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MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - MPTET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2

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MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द 'पति' का पर्यायवाची है?

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

दिए गए विकल्पों में से "भर्ता" शब्द 'पति' का पर्यायवाची है।

पति के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - स्वामी, प्राणाधार, प्राणप्रिय, प्राणेश, आर्यपुत्र, दूल्हा, वल्लभ, भर्तार, सुहाग, सौहर, साजन, बालम, वर।

अन्य विकल्प:

  • विधाता के पर्यायवाची शब्द - ब्रह्मा, विधि, सृष्टिकर्त्ता।
  • विभु के पर्यायवाची शब्द - सर्वव्यापक, नित्य, अनन्त, अजन्मा।
  • भार्या के पर्यायवाची शब्द - प्रिया , अंगना , पत्नी , प्रणयिनी , प्रेमिका , स्त्री , वामा।

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु

पर्यायवाची शब्द:

सामान्य अर्थ में ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

पर्यायवाची शब्द के कुछ उदाहरण :

  • अतिथि- मेहमान ,पाहुन ,आगंतुक, अभ्यागत।
  • इज्जत– मान, प्रतिष्ठा, आदर, आबरू।
  • उपहास– परिहास, मजाक, खिल्ली।
  • एकांत – निर्जन सुनसान शून्य।
  • औषधि- दवा, दवाई, भेषज।
  • किरण- अंशु, रश्मि, कला, कर, गो, प्रभा, दीधिति, मयूख, मरीचि।
  • कंठ- गला, शिरोधरा, ग्रीवा, गर्दन।
  • गाय- भद्रा, गौरी, सुरभी, धेनु, गऊ, गौ,गैया, पयसि्वनी,दोग्धी।
  • घी- हव्य, अमृतसार, क्षीरसार, आज्य।
  • चर्म- खाल, चमड़ी, त्वचा, त्वक्।
  • छाछ- गोरस, मठा, दधि स्वेद, मट्ठा।
  • झंडा- पताका, केतु, निसान, ध्वज, केतन, वैजयंती।
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

निम्नलिखित में से सही विलोम शब्द-युग्म कौन सा है?

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

सही उत्तर 'संश्लिष्ट - विश्लिष्ट' है।

  • दिए गए विकल्पों में से, 'संश्लिष्ट - विश्लिष्ट' परस्पर विलोम शब्द है।
  • संश्लिष्ट का अर्थ: जुड़ा हुआ।
  • विश्लिष्ट का अर्थ: अलग किया हुआ।

स्पष्टीकरण
अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

अन्यसंबंधित बिंदु

  • विलोमार्थक शब्द/ विलोम: 'विलोम’ शब्द का अर्थ है- उल्टा या विपरीत।
  • अत: किसी शब्द का उल्टा अर्थ व्यक्त करने वाला शब्द विलोमार्थक शब्द कहलाता है।
  • विलोमार्थक शब्दों को विपर्यायवाची, प्रतिलोमार्थक और विलोम शब्द भी कहते हैं।
  • कुछ महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द:-

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

'अपना उल्लू सीधा करना' मुहावरे का अर्थ निम्न विकल्पों में से कौन सा है?

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

दिए गए विकल्पों में से अपना उल्लू सीधा करना' मुहावरे का अर्थ - अपना काम निकालना।
वाक्य प्रयोग: अपना उल्लू सीधा करने के लिए लोग अपने मित्रों को भी धोखा देने से नहीं चूकते।
स्पष्टीकरण
मुहावरे की परिभाषा:
मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्य होता है जो वाक्य की रचना करने पर अपना एक अलग अर्थ या विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करता है।
इनका प्रयोग करने से भाषा,आकर्षक, प्रभावपूर्ण तथा रोचक बन जाती है।
अन्यसंबंधित बिंदु

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Where is the the Gupta Vishnu Temple located in Jabalpur district?

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

The correct answer is Tigwa.

