shopping = 80% - 40% = 40%

40% members went for shopping as well as sightseeing.

and 40% members went for only shopping.

QUESTION: 23

In a school, 60% students play cricket. A student who does not play cricket, plays football. Every football player has got a twowheeler. Which of the following conclusions cannot be drawn from the above data?
1. 60% of the students do not have two wheelers.
2. No cricketer has a two-wheeler.
3. Cricket players do not play football.

​Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

60% students play cricket. So, 40% students play football. All football players have two-wheelers. It doesn't conclude that 60% students do not have two-wheelers. Statement 1 is false.
It is not mentioned whether cricketer has two-wheelers or not. So, statement 2 is false.
A student who does not play cricket, plays football. Nothing is mentioned about students who play cricket. Statement 3 is also false.
The correct option is A.

QUESTION: 24

The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 4: 7. The number of such pairs is

Solution:

Let the two digit number be 10a + b and the number formed by reversing  its digits be 10b + a.

70a + 7b = 40b + 4a
66a = 33b
Therefore, 
So, let us list down all possible values for a and b.

Hence, the sum of all the numbers would be, 
12 + 21 + 24 + 42 + 36 + 63 + 48 + 84 = 330.

QUESTION: 25

In an examination, A has scored 20 marks more than B. If B has scored 5% less marks than A, how much has B scored?

Solution:

Check options directly.

Start with (a). If B is 360, A will be 380. Now, 5% of 380 = 19. So B will become 380 – 19 = 361. Hence this option is wrong (B is 360, not 361).

If B is 380, A will be 400. Now, 5% of 400 = 20. So B will be 400 – 20 = 380. Hence (b) is correct. You do not need to check options (c) and (d) at all.

QUESTION: 26

Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a gap of every 2 days and every 3 days respectively. If on 1st January both of them went for a swim together, when will they go together next?

Solution:

Seeta next - 4th | 7th | 10th | 13th
Geeta next - 5th | 9th | 13th
Seeta went on 1st so 2nd 3rd off & next class on 4th.
Similarly
Geeta went on 1st so 2nd 3rd 4th off & next class on 5th and so on.

QUESTION: 27

X, Y and Z are three contestants in a race of 1000 m. Assume that all run with different uniform speeds. X gives Y a start of 40 m and X gives Z a start of 64 m. If Y and Z were to compete in a race of 1000 m, how many metres start will Y give to Z?

Solution:

In the 1000 m race, X gives Y 40 m start. That means Y starts race 40 m ahead of X.

In the 1000 m race, X gives Z 64 m start. That means Z starts race 64 m ahead of X

So, this means Y gives a lead of 24 m in a 1000 – 40 = 960 m race.

So, by unitary method, lead given by Y in 1000 m = 24/960×1000 = 25 m.

QUESTION: 28

​If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y is less than or equal to 40, then which one of the following is always correct?

Solution:

Given that x is greater than or equal to 25. Also, y is less than or equal to 40.

Let’s try to find the various values of y – x.

If y = 40, x can take various values like 25, 26, 27, ....... (not necessarily integers – not given in question) In that case y – x will take values like 15, 14, 13, 12,......0, - 1 etc.

If y = 39, x can take various values 25, 26, 27.... (not necessarily integers) In that case y – x will take values like 14, 13, 12, 11 ..... 0, - 1 etc.

Similarly, if y = 38, values of y – x will be 13, 12, 11, ..... 0, -1 etc. and so on.

So, we can say that value of y – x is less than or equal to 15 in all cases.

QUESTION: 29

Ena was born 4 years after her parents' marriage. Her mother is three years younger than her father and 24 years older than Ena, who is 13 years old. At what age did Ena's father get married?

Solution:

Ena's present age = 13

Ena's mother's present age = 13 + 24 = 37.

Ena's father's present age = 37 + 3 = 40.

Now at present Ena is 13 years old and her parents got married 4 years before she was born.

So, Ena's parents got married 13 + 4 = 17 years earlier.

So at the time of marriage her father would be of 40 – 17 = 23 years old

QUESTION: 30

Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile handsets of a specific company. But the retailer offered very good discount on that particular handset. Rakesh could buy 10 mobile handsets with the amount he had. What was the discount the retailer offered?

Solution:

Discount = Marked Price – Selling Price.
Let the Marked Price of 10 articles = Rs. 100.

So, Marked Price of 8 articles = Rs. 80. (so each was marked at Rs.10)

So, as per the question, Rakesh purchased 10 mobile phones for Rs. 80

So, the selling price of 10 mobile phones = Rs. 80 (so each bought at Rs.8)

The discount is 2 rupees on 10 which is 20%.

[Also, discount % = Discount × 100/ MP = 20 × 100/100 = 20%]

QUESTION: 31

The average marks of 100 students are given to be 40. It was found later that marks of one student were 53 which were misread as 83. The corrected mean marks are 

Solution:

Given, average marks of 100 students = 40.

So, total marks of 100 students = 40 × 100 = 4000.

But in this total the error is 83 – 53 = 30, more than the actual total.

So, Actual total = 4000 – 30 = 3970.

