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SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Bank Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test Series 2024 - SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 for Bank Exams 2024 is part of SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Bank Exams exam syllabus.The SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 MCQs are made for Bank Exams 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 below.
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SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

Study the following arrangement to answer the given questions 456 789 145 392 140 653 806

Q.

If an odd number of the first letter is increased by 1 and even number of the first letter is decreased by 1 then what will be the second digit of the second highest number ?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

456 789 145 392 140 653 806

If an odd number of the first letter is increased by 1 and even number of the first letter is decreased by 1 then

356 889 245 492 240 553 706

second highest number is 706

it's second digit is 0

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

If X + Y means X is the daughter of Y; X - Y means X is the brother of Y; X % Y means X is the father of Y and X x Y means X is the sister of Y. Which of the following means I is the niece of J?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

I x C → I is the sister of C

C + N → C is the daughter of N

and N - J → N is the brother of I.

Hence, I is niece of J.

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SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

Narendra starts his scooter from his house to a grocery store. He goes 3 km North, turns East and goes 3 km. He then turns South and goes 2 km. He then, turns East and goes 4 km more. Finally, he turns South and goes 6 km and reaches the grocery store, after which he stops.

In which direction is Narendra with respect to his starting point?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

So, Narendra is in Southeast direction to his house.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 4
  • A is the sister of B.
  • B is the brother of C,
  • C is the son of D.

How is D related to A?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 4
  • B is the brother of C.
  • C is the son of D.
  • A is the sister of B and C

Thus, D is either father or mother of A, B and C.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 5
  1. A is father of X;
  2. B is mother of Y.
  3. The sister of X and Z is Y.

Which of the following statements is definitely not true?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

A is the father of X and Y is the sister of X So, Y is the daughter of A.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below it:
A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight.
(i) A weights twice as much as B.
(ii) B weights four and a half times as much as C.
(iii) C weights half as much as D.
(iv) D weights half as much as E.
(v) E weights less than A but more than C.

Q. E is lighter in weight than which of the other two articles?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

E is lighter in weight than A and B.
We are given several clues about the weight of the five iron articles. Let's break them down:
Weight Relationships:

  • A weighs twice as much as B. So, A > B.
  • B weighs four and a half times as much as C. So, B > C.
  • C weighs half as much as D. So, D > C.
  • D weighs half as much as E. So, E > D.
  • E weighs less than A but more than C. So, A > E > C.

From these relationships, we can determine that A is the heaviest, followed by E, then B, then D, and finally C.
Question:E is lighter in weight than which of the other two articles?
From our weight relationships, we can see that E is lighter than A and B. So, the answer is A: A, B.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

Directions: A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: Fable 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Able 82 Gamble 65
Step1:82 Fable 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Gamble 65 Able
Step2:Fable 82 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Gamble Able 65
Step3:76 Fable 82 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Able 65 Gamble
Step4:Quibble 76 Fable 82 Terrible 54 Able 65 Gamble 24
Step5:54 Quibble 76 Fable 82 Able 65 Gamble 24 Terrible

Step 5 is the final output.
Find the different steps of output using the above mentioned logic for the following input.
Input: Scientific 29 Majaestic 34 Fantastic 58 Hectic 77 Genetic 84

Q. What is the position of '58' in step 1?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

From the following output it is clear that '58' is fifth from the right end in step 1.
Step1:29 Scientific Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 77 Genetic 84 Hectic
Hence option D is correct.

Final Output:
Input: Scientific 29 Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 Hectic 77 Genetic 84
Step1: 29 Scientific Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 77 Genetic 84 Hectic
Step2: Genetic 29 Scientific Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 77 Hectic 84 
Step3: 58 Genetic 29 Scientific 34 Fantastic 77 Hectic 84 Majestic
Step4: Fantastic 58 Genetic 29 Scientific 34 Hectic 84 Majestic 77
Step5: 34 Fantastic 58 Genetic 29 Hectic 84 Majestic 77 Scientific

Common Explanation:
Change in Number: Change in numbers take place as per the ascending order of the sum of the digits until a single digit is obtained. The numbers are placed at alternate extreme ends starting from the extreme left end.
Change in Word: Change in words take place as per the ascending order of the number of letters in each word. The words are placed at alternate extreme ends starting from the extreme right end.
Note: Changes in word and number take place simultaneously in each step.