ExplanationTigwa -

  • The Kankali Devi Temple is most notable and is a Gupta period temple.
  • It is one of the oldest surviving Hindu temples.
  • Ancient Kankali Devi Temple is in good condition and is usually dated to about 400-425 CE.
  • The formative stages of Hindu temple architecture and the essential elements found in the north Indian style through the modern era.
  • It has a sanctum and an open portico supported on four pillars.
  • The sides of the portico were filled in with walls containing panels at a later period.
  • The Kankali Devi Temple has reliefs showing Vishnu and is generally considered to have been dedicated to Vishnu of Vaishnavism.
  • Narasimha, the man-lion avatar of Vishnu, is placed inside the sanctum.
  • The portico has an image of the Sheshashai Vishnu (Narayana).
  • Another shows Varaha, the man-boar avatar of Vishnu.

Other Related Points

  • Nachna-Kuthara -
    • Nachna Hindu temples, also referred to as Nachana temples or Hindu temples at Nachna-Kuthara, in Panna district, Madhya Pradesh.
    • India is some of the earliest surviving stone temples in central India along with those at Bhumara and Deogarh.
  • Satna -
    • Bhumara Temple, sometimes called Bhumra, Bhubhara or Bharkuleswar, is a 5th or 6th-century Gupta era Hindu stone temple site dedicated to Shiva near Satna, in the Indian state Madhya Pradesh.
    • The temple has a square plan with a sanctum and Mandapa.
  • Deogarh -
    • From the 6th century CE, Gupta temples were built on a platform and a good example is the Dashavatara temple at Deogarh in Madhya Pradesh.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be written in that code?

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

The table shows the place value of the alphabet from A to Z.

The logic followed here is:
FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK

Similarly, CANDLE coded as

Therefore, the code for CANDLE is 'EDRIRL'.
Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 6
Educational Psychology is helpful in:
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

Educational psychology is a branch of modern psychology that is concerned with the learning processes and psychological problems associated with the teaching and training of students. It is the scientific study of human behavior in the educational situation and concerned with the factors, principles, concepts, methods, and techniques which relates to the various aspect of learners' growth and development.

Important Points

Educational psychology has contributed considerably to the creation of a teaching-learning environment. It helps in the following ways:​

  • Educational psychology has contributed considerably to the creation of the modern system of education.
  • It has helped teachers and administrators to develop an impartial and democratic attitude towards learners and helps them into integrated personalities.
  • It helps to know about the learner, in fostering the classroom environment, about individual differences,
  • It helps to identify children with special needs, tackle classroom problems, skills & interest in teaching, effective methods of teaching, the influence of heredity & environment on the child, the mental health of the child, the procedure of curriculum-making, guidance & counseling, assessment & evaluation, in maintaining positive creative discipline, educational psychology & research, in facilitating context, socialization in classroom and professional growth, changing attitude and innovative thinking of teachers. Hence it helps in all-around development.

Hence, we can conclude that it helps in all-around development.

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 7
Inclusion of students with disabilities requires
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Inclusive education essentially refers to the educational philosophy that students with disabilities should be placed in the same classroom environment as other students of their age who do not have special needs.

  • Inclusive education in its real sense is nothing but a process of creating a system of education that caters to the needs of all children.

Key Point In Inclusive education the main objectives are-

  • All the students of different abilities, differences, and disabilities are treated equally.
  • Inclusive education provides barrier-free access for all students.
  • Creating an environment in which the child can learn with diversity, not creating a special environment for learning.
  • Emphasis on their learning to read instead of emphasizing teaching.
  • To use different teaching methods according to the needs of each student, so that every child can have access to the knowledge.
  • Equitable education for all, including challenging, backward, disabled children.
  • So, by all these, we can say that there is no barrier for the student with a disability. they can admit as the same as others. Hence option (4) is the correct answer.

Other Related Points Principles of Inclusive Education:

  • Well constructed educational plan.
  • Use of multilingualism as a resource.
  • Equity and equal opportunities for all.
  • Use of specific pedagogical strategies.
  • Sensitization towards individual differences.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

In cockroach, the organ of taste is -

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Ket Points

  • Cockroaches (Periplaneta americana) are cosmopolitan in distribution.
  • They belong to the class Insecta of the phylum Arthropoda.
  • These are nocturnal, omnivorous, and scavenger insects.