So the correct Mean = 3970/100 = 39.70.

QUESTION: 32

Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage –1
Low-end IoT (Internet of Things) devices are cheap commodity items: addressing security would add to the cost. This class of items is proliferating with new applications; many home appliances, thermostats, security and monitoring devices and personal convenience devices are part of the IoT. So are fitness trackers, certain medical implants and computer-like devices in automobiles. The IoT is expected to expand exponentially — but new security challenges are daunting.

Q. Which one of the following statements is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Solution:

Option (a) is irrelevant to the passage given. Option (b) is also irrelevant as “India” is not discussed in the passage. Option (c) is not correct as this is not the theme of this passage. Best answer is option (d).

QUESTION: 33

Passage - 2
With the digital phenomenon restructuring most social sectors, it is little surprise that global trade negotiations are now eyeing the digital area in an attempt to pre-emptively colonise it. Big Data is freely collected or mined from developing countries, and converted into digital intelligence in developed countries. This intelligence begins to control different sectors and extract monopoly rents. A large foreign company providing cab service, for instance, is not a work of cars and drivers, it is digital intelligence about commuting, public transport, roads, traffic, city events, presonal behavioural characteristics of commuters and driver and so on.

Q. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?

Solution:

Options (a), (c) and (d) are wrong. The passage is clearly talking about how digital data ownership is now driving trade and business advantages, and how Indian data in the hands of foreign firms is not a good idea (for India). Clearly, (b) represents the best corollary (i.e. a guidance for the future).

QUESTION: 34

Passage - 2
With the digital phenomenon restructuring most social sectors, it is little surprise that global trade negotiations are now eyeing the digital area in an attempt to pre-emptively colonise it. Big Data is freely collected or mined from developing countries, and converted into digital intelligence in developed countries. This intelligence begins to control different sectors and extract monopoly rents. A large foreign company providing cab service, for instance, is not a work of cars and drivers, it is digital intelligence about commuting, public transport, roads, traffic, city events, presonal behavioural characteristics of commuters and driver and so on.

Which of the following is most definitively implied by the above passage?

Solution:

This is the central idea. Option (b) is a mere fact. Option (c) is wrong – the developed countries have no such right! Option (d) is not entirely correct.

QUESTION: 35

Passage - 3
The rural poor across the world, including India, have contributed little to human-induced climate change, yet they are on the frontline in coping with its effects. Farmers can no longer rely on historical averages for rainfall and temperature, and the more frequent and extreme weather events, such as droughts and floods, can spell disaster. And there are new threats, such as sea level rise and the impact of melting glaciers on water supply. How significant are small farms? As many as two billion peopre worldwide depend on them for their food and livelihood. Small-holder farmers in India produce 41 percent of the country's food grains, and other food items that contribute to local and national food security.

​Q. What is the most logical and rational Corry to the above passage?

Solution:

Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect. Option (b) is wrongly interpreting the passage – the poor may not have contributed to climate change, but they may have a role in mitigating it now. Option (c) is a big assumption being made, and may be wrong. Option (d) is not mentioned anywhere thus. The use of “only” makes it wrong. Best choice is option (a).

QUESTION: 36

The rural poor across the world, including India, have contributed little to human-induced climate change, yet they are on the frontline in coping with its effects. Farmers can no longer rely on historical averages for rainfall and temperature, and the more frequent and extreme weather events, such as droughts and floods, can spell disaster. And there are new threats, such as sea level rise and the impact of melting glaciers on water supply. How significant are small farms? As many as two billion peopre worldwide depend on them for their food and livelihood. Small-holder farmers in India produce 41 percent of the country's food grains, and other food items that contribute to local and national food security.

The above passage implies that
1. There is a potential problem of food insecurity in India.
2. India will have to strengthen its disaster management capabilities.
​Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Both assumptions seem valid. Assumption 1 is indicated as small farms produce a lot of food, and are under threat. Assumption 2 is a clear message for India, from the tone of the passage.

QUESTION: 37

Passage – 4
A changing climate, and the eventual efforts of governments (however reluctant) to deal with it, could have a big impact on investors' returns. Companies that produce or use large amounts of fossil fuels will face higher taxes and regulatory burdens. Some energy producers may find it impossible to exploit their known reserves, and be left with "stranded assets" — deposits of oil and coal that have to be left in the ground. Other industries could be affected by the economic damage caused by more extreme weather — storms, floods, heat waves and droughts.

Q. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Governments and companies need to be adequately prepared to face the climate change.
2. Extreme weather events will reduce the economic growth of governments and companies'in future.
3. Ignoring climate change is a huge risk for investors. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Assumption 3 is definitely correct. So option (a) is ruled out. Assumption 2 is worded is a strange way – “economic growth of governments” does not sound right. So we reject it. So option (a) and (d) are gone. We are left with option (c) only.