The given pattern:
Input: Fable 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Able 82 Gamble 65
Step1: 82 Fable 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Gamble 65 Able
Step2: Fable 82 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Gamble Able 65
Step3: 76 Fable 82 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Able 65 Gamble
Step4: Quibble 76 Fable 82 Terrible 54 Able 65 Gamble 24
Step5: 54 Quibble 76 Fable 82 Able 65 Gamble 24 Terrible

The solution to the given input:
Input: Scientific 29 Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 Hectic 77 Genetic 84
Step1: 29 Scientific Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 77 Genetic 84 Hectic
Step2: Genetic 29 Scientific Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 77 Hectic 84 
Step3: 58 Genetic 29 Scientific 34 Fantastic 77 Hectic 84 Majestic
Step4: Fantastic 58 Genetic 29 Scientific 34 Hectic 84 Majestic 77
Step5:34 Fantastic 58 Genetic 29 Hectic 84 Majestic 77 Scientific

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip was reduced by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. What is the duration of the flight ?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

option "D"

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

(√3 + 1)² = ? + √12

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

(√3 + 1)² = ? + √12
3 + 2√3 + 1 = ? + 2√3 = 4

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Semester fees (In Rs. thousands) for five Different Courses in 6 different years.

Q. What was the average semester fee charged for M. Sc. course over all the years together?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

Average semester fee for M. Sc. course over the give years.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Semester fees (In Rs. thousands) for five Different Courses in 6 different years.

Q. What was the difference between the total semester fee charged for diploma course over the years together and the fee charged for B. Tech Course in the year 2009?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

Required difference
= Rs. {(1.8 + 3.2 + 4.8 + 5.6 + 12.5 + 14.9) × 1000 - (35.8 × 1000)}
= Rs. {(42.8 × 1000) - (35.8 × 1000)}
= Rs. (7 × 1000)
= Rs. 7000

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

Directions: Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.
In the bar chart, the total numbers of students enrolled in different years from 2015 to 2019 in Sunshine and Aryan Summer camps are given.

Q. What is the ratio between total students in 2016 to the total students in 2019 of both summer camps?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

In 2016, total students in both camps = 60 + 210 = 270
In 2019, total students in both camps = 70 + 150 = 220
Required ratio = 27 : 22
Hence, option B is correct.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

Directions: Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.
In the bar chart, the total numbers of students enrolled in different years from 2015 to 2019 in Sunshine and Aryan Summer camps are given.

Q. The number of students of Sunshine in 2015 is what percentage of the number of students of Aryan in 2017?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

In 2015, the number of students in Sunshine = 170
In 2017, the number of students in Aryan = 160


Hence, option C is correct.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

Directions: Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.
In the bar chart, the total numbers of students enrolled in different years from 2015 to 2019 in Sunshine and Aryan Summer camps are given.

Q. Total students enrolled in Aryan in 2018 and 2019 together is what percentage more than students enrolled in Sunshine in 2015 and 2019 together?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

Total students enrolled in Aryan in 2018 and 2019 together = 240 + 150 = 390
Total students enrolled in Sunshine in 2015 and 2019 together = 170 + 70 = 240

Hence, option E is correct.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

without the other's coming too

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

Because memory weakens with age, for the experiment to be valid, it is importantthat a group to be tested for drug induced memory loss be compared with acontrol group.

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

Group is a collective noun and therefore requires a singular verb. Consequently, choices B, D and E can be eliminated right away. Using the word should is incorrect. The subjunctive, as seen in option A, is necessary after the construction ‘it is important that...’. Choice A is the right answer

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

Directions: The following question consists of jumbled up sentences, which when logically arranged, form a meaningful paragraph. Select the option presenting the proper sequencing of these statements.

A. Economic, trade or market forces have beneficial influence in terms of developing our 'core competencies'.
B. Globalisation brings the influence of external forces into our society.
C. Competition, both internally and with global players, would make the country efficient and strong.
D. The implication of subservience to another power remains abhorrent in today's economic era.

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

There are two topic statements: D and C. But if we study carefully, statement D is the most general statement out of the four given statements and it gives the central idea of the para jumble. So, it should be the 1st statement of the para jumble. The words 'another power' in D have a direct link with the words 'external forces' of statement B. So, D $%5Crightarrow$ B. C concludes the paragraph on a positive note as it ('make the country efficient and strong') elaborates the 'beneficial influence' mentioned in A. So, the correct sequence is: DBAC.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

Directions: In the following question, four statements are provided. These statements form a coherent paragraph when properly arranged. Select the alternative representing the proper and logical sequencing of these statements.