Explanation

  • The mouth parts of cockroach consist of a labrum, a pair of mandibles, a pair of maxillae, a labium and hypopharynx.
  • Hypopharynx is a small and cylindrical median flexible lobe.
  • It lies within the cavity which is enclosed by the mouthparts.
  • Hypopharynx is covered by labrum and labium on dorsal and ventral sides respectively.
  • It acts as tongue and possesses several sensory setae on its free end, and the opening of common salivary duct.
  • Thus it acts as the organ of taste in cockroach.

Hence, the correct option is (2) hypopharynx only.

Other Related Points

  • ​The mouthparts of the cockroach are of biting and chewing type.
  • Labrum is considered as upper lip and labium as lower lip.
  • A pair of mandibles help in the grinding of food.
  • A pair of maxillae hold the food and give the food to the mandibles for mastication.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Cnemial crest is present in

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 9
  • The cnemial crest is a ridge present at the front of the tibia bone in mammals, birds and reptiles.
  • It forms an attachment site for the main extensor thigh muscle.



Other Related Points

  • In human beings, the skeletal system is made up of 206 bones and a few cartilages.
  • It is grouped into two principal divisions – the axial and the appendicular skeleton.

Axial skeleton-

  • The axial skeleton comprises 80 bones distributed along the main axis of the body.
  • The skull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs constitute the axial skeleton.

Appendicular skeleton-

  • The bones of the limbs along with their girdles constitute the appendicular skeleton.
  • Each limb is made of 30 bones. The bones of the hand (forelimb) are the humerus, radius and ulna, carpals (wrist bones – 8 in number), metacarpals (palm bones – 5 in number) and phalanges (digits – 14 in number).
  • The femur (thigh bone – the longest bone), tibia and fibula, tarsals (ankle bones – 7 in number), metatarsals (5 in number) and phalanges (digits – 14 in number) are the bones of the legs (hind limb).
  • A cup-shaped bone called the patella covers the knee ventrally (knee cap).
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

The single-stranded overhanging ends of DNA produced by the restriction endonuclease through offset cuts in the DNA strands are called

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 10
  • Genetic engineering became possible with the discovery of certain enzymes that could provide specific desired fragments of DNA.
  • These are called restriction endonucleases.
  • Nucleases are a group of enzymes that can cut polynucleotides or DNA.
  • These nucleases can be:
    • Exonuclease - These can cut DNA only from the ends (5' or 3'-end).
    • Endonuclease - These can cut within a DNA sequence.
  • The endonucleases that have the ability to cut at a specific site within DNA are known as restriction endonucleases or simply, restriction enzymes.
  • Examples - EcoRI, Hind III.
  • The sites at which they cut are called restriction sites.
  • These enzymes also have a specific recognition sequence which is a palindromic nucleotide sequence.
  • These sequences are base pair sequences that read the same on both the strands of DNA when orientation of reading is same, i.e., either 5' to 3' or 3' to 5'.
  • The action of restriction endonucleases on DNA is known as restriction digestion as it cleaves the DNA.

Important Points

  • Restriction endonucleases cut at the same points on both the strands.
  • They may produce 2 types of fragment ends:
    • Sticky/Cohesive End - It is produced by offset cuts of DNA i.e., not in the middle of the recognition sequence.
    • Blunt End - It is produced when the cut is exactly at the middle of the palindrome sequence.


Explanation:

  • Cohesive ends have an overhanging single-stranded end of DNA.
  • This overhanging end can form H-bonds with its complementary sequence, if available.
  • This property is utilized for joining 2 different DNA fragments with same overhanging ends.
  • Hence, they are termed as sticky or cohesive ends.

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 11
Border line cases between species and sub-species are called
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Concept-

  • Classification is not a single-step process but involves a hierarchy of steps in which each step represents a rank or category.
  • Since the category is a part of the overall taxonomic arrangement, it is called the taxonomic category and all categories together constitute the taxonomic hierarchy.
  • Each category, referred to as a unit of classification, in fact, represents a rank and is commonly termed as a taxon (pl.: taxa).
  • There are 7 main taxonomic categories- species, genus, family, order, class, division, kingdom.