QUESTION: 38

Passage - 5
Access to schooling for those coming of school age is close to universal, but access to quality exhibits a sharp gradient with socio-economic status. Quotas for the weaker sections in private schools is a provision introduced by the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009. The quotas have imposed a debate on issues of social integration and equity in education that private actors had escaped by and large, The idea of egalitarian education system with equality of opportunity as its primary goal appears to be outside the space that private school principals inhabit. Therefore, the imposition of the quotas has led to resistance, sometimes justified,

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Making equality of opportunity a reality is the fundamental goal of the Indian education system.
2. The present Indian school system is unable to provide egalitarian education.
3. Abolition of private schools and establishment of more government schools is the only way to ensure egalitarian education.
Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Assumption 2 is surely correct, as per the passage. So option (d) is ruled out. Assumption 3 is too strongly worded, and is not mentioned. In fact, a word of support for private schools is seen in the end of the passage. So we rule out assumption 3. We are now left with options (a) and (b). Assumption 1 is surely correct – it is mentioned. Hence, (a) is our answer.

QUESTION: 39

Passage – 6
A majority of the TB infected in India are poor and lack sufficient nutrition, suitable housing and have little understanding of prevention. TB then devastates families, makes the poor poorer, particularly affects women and children, and leads to ostracisation and loss of employment. The truth is that even if TB does not kill them, hunger and poverty will. Another truth is that deep-seated stigma, lack of counselling, expensive treatment and lack of adequate support from providers and family, coupled with torturous side-effects demotivate patients to continue treatment — with disastrous health consequences.
Q. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

Solution:

Option (a) is wrong. It is nowhere mentioned thus, with an air of fatality! Option (c) is wrong as poor do have access to treatment though it seems to be not working out well. The phrase “…have no access” is wrong. Option (d) goes tangentially into a different direction. Best answer is (b).

QUESTION: 40

​If every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the remaining letters are capitalized, then how is the first month of the second half of the year written?

Solution:

If we will write the English alphabet as described in the question we will get the 26 letters as – AbCdEfGhIjKlMnOpQrStUvWxYz. So, July will be written jUlY.

To do this mentally, break up the 26 alphabets into 13 pairs of two alphabets each – ab, cd, ef, ….. yz. Then, mentally visualize them to become – Ab, Cd, Ef, ….. Yz. Then July will have y at the end. That is capital Y. So options (b) and (c) are ruled out. And alphabet j will be in small caps. So (a) is ruled out. So answer is option (d).

QUESTION: 41

Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the average of the three single digit odd prime numbers. Length of the second piece is equal to that of the first plus one-third the length of the third. The third piece is as long as the other two pieces together. The length of the original sheet of paper is

Solution:

The only three single digit odd prime numbers are 3, 5 and 7. So the length of the first piece = (3+ 5 + 7)/3 = 5. Now let the length of the second piece = X units.

Then by the condition given in question we have – Length of the third piece = X + 5. Length of the second piece = X = 5 + (X + 5)/3.

Solve this to get X = 10. So, length of the first piece = 5, second piece = 10 and third piece = 15. So length of the original sheet = 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 units.

QUESTION: 42

In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, how many such 5s are there which are not immediately preceded by 3 but are immediately followed by 7?

Solution:

In the given sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, there is only one such 5 that is not preceded immediately by 3, but immediately followed by 7. It is the one in bold – 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7.

QUESTION: 43

A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three females. G is a widow and sister-in-law of D's father F. B and D are siblings and A is daughter of B. C is cousin of B. Who is E?
1. Wife of F
2. Grandmother of A
3. Aunt of C

Q. ​Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

All are correct – E is the wife of F, grandmother of A, and aunt of C. The information given in question can be interpreted by the diagram shown –

Hence answer is (d).

QUESTION: 44

Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours. In how many different ways can the cube be painted?

Solution:

The possibilities of each face of a cube painted in black are 6 and the possibilities of each face of a cube painted in white is also 6.

Total number of ways = 6+6 = 12

 or,

possibilities of each face can be black or white is 2!

we know that total number of faces in cube is 6 

So, Total number of ways = 2! +2! + 2! + 2! +2! + 2! = 12

QUESTION: 45

How many triplets (x, y, z) satisfy the equation x + y + z = 6, where x, y and z are natural numbers?

Solution:

x, y and z are natural numbers. So, x, y and z will be greater than zero. It also means that minimum 1 will be there at all places in (x, y, z).

So we can conclude that x' + y' + z' = 6 – (1 + 1 + 1) = 3, where x', y', and z' can take value 0 too.

Now this is a problem of distributing three objects at three places (i.e. with two partitions). This can be done in 5!/(3!×2!) = 10 ways.

The other, simpler way to do it is to manually check. We get 10 sets of triplets : (1,2,3), (1,3,2), (2,1,3), (2,3,1), (3,1,2), (3,2,1),(1,1,4), (1,4,1), (4,1,1), (2,2,2).

QUESTION: 46

If $ means 'divided by'; @ means 'multiplied by'; # means 'minus', then the value of 10#5@1$5 is

Solution:

After changing the expression as per the conditions given in the question, we get 10#5@1$5 = 10 - 5 × 1 ÷ 5.

Using BODMAS, we first get 1 / 5 = 1/5. Then we get 5 x 1/5 = 1. Then we get 10 – 1 = 9. Hence, we have answer 9.

QUESTION: 47

An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves remainder 0 when divided by 3. How many values of B are possible?