(A) Gone were the days of state control and 'permit or license raj'.
(B) It was around the time when the Soviet Empire collapsed in 1991, India's then Finance Minister launched economic liberalisation.
(C) Globalisation became the new mantra around the world and no nation could afford to remain detached from these winds of change.
(D) While dealing a deadly blow to the machinery of red tape, globalisation or liberalisation encouraged private initiative in the economic development.

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

The fall of the Soviet Empire is given as a reference of time, as if to tell a story. Statements (A), (C) and (D) all tell us what happened around this time. So, in any sequence, (A), (C) and (D) should succeed statement (B). 'A deadly blow to the machinery of red tape' in D should logically follow 'gone were the days of state control' in A. Only one option gives this sequence ('B - A - D'), with B starting the sequence.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The deadline for the completion of the resolution process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 for the first set of cases taken up has neared or even passed. The IBC provides for a time limit of 180 days (extendable by 90 days) once a case of default is brought  and If no resolution plan drawn up under the supervision of a resolution professional can be agreed upon, liquidation must follow to recover whatever sums are possible. While the NCLT has considered a number of cases since its constitution, its role assumed importance when, on 13 June 2017, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandated proceedings against 12 large defaulters, holding accounts with outstanding amounts of more than Rs 5,000 crore, of which at least 60% had been classified as non-performing as of 31 March 2016. These bad loans accounted for around 25% of the non-performing assets (NPAs) recognised at that time.

In most cases, the estimated value of assets on liquidation is low, and does not capture the true value of the company. Put simply, the aggregate of the individual value of a set of stripped assets tends to be much lower than the value of those assets when combined for production. So, if the IBC process and the intervention of the NCLT lead, through bidding, to an offer of a takeover by a third party which is acceptable to the creditors, the recovery against bad loans technically written off by financial creditors would be much higher. Since this was to occur in a time-bound fashion, it seemed to be a significant initiative to address the NPA problem in the banking system. The IBC was combined with legislative amendments that strengthened the powers of the RBI to order the launch of proceedings to recover the loans gone bad. These measures, it was argued, through enforced resolution or liquidation if necessary, offered a way in which the abysmal record of recovery could be corrected and the pressure on the government to bail out banks with taxpayers’ money could be reduced. In the case of 11 public sector banks out of a total of 21, of the loans technically written-off between April 2014 and December 2017, recovery rates varied from nil to just above 20%, and in the case of another three, the rate ranged between 23% and 29%. The average recovery rate for all 21 banks was a pathetic 10.8%. By facilitating and accelerating the recovery effort, the IBC process was expected to raise the rate significantly.

The context in which this new strategy was launched needs recalling. Unlike the period prior to the 1990s, the NPAs that accumulated in the books of banks in recent years were not equitably distributed across different categories of borrowers, big and small, priority and non-priority. Rather, because of a change in the lending strategy during the period of the credit boom after 2003, the NPAs are now concentrated in the hands of large borrowers, primarily corporate borrowers.

The initial experience with the first phase of this multistep process involving the recognition, technical write-off and provisioning, and recovery of NPAs, is revealing for a number of reasons. First, in cases where the assets on offer were of special interest to particular bidders, the rates of recovery have been rather high. This was true of the acquisition of Bhushan Steel by Tata Steel and of Electro­steel by Vedanta. Bhushan Steel owed its financial creditors around Rs 56,000 crore, whereas the Tata Steel bid returned Rs 35,200 crore upfront to the financial creditors, besides giving them a 12.3% stake in the company in lieu of returning the remaining debt. That was substantial relative to the estimated ­liquidation value of Rs 15,000 crore to Rs 20,000 crore, and far better than the average 10% recovery rate reported on aggregate write-offs in the recent past. The Tatas clearly had a special interest in the deal since its valuation of the company was far higher than that of JSW Group, the other keen bidder. The latter offered the creditors only Rs 29,700 crore.

