Daily Current Affairs MCQ - January 28, 2022 - CLAT MCQ

Subsidiary Alliance

• In 1798, it was introduced by Wellesley in India, the ruler of the allying Indian state was compelled to pay a subsidy for the maintenance of the British army in return for getting protection from the British against their enemies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Those native princes or rulers who would enter into the Subsidiary Alliance were not free to declare war against any other power or enter into negotiations without the con­sent of the British.
• The Subsidiary Alliance was a policy of non-interference in the internal affairs of the allied state, but this was a promise seldom kept by the British. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The payment of the arbitrarily-fixed and artificially-bloated subsidy invariably disrupted the economy of the state and impoverished its people.
• On the other hand, the British could now maintain a large army at the cost of the Indian states.
  • They controlled the defense and foreign relations of the protected ally, and had a powerful force stationed at the very heart of his lands.
• Lord Wellesley signed his first Subsidiary Treaty with the Nizam of Hyderabad in 1798. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • The Nawab of Avadh was forced to sign a Subsidiary Treaty in 1801.
  • Peshwa Baji Rao II (Maratha) signed the Subsidiary Treaty at Bassein in 1802.

• Western Disturbance (WD), labeled as an extra-tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean, is an area of low pressure that brings sudden showers, snow and fog in northwest India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The disturbance travels from the “western” to the eastern direction.
  • These travel eastwards on high-altitude westerly jet streams - massive ribbons of fast winds traversing the earth from west to east.
• Western Disturbances are the cause of the most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall across North-West India. This phenomenon is usually associated with a cloudy sky, higher night temperatures, and unusual rain. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • It is estimated that India gets close to 5-10% of its total annual rainfall from western disturbances

• About:
  • The bad bank is an ARC or an Asset Management Company (AMC) that takes over the bad loans of commercial banks, manages them and finally recovers the money over a period of time.
  • The bad bank is not involved in lending and taking deposits, but helps commercial banks clean up their balance sheets and resolve bad loans. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The takeover of bad loans is normally below the book value of the loan and the bad bank tries to recover as much as possible subsequently. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Effect of Bad Bank:
  • Commercial Banks’ Perspective: Commercial banks are saddled with high NPA (Non-Performing Assets/loans) levels, setting up of the Bad bank will help.
    • That’s because such a bank will get rid of all its toxic assets, which were reducing its profits, in one quick move.
    • When the recovery money is paid back, it will further improve the bank’s position. Meanwhile, it can start lending again.
  • Government and Taxpayer Perspective: Whether it is recapitalising PSBs laden with bad loans or giving guarantees for security receipts, the money is coming from the taxpayers’ pocket.
    • While recapitalisation and such guarantees are often designated as “reforms”, they are band aids at best.
    • The only sustainable solution is to improve the lending operation in PSBs.
    • The plan of bailing out commercial banks will collapse if the bad bank is unable to sell such impaired assets in the market. The burden indeed will fall upon the taxpayer.

29 Children have been conferred the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar this Year, selected from all regions of the country for their exceptional achievements in Innovation (7), Social Service (4), Scholastic (1), Sports (8), Art & Culture (6) and Bravery (3) categories.

• There are 15 Boys and 14 Girls among the awardees belonging to 21 States and UTs.
• The cash prize of Rs.1,00,000/- was given to the awardees of PMRBP 2022.
• The award is given by Ministry of Women and Child Development every year to recognize exceptional achievements of our children in various fields i.e., innovation, scholastic achievements, social service, arts & culture, sports and bravery.

Block Chain Technology

• During the function, PM Modi gave digital certificates to the 61 winners of PMRBP 2021 and 2022 using a Block Chain-driven technology developed by IIT Kanpur under the National Blockchain Project.
• The digital certificates are stored on digital wallets installed on the mobile devices of the recipients.
• The digital certificates issued using the blockchain driven technology are unforgeable, globally verifiable, selectively disclosable and sensitive to user content.
• Block Chain Technology is being used for the first time for giving certificates to the awardees.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Delhi University (DU) on Friday released a draft Undergraduate Curriculum Framework 22 (UGCF-2022) keeping in line with the National Education Policy (NEP) and has invited feedback on it from stakeholders till January 30. The new UG curriculum will come into force from next year when the university shifts to a four-year undergraduate programme (FYUP).

• The UGCF provides the curriculum framework that will be adopted in the 2022-23 academic session when DU shifts to an FYUP. This, however, does not include the syllabi for courses, which is prepared independently.
• The UGCF is an attempt to include two of the most talked about features of the NEP – multi-disciplinarity and multiple exit points (leaving the course at the end of each year with a different degree).
• As of now, DU follows the Choice Based Credit System, according to which there are a total of 148 credits for a three-year Honours programme, and 132 credits for a Programme course – which is a course in which a combination of subjects is taught, as opposed to the focus being on one main subject in Honours courses.
• Hence both statements are correct.