Solution:

This is a question based on rules of divisibility. The rule of divisibility of 3 is that the sum of all the digits of the number should be divisible by 3. We have 4 + 2 + 5 + 2 + 7 + 4 + 6 + B = 30 + B, which is completely divisible by three. So B can take value as 0, 3, 6, or 9. Hence 4 values are possible for B.

QUESTION: 48

Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least. In all the tests they got different marks; D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores higher than A.

Q. If F stands second in the ranking, then the position of B is

Solution:

Let’s first number the conditions given in question. There are eight conditions in all.

i. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests.

ii. Either C or F scores the highest.

iii. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least.

iv. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least.

v. In all the tests they got different marks;

vi. D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors;

vii. A scores higher than B;

viii. C scores higher than A

If F stands second, then by condition (ii), C will be first. If C is first (i.e., score highest) by condition (iii), E scores the least. And using conditions v, vi, vii and viii, we got the following order - C – F – D – A – B – E. Hence B stood fifth.

QUESTION: 49

Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least. In all the tests they got different marks; D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores higher than A.

Q. If B scores the least, the rank of C will be

Solution:

C will hold the third position as he scored greater than A and D scored more than A. Further F scored the highest and secured the first position and hence B secures the last position.

QUESTION: 50

Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least. In all the tests they got different marks; D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores higher than A.
 

Q. If E is ranked third, then which one of the following is correct?

Solution:

Let’s first number the conditions given in question. There are eight conditions in all.

i. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests.

ii. Either C or F scores the highest.

iii. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least.

iv. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least.

v. In all the tests they got different marks;

vi. D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors;

vii. A scores higher than B;

viii. C scores higher than A

Arrangement will be 
F _ C _ D _ A _ B In this arrangement E can occupy four positions. In every case C can be either occupy second or third place. So when E occupies third position, then C is at second position. Which means C got more marks than E.

QUESTION: 51

Read the following statements S1 and S2 and answer the two items that follow:
S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan.
S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater than the weight of Mohan or that of Sohan. 

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

Let weight of Sohan = S, weight of Mohan = M and weight of Rohan = R.

Then by the condition given we have :

2S < M, even double of S is less than M. So, S < M.

2S < R, even double of S is less than R. So S < R.

So, we can conclude that S is less than M and R. But we do not know the order relation between M and R. Again, 2R > M, means either R = M or R > M or R < M. So we cannot conclude relation between R and M.

2R > S is obvious as we have concluded R > S above. So not give any fruitful information.

QUESTION: 52

Read the following statements S1 and S2 and answer the two items that follow:
S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan.
S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater than the weight of Mohan or that of Sohan. 

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

Let weight of Sohan = S, weight of Mohan = M and weight of Rohan = R.

Then by the condition given we have :

2S < M, even double of S is less than M. So, S < M.

2S < R, even double of S is less than R. So S < R.

So, we can conclude that S is less than M and R.

Which means weight of Sohan is less than other two.

QUESTION: 53

Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage - 1
India's economic footprint, given its population, still remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to learn from other economies, yet must implement solutions that fit its unique circumstances. India especially needs an effective long-term regulatory system based on collaboration rather than the ' current top-down approach. Regulations seek desirable outcomes yet are repeatedly used as political tools to push one agenda or another. Often, regulations fail to consider impacts on jobs and economic growth — or less restrictive alternatives. Regulations may be used to protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the future. Additionally, regulations inevitably result in numerous unintended consequences. In today's hyper competitive global economy, regulations need to be viewed as "weapons" that seek cost-justified social and environmental benefits while improving the economic wellbeing of most citizens.

Q. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?

Solution:

Option (c) is not the main inference being drawn. It is one of the discussed issues. Option (d) is also one of the issues discussed, but not the main inference we can derive. Option (b) comes close to being the most logical inference, but option (a) is the best because the passage started with the idea of economic size of India. Then it went on to discuss the problems of regulatory system(s) in India. So, (a) is better than (b).

QUESTION: 54

Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage - 1
India's economic footprint, given its population, still remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to learn from other economies, yet must implement solutions that fit its unique circumstances. India especially needs an effective long-term regulatory system based on collaboration rather than the ' current top-down approach. Regulations seek desirable outcomes yet are repeatedly used as political tools to push one agenda or another. Often, regulations fail to consider impacts on jobs and economic growth — or less restrictive alternatives. Regulations may be used to protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the future. Additionally, regulations inevitably result in numerous unintended consequences. In today's hyper competitive global economy, regulations need to be viewed as "weapons" that seek cost-justified social and environmental benefits while improving the economic wellbeing of most citizens.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : In today's global economy,
1. regulations are not effectively used to protect local markets.
2. social and environmental concerns are generally ignored by the governments across the world while implementing the regulations.
Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Passage — 2
In a study, scientists compared the microbiomes of poorly nourished and well nourished infants and young children. Gut microbes were isolated from faecal samples of malnourished and healthy children. The microbiome was "immature" and less diverse in malnourished children compared to the better developed "mature" microbiome found in healthy children of the same age. According to some studies, the chemical composition of mother's milk has shown the presence of a modified sugar (sialylated oligosaccharides). This is not utilized by the baby for its own nutrition. However, the bacteria constituting the infant's microbiome thrive on this sugar which serves as their food. Malnourished mothers have low levels of this sugar in their milk. Consequently, the microbiomes of their infants fail to mature. That in turn, leads to malnourished babies.
Q. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?