The evidence that the assets were valuable despite the defaults emerged also from the battle between bidders who were often taken to the courts. Essar Steel, one of the largest defaulters with around Rs 44,000 crore in questionable debt, when put up for sale, elicited expressions of interest from five bidders. Interestingly, besides Tata Steel, Arcelor Mittal, Vedanta, Sumitomo, and Steel Authority of India, the interested parties include the Ruias, who are the original promoters of Essar Steel.

This effort of the defaulting promoters to regain control of the companies concerned at a discount did muddy the water. The original IBC bill did not prevent promoters from making bids for resolution at the NCLT. Some justified the Ruia bid on the grounds that extraneous factors may have led to distress for no fault of the original promoters. But, if the Committee of Creditors (CoC) has taken the firm to the NCLT, it is clearly because they saw the incumbent management as incapable of resolving the crisis faced by the firm. And, if promoters regain control, much of the debt their company owes will be forgiven, with the losses being carried by the financial and operational creditors. Recognising the travesty involved, the government was forced to amend the IBC bill to prohibit promoters from bidding under the NCLT process.

Q. What is/are the main difference between the NPAs today and the NPAs of 1990s?
I. The NPAs are equally distributed across priority and non-priority sectors today than in 1990s.
II. The NPAs today are concentrated among large corporate borrowers.
III. The NPAs today are more prevalent in Public Sector Banks while in the 1990s they were concentrated in both private and public sector banks. 

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

Refer to: ‘The context in which this new strategy was launched needs recalling. Unlike the period prior to the 1990s, the NPAs that accumulated in the books of banks in recent years were not equitably distributed across different categories of borrowers, big and small, priority and non-priority. Rather, because of a change in the lending strategy during the period of the credit boom after 2003, the NPAs are now concentrated in the hands of large borrowers, primarily corporate borrowers.’

I is opposite of what has been stated in the passage.
II is correct.
III has not been mentioned in the passage and is incorrect.

Hence, option D is correct.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The deadline for the completion of the resolution process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 for the first set of cases taken up has neared or even passed. The IBC provides for a time limit of 180 days (extendable by 90 days) once a case of default is brought  and If no resolution plan drawn up under the supervision of a resolution professional can be agreed upon, liquidation must follow to recover whatever sums are possible. While the NCLT has considered a number of cases since its constitution, its role assumed importance when, on 13 June 2017, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandated proceedings against 12 large defaulters, holding accounts with outstanding amounts of more than Rs 5,000 crore, of which at least 60% had been classified as non-performing as of 31 March 2016. These bad loans accounted for around 25% of the non-performing assets (NPAs) recognised at that time.

In most cases, the estimated value of assets on liquidation is low, and does not capture the true value of the company. Put simply, the aggregate of the individual value of a set of stripped assets tends to be much lower than the value of those assets when combined for production. So, if the IBC process and the intervention of the NCLT lead, through bidding, to an offer of a takeover by a third party which is acceptable to the creditors, the recovery against bad loans technically written off by financial creditors would be much higher. Since this was to occur in a time-bound fashion, it seemed to be a significant initiative to address the NPA problem in the banking system. The IBC was combined with legislative amendments that strengthened the powers of the RBI to order the launch of proceedings to recover the loans gone bad. These measures, it was argued, through enforced resolution or liquidation if necessary, offered a way in which the abysmal record of recovery could be corrected and the pressure on the government to bail out banks with taxpayers’ money could be reduced. In the case of 11 public sector banks out of a total of 21, of the loans technically written-off between April 2014 and December 2017, recovery rates varied from nil to just above 20%, and in the case of another three, the rate ranged between 23% and 29%. The average recovery rate for all 21 banks was a pathetic 10.8%. By facilitating and accelerating the recovery effort, the IBC process was expected to raise the rate significantly.

The context in which this new strategy was launched needs recalling. Unlike the period prior to the 1990s, the NPAs that accumulated in the books of banks in recent years were not equitably distributed across different categories of borrowers, big and small, priority and non-priority. Rather, because of a change in the lending strategy during the period of the credit boom after 2003, the NPAs are now concentrated in the hands of large borrowers, primarily corporate borrowers.