The Minister of State for Steel reviewed the performance of Manganese Ore (India) Limited (MOIL), a schedule ‘A’ CPSE under Ministry of Steel and understood the future plans of MOIL at Balaghat.

• MOIL is a Schedule “A” Miniratna Category-I Company. It was originally incorporated as Manganese Ore (India) Limited in the year 1962. Subsequently, name of the Company was changed from Manganese Ore (India) Limited to MOIL Limited during the financial year 2010-11.
• It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Steel.
• It is headquartered in Nagpur, Maharashtra.
• At present, MOIL operates 11 mines, seven located in the Nagpur and Bhandara districts of Maharashtra and four in the Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh. The Balaghat Mine is the largest mine of the Company.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare digitally launched the revamped CGHS (Central Government Health Scheme) website (www.cghs.gov.in) and mobile app, “MyCGHS”.

• The Website has been developed in accordance with GIGW (Guidelines for Indian Government Websites). These standards and guidelines make the website 3U compliant i.e., Usable, User-Centric and Universally Accessible.
• As mandated by the GIGW, the site has been made Bilingual (Hindi and English) with provision to make it multi-lingual in future.
• There is a direct link to the eSanjeevani Teleconsultation facility through the CGHS website.
• The Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) is the nodal healthcare provider to Central Government employees, pensioners and certain other category of beneficiaries and their dependents enrolled under the scheme.
• It caters to the healthcare needs of eligible beneficiaries covering all four pillars of democratic set up in India namely Legislature, Judiciary, Executive and Press and is unique of its kind due to the large volume of its beneficiary base and pan India presence providing healthcare through allopathic as well as indigenous systems of medicine.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, in association with ICEA, released a 5-year roadmap and Vision Document for the electronics sector, titled “$300 bn Sustainable Electronics Manufacturing & Exports by 2026.”

• This roadmap is the second volume of a two-part Vision Document – the first of which titled “Increasing India’s Electronics Exports and Share in GVCs” was released in November 2021.
• This report provides a year-wise break-up and production projections for the various products that will lead India’s transformation into a US$300 billion electronics manufacturing powerhouse, from the current US$75 billion.
• Amongst the key products that are expected to lead India’s growth in electronics manufacturing include Mobile Phones, IT Hardware (laptops, tablets), Consumer electronics (TV and audio), Industrial electronics, Auto electronics, Electronic components, LED Lighting, Strategic electronics, PCBA, Wearables and hearables, and Telecom equipment (see chart).
• Mobile manufacturing that is expected to cross US$100 billion annual production - up from the current US$30 billion - is expected to constitute nearly 40% of this ambitious growth.
• The domestic market is expected to increase from US$65 billion to US$180 billion over the next 5 years. This will make electronics amongst India’s 2-3 top ranking exports by 2026.
• Of the US$300 billion, exports are expected to increase from the projected US$15 billion in 2021-22 to US$120 billion by 2026.
• The five-part strategy to reach the US$300 billion goal, based on an “all of the government” approach, sharply focuses on broadening and deepening electronics manufacturing in India.

PLI Schemes

• The US$300 billion electronics manufacturing comes on the back of US$10 billion PLI Scheme announced by the government to propel forward the Semiconductor and Display ecosystem.
• The government has committed nearly US$17 billion over the next 6 years across four PLI Schemes – Semiconductor and Design, Smartphones, IT Hardware and Components.
• Hence both statements are correct.

The Supreme Court asked 6,000-odd NGOs to go back to the government for redressal of their grievances on non-renewal of their Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) registration.

• The FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 in an atmosphere of apprehension that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping in funds through independent organisations. These concerns had been expressed in Parliament as early as in 1969.
• The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic”.
• An amended FCRA was enacted under the UPA government in 2010 to “consolidate the law” on utilisation of foreign funds, and “to prohibit” their use for “any activities detrimental to national interest”.
• The law was amended again by the current government in 2020, giving the government tighter control and scrutiny over the receipt and utilisation of foreign funds by NGOs.
• Broadly, the FCRA requires every person or NGO wishing to receive foreign donations to be registered under the Act, to open a bank account for the receipt of the foreign funds in State Bank of India, Delhi, and to utilise those funds only for the purpose for which they have been received and as stipulated in the Act.
• They are also required to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO.
• The Act prohibits receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations of a political nature.
• Hence both statements are correct.

A joint maritime exercise Paschim Lehar (XPL-2022) conducted by the Indian Navy off the West Coast was concluded on 25 January 2022.

• The exercise was conducted over a duration of 20 days with an objective to validate operational plans of the Western Naval Command and enhance Inter-Service synergy among the Indian Navy, IAF, Indian Army and Coast Guard.
• The exercise was conducted under the aegis of FOC-in-C, Western Naval Command.
• The intra-theatre exercise included mobilisation and participation of over 40 ships and submarines of the Indian Navy.
• Hence both statements are correct.