Solution:

Option (a) is wrong. If the cause is found, treatment is possible.
Option (b) seems too far-fetched, and is not mentioned anywhere (inoculation etc.)
Option (c) sounds good, if it would be technically correct (that we do not know from the passage). The problem with it is “…instead of mother’s milk”.
Option (d) also sounds correct. It is a logical, rational and crucial inference regarding policy choices to be made regarding nutrition etc. But the problem is that the passage has zero hint about “policy choices at government or administrative levels” to be made. It is a pure science-related passage only. Hence, option (c) will be choosed over (d).

QUESTION: 56

​On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Processed probiotic foods are a solution to treat the children suffering from malnutrition due to immature gut bacteria composition.
2. The babies of malnourished mothers generally tend to be' malnourished.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Assumption 1 sounds correct as it will help make up for the early year problems due to improper nourishment via mother’s milk. Assumption 2 is clearly valid as seen in the passage (the last two sentences).

QUESTION: 57

Passage – 3
Temperatures have risen nearly five times as rapidly on the Western Antarctic Peninsula than the global average over the past five decades. Researchers have now found that melting glaciers are causing a loss of species diversity among benthos in the coastal waters off the Antarctic Peninsula, Impacting an entire seafloor ecosystem. They Believe increased levels of suspended sediment in water to be the cause of the dwindling biodiversity in the coastal region.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been Made :
1. Regions of glaciers warm faster than other regions due to global warming.
2. Global warming can lead to seafloor sedimentation in some areas.
3. Melting glaciers can reduce marine biodiversity in some areas.
Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

All three assumptions seem to be valid.

QUESTION: 58

Passage - 4
A research team examined a long-term owl roost. Owls prey on small mammals and the excreted remains of those meals that accumulated over the time, provide us an insight into the composition and structure of small mammals over the past 'millennia. The research suggested that when the Earth went through a period of rapid warming about 13,000 years ago, the small mammal community was stable and resilient. But, from the last quarter of the nineteenth century, human-made changes to the environment had caused an enormous drop in biomass and energy flow. This dramatic decline in energy flow means modern ecosystems are not adapting as easily as they did in the past.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Global warming is a frequently occurring natural phenomenon.
2. The impending global warming will not adversely affect small mammals.
3. Humans are responsible for the loss of the Earth's natural resilience.
​Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

Solution:

Assumption 1 cannot be made on the basis of this para, as only one example is cited. So options (a) and (d) are ruled out. Assumption 2 is clearly wrong, as the reverse is cited. So option (c) is ruled out. Hence, (b) is correct. Assumption 3 is mentioned in the para.

QUESTION: 59

Passage — 5
Food varieties extinction is happening all over the world --- and it is happening fast. For example, of the 7,000 apple varieties that were grown during the nineteenth century, fewer than o hundred remain. In the Philippines, thousands of varieties of rice once thrived; now only up to a hundred are grown there. In China, 90 percent of the wheat varieties cultivated just a century ago have disappeared. Farmers in the past painstakingly bred and developed crops well suited to the peculiarities of their local climate and environment. In the recent past, our heavy dependence on a few high yielding varieties and technology-driven production and distribution of food is causing the dwindling of diversity in food crops. If some mutating crop disease or future climate change decimates the few crop plants we have come to depend on to feed our growing population, we might desperately need some of those varieties we have let go extinct.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Humans have been the main reason for the large scale extinction of plant species.
2. Consumption of food mainly from locally cultivated crops ensures crop diversity.
3. The present style of production and distribution of food will finally lead to the problem of food scarcity in the near future.
4. Our food security may depend on our ability to preserve the locally cultivated varieties of crops.
​Q. Which of the above assumptions are valid?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

What is X in the sequence 132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, X?

Solution:

The series is reducing by 3, 5, 7, 11, 13 ... i.e., by prime numbers starting with 3. So, the next prime will be 17. The value of X will be 93 – 17 = 76.

QUESTION: 61

​A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24 hours. The clock was set right to show the correct time at 8:00 a.m. on Monday. When the clock shows the time 6:00 p.m. on Wednesday, what is the correct time?

Solution:

In 24 hours, the correct clock moves 24 × 60 = 1440 minutes, but the incorrect clock will move 1440 + 10 = 1450 min. So now we have basic relation between the correct and incorrect clock that in the time correct clock moves 1440 minutes, incorrect clock moves 1450 minutes.

Now by the condition given in question the incorrect clock has moved 24 + 24 + 10 = 58 hours (i.e. 58×60 minutes).

If the incorrect clocks moves 1450 minutes, correct clock moves 1440 minutes.

If the incorrect clock moves 1 minute, correct clock moves 1440/1450 minutes.

But in our case incorrect clock has moved 58 hrs × 60 min /hr = 3480 minutes.