The initial experience with the first phase of this multistep process involving the recognition, technical write-off and provisioning, and recovery of NPAs, is revealing for a number of reasons. First, in cases where the assets on offer were of special interest to particular bidders, the rates of recovery have been rather high. This was true of the acquisition of Bhushan Steel by Tata Steel and of Electro­steel by Vedanta. Bhushan Steel owed its financial creditors around Rs 56,000 crore, whereas the Tata Steel bid returned Rs 35,200 crore upfront to the financial creditors, besides giving them a 12.3% stake in the company in lieu of returning the remaining debt. That was substantial relative to the estimated ­liquidation value of Rs 15,000 crore to Rs 20,000 crore, and far better than the average 10% recovery rate reported on aggregate write-offs in the recent past. The Tatas clearly had a special interest in the deal since its valuation of the company was far higher than that of JSW Group, the other keen bidder. The latter offered the creditors only Rs 29,700 crore.

The evidence that the assets were valuable despite the defaults emerged also from the battle between bidders who were often taken to the courts. Essar Steel, one of the largest defaulters with around Rs 44,000 crore in questionable debt, when put up for sale, elicited expressions of interest from five bidders. Interestingly, besides Tata Steel, Arcelor Mittal, Vedanta, Sumitomo, and Steel Authority of India, the interested parties include the Ruias, who are the original promoters of Essar Steel.

This effort of the defaulting promoters to regain control of the companies concerned at a discount did muddy the water. The original IBC bill did not prevent promoters from making bids for resolution at the NCLT. Some justified the Ruia bid on the grounds that extraneous factors may have led to distress for no fault of the original promoters. But, if the Committee of Creditors (CoC) has taken the firm to the NCLT, it is clearly because they saw the incumbent management as incapable of resolving the crisis faced by the firm. And, if promoters regain control, much of the debt their company owes will be forgiven, with the losses being carried by the financial and operational creditors. Recognising the travesty involved, the government was forced to amend the IBC bill to prohibit promoters from bidding under the NCLT process.

Q. What was the experience of the IBC process for companies which were of special interest to bidders?
I. The rate of recovery was much better than the average recovery rate.
II. Competition between bidders to take over the defaulting company.
III. The liquidation value of the assets would have been higher than the recovered value.

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

Refer to:
the rates of recovery have been rather high. This was true of the acquisition of Bhushan Steel by Tata Steel and of Electro­steel by Vedanta. Bhushan Steel owed its financial creditors around Rs 56,000 crore, whereas the Tata Steel bid returned Rs 35,200 crore upfront to the financial creditors, besides giving them a 12.3% stake in the company in lieu of returning the remaining debt. That was substantial relative to the estimated ­liquidation value of Rs 15,000 crore to Rs 20,000 crore, and far better than the average 10% recovery rate reported on aggregate write-offs in the recent past.’

‘The evidence that the assets were valuable despite the defaults emerged also from the battle between bidders who were often taken to the courts.’

I and II are correct.
III is opposite of the correct answer and is incorrect.

Hence, option C is correct.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Development is about expanding the capabilities of the disadvantaged, thereby improving their overall quality of life. Based on this understanding, Maharashtra, one of India’s richest States, is a classic case of a lack of development which is seen in its unacceptably high level of malnutrition among children in the tribal belts. While the State’s per capita income has doubled since 2004, its nutritional status has not made commensurate progress.

Poor nutrition security disproportionately affects the poorest segment of the population. According to NFHS 2015-16, every second tribal child suffers from growth restricting malnutrition due to chronic hunger. In 2005, child malnutrition claimed as many as 718 lives in Maharashtra’s Palghar district alone. Even after a decade of double digit economic growth (2004-05 to 2014-15), Palghar’s malnutrition status has barely improved.

In September 2016, the National Human Rights Commission issued notice to the Maharashtra government over reports of 600 children dying due to malnutrition in Palghar. The government responded, promising to properly implement schemes such as Jaccha Baccha and Integrated Child Development Services to check malnutrition. Our independent survey conducted in Vikramgad block of the district last year found that 57%, 21% and 53% of children in this block were stunted, wasted and underweight, respectively; 27% were severely stunted. Our data challenges what Maharashtra’s Women and Child Development Minister said in the Legislative Council in March — that “malnutrition in Palghar had come down in the past few months, owing to various interventions made by the government.”