So, if the incorrect clock moved 3480 minutes, the correct clock will have moved (1440×3480)/1450 = 3456 minutes.

Converting 3456 min into hours we have 3456/60 = 573/5 or 57 hours 36 minutes.

QUESTION: 62

If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero, the resulting fraction is

Solution:

The correct option is A.
If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero, the resulting fraction is

Larger Than the original Fraction

Proper fraction has value less than one

=> Numerator < Denominator

=> N/D < 1

=> D = N + k

N/D  = (D-k)/D  =  D/D - k/D =  1 - k/D

if  the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero  then

(N+a)/(D+a)  = (D-k + a)/(D + a)

= (D + a)/(D + a)  - k/(D + a)

= 1 - k/(D + a)

D + a > D

=> 1/(D+a) < 1/D

=> k/(D + a) < k/D

=> -k/(D + a) > -kd

=> 1 - -k/(D + a) > 1 - kd

Hence the resulting fraction is Greater than original Proper fraction
 

QUESTION: 63

What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, X?

Solution:

The series can be seen as 4 (=22), 196 (=142), 16 (=42), 144 (=122), 36 (=62), 100 (=102), 64 (=82), X (?2).

Now observe every alternate term, value of X will be square of 8 i.e., 64.

QUESTION: 64

In a group of 15 people; 7 can read French, 8 can read English while 3 of them can read neither of these two languages. The number of people who can read exactly one language is

Solution:

This is a question from Set Theory. In a group of 15 people 3 cannot read any of two languages.

So, n(A ∪ B) = 12, n(A) = 7, n(B) = 8. And we have n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∩ B) By putting the values, we have 12 = 7 + 8 - n(A ∩ B).

So, n(A ∩ B) = 3.

So, total number of people who can read exactly one language = (7 - 3) + (8 - 3) = 4 + 5 = 9. Following Venn Diagram can help you understand the case -

QUESTION: 65

A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?

Solution:

The correct answer is (d)
From Page 1–9, every page will be a single digit number i.e. 9 digits
Similarly Page 10–99 will have 2 digit number pages → 90x2 =180 digits
And From page 100–999 → 900x3 = 2700 digits
From 1000, each page will be a 4 digit number. Since we want 3189 digits in all.
Just add the digits of pages 1 till 999 i.e. 9+180+2700 =2889
Now we need 3189–2889= 300 digits more. Just divide 300 by 4 to get the number of pages with 4 digits and that gives you 75 pages more.
And from 1000–1074 you will get 75 pages more.
So answer is 1074.

QUESTION: 66

Consider the following sequence that follows some arrangement: c_accaa_aa_bc_b The letters that appear in the gaps are

Solution:

 There are 15 characters in the sequence. So we should find sequences of 5 characters each in it. By applying the options given, we find that correct sequence is ccacc aabaa bbcbb when we use option (b) – c-b-b-b.

QUESTION: 67

A family has two children along with their parents. The average of the weights of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the weights of the children and their father is 52 kg. If the weight of the father is 60 kg, then what is the weight of the mother?

Solution:

We know that – Average x Number of people = Total.

Average of weight of two children and their mother (i.e. total 3 members) = 50. So, the sum of the weight of two children and mother = C1 + C2 + M = 50 × 3 = 150 ... (1) (where C1 and C2 are the weights of two children and M is the weight of the Mother)

Again if the weight of the Father is F, we have C1 + C2 + F = 52 × 3 = 156 ... (2)

Now it is given that the weight of the father = F = 60.

By putting this value in equation (2), we have C1 + C2 = 156 - 60 = 96.

Again by using equation (1) we have M = 150 - 96 = 54 kg.

(If you do not want to solve this way, you can always reverse check using options also, in such questions. Since option (4) was correct, you will need to check 3 options at least).

QUESTION: 68

Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations : Rs. 1, Rs. 10 and Rs. 50. In how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs. 107?

Solution:

1) 50 + 50 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1

2) 50 + 10 +10+10+10+10+ 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1

3) 50 + 10 + 10+10+10+ (17 *1)     
 ∵17*1 means we use 1 rupees 17 times

4) 50 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 27*1

5) 50 + 10 +10 + 37*1

6) 50 +10 + 47*1

7) 50 + 57*1

8) 107*1

9) 10*10 + 7*1            
here 10*10 mean we use 10 rupees 10 times

10) 10*9 + 17*1

11) 10*8 + 27*1

12) 10*7 + 37*1

13) 10*6 + 47*1

14) 10*5 + 57*1

15) 10*4 + 67*1

16) 10*3 + 77*1

17) 10*2 + 87*1

18) 10*1 + 97*1

So there are total 18 ways to pay for bill

QUESTION: 69

'A' started from his house and walked 20 m towards East, where his friend 'B' joined him. They together walked 10 m in the same direction. Then 'A' turned left while 'B' turned right and travelled 2 m and 8 m respectively. Again 'B' turned left to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his right to reach his office. 'A' turned right and travelled 12 m to reach his office. What is the shortest distance between the two offices?

Solution:

Using Pythagoras Theorem in triangle, PQR

Shortest Distance = Hypotenuse = √(152+82 )=√(225+64)=√289=17.

QUESTION: 70

​Consider two statements S1 and S2 followed by a question:
S1: p and q both are prime numbers.
S2: p + q is an odd integer.
Question: Is pq an odd integer?

Q. Which one of the following is correct?

Solution:

Consider following rules -

1. odd × odd = odd; 
2. odd×even = even; 
3. even × even = even; 
4. odd + odd = even; 
5. even + even = even and 
6. even + odd = odd.

By above rules p×q = even, if both p and q are even or they form a pair of odd and even numbers and p×q = odd, if p and q both are odd.

Statement I: Information given is not sufficient as in a set of prime number two numbers can be even and odd (for example 2 and 3) or odd and odd (for example 3 and 5). So, p×q can be even or odd.

Statement II: Information given is not sufficient as it is not known that whether p and q are integers are not. They may be fractions.

By combining statements I and II: we have p and q as prime number and there sum is odd. So, the two prime numbers should be one even and one odd. So now we have that one is even and one is odd. In this case p×q will always be even. So we can answer the question that No, p×q is not an odd integer.

QUESTION: 71

Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009?

Solution:

To have the same calendar two things should be matched.
First – the first day of the year and
second – the year type i.e., ordinary or leap.
Let the first day of year 2009 is X day. It means first day of 2010 will be X+1 day, as there is one odd day in one ordinary year.

It means first day of 2011 will be X+2 day. (As there is one odd day in one ordinary year)

It means first day of 2012 will be X+3 day. (As there is one odd day in one ordinary year)

It means first day of 2013 will be X+5 day. (As there are TWO odd days in one LEAP year)

It means first day of 2014 will be X+6 day. (As there is one odd day in one ordinary year); and

It means first day of 2015 will be X+7 day. (As there is one odd day in one ordinary year)

After every 7 days, the same day appears. So, the first day of 2015 will be same as 2009.

Since both are ordinary years. We can use the calendar of 2009 in 2015.

QUESTION: 72

Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is

Solution:

It is given 136 + 5B7 = 7A3.

Add the unit’s numbers to get 6 + 7 = 13. So, carry over 1.

=> 1 + 3 + B = 1A => 1 + 3 + B = 10 + A => B – A = 6.

Which means if A = 0, B = 6; if A = 1, B = 7, if A = 2, B = 8 and if A = 3, B = 9.

But given 7A3 is completely divisible by 3. So, as per rules of divisibility, 7 + A + 3 = 10 + A should also be completely divisible by 3.

So the possible values of A are 2, 5 and 8. (12 / 15 / 18 divisible by 3) Out of these, only 2 satisfies both the conditions so A = 2, so B = 8.

QUESTION: 73

Passage - 1
Political theorists no doubt have to take history of injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical injustice takes note of a variety of historical wrongs that continue into the present in some form or the other and tend to resist repair. Two reasons might account for resistance to repair. One, not only are the roots of injustice buried deep in history, injustice itself constitutes economic structures of exploitation, ideologies of discrimination and modes of representation. Two, the category of historical injustice generally extends across a number of wrongs such as economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of recognition. This category is complex, not only because of the overlap between a number of wrongs, but because one or the other wrong, generally discrimination, tends to acquire partial autonomy from others. This is borne out by the history of repair in India.
Q. What is the main idea that we can infer from the passage?

Solution:

Option (b) is clearly ruled out due to “… beyond repair”. The passage nowhere mentions that. Option (c) is not mentioned in this fashion. Option (a) sounds correct, but is not our choice because the first statement can also mean that political theorists have taken it seriously. Option (d) is the best.

QUESTION: 74

Passage - 1
Political theorists no doubt have to take history of injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical injustice takes note of a variety of historical wrongs that continue into the present in some form or the other and tend to resist repair. Two reasons might account for resistance to repair. One, not only are the roots of injustice buried deep in history, injustice itself constitutes economic structures of exploitation, ideologies of discrimination and modes of representation. Two, the category of historical injustice generally extends across a number of wrongs such as economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of recognition. This category is complex, not only because of the overlap between a number of wrongs, but because one or the other wrong, generally discrimination, tends to acquire partial autonomy from others. This is borne out by the history of repair in India.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Removal of economic discrimination leads to removal of social discrimination.
2. Democratic polity is the best way to repair historical wrongs.
Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

The passage clearly says that historical injustice spans across many categories like economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of recognition. So assumption 1 is not necessarily right. Assumption 2 is not explicitly stated anywhere. Hence both are invalid.