Stunting is caused by an insufficient intake of macro- and micro-nutrients. It is generally accepted that recovery from growth retardation after two years is only possible if the affected child is put on a diet that is adequate in nutrient requirements. A critical aspect of nutrient adequacy is diet diversity, calculated by different groupings of foods consumed with the reference period ranging from one to 15 days. We calculated a 24-hour dietary diversity score by counting the number of food groups the child received in the last 24 hours. The eight food groups include: cereals, roots and tubers; legumes and nuts; dairy products; flesh foods; eggs; fish; dark green leafy vegetables; and other fruits and vegetables.

In most households it was rice and dal which was cooked most often and eaten thrice a day. These were even served at teatime to the children if they felt hungry. There was no milk, milk product or fruit in their daily diets. Even the adults drank black tea as milk was unaffordable. Only 17% of the children achieved a minimum level of diet diversity — they received four or more of the eight food groups. This low dietary diversity is a proxy indicator for the household’s food security too as the children ate the same food cooked for adult members.

Q. As per the passage, which of the following is/are needed for an adequate meal?
I. Macro and micro nutrients
II. Multiple food groups
III. High level of  Intermittent fasting

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

Refer to:
‘Stunting is caused by an insufficient intake of macro- and micro-nutrients. It is generally accepted that recovery from growth retardation after two years is only possible if the affected child is put on a diet that is adequate in nutrient requirements. A critical aspect of nutrient adequacy is diet diversity, calculated by different groupings of foods consumed with the reference period ranging from one to 15 days.’

As per the highlighted points, I and II are correct while III has not been mentioned in the passage.

Hence, option C is correct.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Directions: Out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

A person who has no money to pay off his debts

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Insolvent refers to a person or entity that is unable to pay their debts, typically due to a lack of money or resources. It implies a more severe financial situation than simply being poor or destitute.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

Hirakud Dam has been constructed across the river –

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

The Correct Answer is B: Mahanadi

Hirakud Dam: An Overview

  • River: The Hirakud Dam has been constructed across the Mahanadi River.
  • Location: The dam is situated in the state of Odisha, India, near the city of Sambalpur.
  • Purpose: The main purposes of the dam are irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectric power generation.
  • Construction: The construction of Hirakud Dam began in 1948 and was completed in 1957.
  • Significance: It is one of the longest dams in the world, and it was the first major multipurpose river valley project in post-independent India.
SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

Where in the Indian Constitution has “economic justice” been provided as one of the objectives?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

The Directive Principles are an amalgam of diverse subjects embracing the life of the nation and include principles which are general statements of social policy, principles of administrative policy, socioeconomic rights and a statement of the international policy of the country. Articles 41-43A and Article 48 specifically target the working sections of the nation and provide for the betterment of the workers and their living conditions. 

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

British enabled India to be an importer of raw materials and an exporter of finished goods. (Choose the correct alternative)

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

British enabled India to be an exporter of primary products and an importer of finished goods.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

The amount of deposits placed by a non-scheduled Urban Cooperative Bank with any scheduled Urban Cooperative Bank should not exceed _____ of the depositing bank's total deposit liabilities.

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

The amount of deposits placed by a non-scheduled UCB with any scheduled UCB should not exceed 5% of the depositing bank's total deposit liabilities as on March 31 of the previous financial year. The total inter-UCB deposits accepted by a scheduled UCB should not exceed 10% of its total deposit liabilities as on 31st March of the previous financial year.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 27

Call money rate is the rate at which short-term funds are borrowed and lent in the money market overnight. When the money is borrowed or lent for exceeding 14 days to 365 days, then it is called ______________.

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 27

When the money is borrowed or lent for exceeding 14 days to 365 days, then it is called Term Money.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

What are the Advantages of the Automated Teller Machine (ATM)?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

Advantages of ATM:

  1. Offer Financial Inclusion
  2. Offers a wide range of services
  3. Hard cash anywhere at anytime
  4. Continue to operate when businesses close due to natural disasters, health crises, or economic depression
  5. Round the clock services
  6. Access to banks from any part of the world
SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

The appointment of a Banking Ombudsman is made for a period of ________.

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

The appointment of a Banking Ombudsman is made for a period of not exceeding 3 years at a time. He is eligible for reappointment.

SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

How many teams will participate in the 132nd edition of the Durand Cup?

Detailed Solution for SIDBI Assistant Manager Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

The 132nd edition of the Durand Cup will feature the participation of 24 teams. This edition stands out as it includes clubs from not only India but also neighboring countries like Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh. The presence of foreign teams adds to the excitement and promotes cultural exchange through football.

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