QUESTION: 75

Passage - 2
Education plays a great transformatory role in life, particularly so in this rapidly changing and globalizing world. Universities are the custodians of the intellectual capital and promoters of culture and specialized knowledge. Culture is an activity of thought, and receptiveness to beauty and human feelings. A merely well informed man is only a bore on God's earth. What we should aim at is producing men who possess both culture and expert knowledge. Their expert knowledge will give them a firm ground to start from and their culture will lead them as deep as philosophy and as high as art. Together it will impart meaning to human existence.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. A society without well educated people cannot be transformed into a modern society.
2. Without acquiring culture, a person's education is not complete.
​Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Education plays a great transformatory role in life, particularly so in this rapidly changing and globalizing world. Universities are the custodians of the intellectual capital and promoters of culture and specialized knowledge. Culture is an activity of thought, and receptiveness to beauty and human feelings. A merely well informed man is only a bore on God's earth. What we should aim at is producing men who possess both culture and expert knowledge. Their expert knowledge will give them a firm ground to start from and their culture will lead them as deep as philosophy and as high as art. Together it will impart meaning to human existence.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
 

QUESTION: 76

Soil, in which nearly all our food grows, is a living resource that takes years to form. Yet it can vanish in minutes. Each year 75 billion tonnes of fertile soil is lost to erosion. That is alarming — and not just for food producers. Soil can trap huge quantities of carbon dioxide in the form of organic carbon and prevent it from escaping into the atmosphere

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Large scale soil erosion is a major reason for widespread food insecurity in the world.
2. Soil erosion is mainly anthropogenic.
3. Sustainable management of soils helps in combating climate change.
Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Nearly 33 percent of the world's adequate or high-quality food-producing land has been lost at a speed surpassing nature's ability to replace diminished soil. While soil is eroded rapidly, it takes thousands of years to fully replenish.
Sediment input to a body of water comes from natural sources, such as erosion of soils and weathering of rock, or as the result of anthropogenic activities, such as forest or agricultural practices, or construction activities.
Sustainable soil and land management practices that are adapted to the local biophysical and socio-economic conditions can provide options for enhancing the interactions among soil, water, livestock and plants, which can prevent, slow or stop soil degradation and mitigate the impacts of climate change.
 

QUESTION: 77

Passage - 4
Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in many instances, but the economic power that drives it is invisible and not measurable... Like the force of gravity, power is the organising principle of inequality, be it of income, or wealth, gender, race, religion and region. Its effects are seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres, but the ways in which economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Economic power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society.
2. Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc, reinforces power.
3. Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods.
​Q. Which of thy above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Economic power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society. Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in many instances, but the economic power that drives it is invisible and not measurable.
Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods. Its effects are seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres, but the ways in which economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure.
 

QUESTION: 78

Passage - 5
Climate change may actually benefit some plants by lengthening growing seasons and increasing carbon dioxide. Yet other effects of a warmer world, such as more pests, droughts, and flooding, will be less benign. How will the world adapt ? Researchers project that by 2050, suitable croplands for four commodities — maize, potatoes, rice and wheat — will shift, in some cases pushing farmers to plant new crops. Some farmlands may benefit from warming, but others won't. Climate alone does not dictate yields; political shifts, global "demand, and agricultural practices will influence how farms fare in the future.
Q. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Solution:

Farmers who modernize their methods and diversify their fields will be in an advantageous position in future. Researchers project that by 2050, suitable croplands for four commodities — maize, potatoes, rice and wheat — will shift, in some cases pushing farmers to plant new crops. Some farmlands may benefit from warming, but others won't. 

QUESTION: 79

Passage - 6
A bat's wings may look like sheets of skin. But underneath, a bat has the same five fingers as an orangutan or a human, as well as a wrist connected to the same cluster of wrist bones connected to the same long bones of the arm. What can be more curious than that the hand of a man, formed for grasping, that of a mole for digging, the leg of the horse, the-paddle of the porpoise, and the wing of the bat, should all be constructed on the some pattern?
​Q. Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Solution:

Option (a) is not mentioned specifically. Option (b) again talks about “biodiversity” but limbs being used for different purpose is not biodiversity! Option (c) sound correct, but is not, as “coincidence in evolution” is not explicitly mentioned. Option (d) is best as “a shared evolutionary history” makes it a “very curious situation”.

QUESTION: 80

Passage - 7
Around 56 million years ago, the Atlantic Ocean had not fully opened and animals, perhaps including our primate ancestors, could walk from Asia to North America through Europe and across Greenland. Earth was warmer than it is today, but as the Palaeocene epoch gave way to Eocene, it was about to get much warmer still — rapidly and radically. The cause was a massive geologically sudden release of carbon. During this period called Palaeocene - Eocene Thermal Maximum or PETM, the carbon injected into the atmosphere was roughly the amount that Would be injected today if humans burned all the Earth's reserves of coal, oil and natural gas. The PETM lasted for about 1,50,000 years, until the excess carbon was reabsorbed. It brought on drought, floods, insect plagues and a few extinctions. Life on Earth survived — indeed, it prospered — but it was drastically different. 

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Global warming has a bearing on the planet's biological evolution.
2. Separation of land masses causes the release of huge quantities of carbon into the atmosphere.
3. Increased warming of Earth's atmosphere can change the composition of its flora and fauna.
4. The present man-made global warming will finally lead to conditions similar to those which happened 56 million years ago.
​Q. Which of the assumptions given above are valid?

Solution:

Assumption 1 is clearly valid. Assumption 2 is too far-fetched, and cannot be deduced. Assumption 3 is valid as clearly stated. Assumption 4 again is too far-fetched as the amounts involved are too high.