Explanation

Borderline cases between species and sub-species are called semi-species.

  • Semi-species is a group of organisms that are taxonomically intermediate between a race and a species.
  • Semi-species are thought to represent advanced stages of speciation.
  • Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities as a species.
  • One should be able to distinguish one species from the other closely related species based on the distinct morphological differences.

Other Related Points

  • Genus
    • Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to species of other genera.
    • We can say that genera are aggregates of closely related species.
    • For example, potato and brinjal are two different species but both belong to the genus Solanum.
  • Family
    • The next category, Family, has a group of related genera with still fewer similarities as compared to genus and species.
    • Families are characterized on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features of plant species.
    • Among plants, for example, three different genera Solanum, Petunia, and Datura are placed in the family Solanaceae.
  • Order
    • You have seen earlier that categories like species, genus, and families are based on a number of similar characters.
    • Generally, order and other higher taxonomic categories are identified based on the aggregates of characters.
    • Order being a higher category is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar characters.
    • Plant families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the order Polymoniales mainly based on the floral characters.
  • Class
    • This category includes related orders.
    • For example, order Primata comprising monkey, gorilla, and gibbon is placed in class Mammalia along with order Carnivora that includes animals like tiger, cat, and dog.
  • Phylum
    • Classes comprising animals like fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds along mammals constitute the next higher category called Phylum.
    • All these, based on the common features like the presence of notochord and dorsal hollow neural system, are included in phylum Chordata.
  • Kingdom
    • All animals belonging to various phyla are assigned to the highest category called Kingdom.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 12
Which of the following statement defines the ecological niche of the population?
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Explanation

  • Ecological Niche -
    • Many organisms live together in the same habitat which can cause competition among them.
    • So, each species develops its own niche to avoid competition.
    • Niche is the function of a species, the role it plays in a habitat.
    • Niche is a defined physical condition, particular kind of resources, and distinct functional role in the habitat, for each organism.
    • Physical conditions like time of foraging, optimum temperature, water required, etc., and resources needed are different from any other organism in the same habitat.
  • Over the course of evolution, organisms evolved to optimize survival in a particular set of environmental conditions which is their habitat.
  • They also evolve to develop a unique niche for each species residing in the same habitat.
  • If the niche for any two species is the same, competition leads to the elimination of one of them.

Other Related Points

  1. The geographical area that a species covers - Habitat
  2. A place where species lives - Habitat
  • Habitat -
    • Habitat is the natural home or environment where an organism lives.
    • It is the selection of resources, biotic and abiotic factors present in an area suitable for organisms who live there.
    • For a particular animal, its habitat will be where it can find everything it needs to locate and gather food, select a mate, and successfully reproduce.
    • Habitat is the geographical limit within which a population is found.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

In which of the following families, the calyx is modified into a pappus ?

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Mistake Points

  • Compositae is alternatively called Asteraceae.

Key Points

  • The pappus is a modified appendage of a flower that helps in the wind-dispersal of its seeds.
  • In Compositae or Asteraceae family the inflorescences are arranged such as to resemble a flower.
  • The flowers or florets are typically arranged together as a head.
  • Petals join at the margins forming a tubular sympetalous corolla.
  • The floral tips form a teeth-like shape at the apex.
  • Other floral parts are attached on top of the ovary.
  • The calyx is highly modified to form the pappus.

Important Points

  • The pappus consists of one or more dry scales, hair-like bristles or small pointed structures called awns.
  • In some species, the scales join at their margins to form a crown on top of the ovary.

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 14
The organ of locomotion in bacteria are
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Explanation

  • Locomotion is the ability of an organism to move from one place to another.
  • The main locomotor structures present in microorganisms are cilia and flagella.
  • Bacteria are can be motile or non-motile.
  • Flagella in motile bacteria are structurally different from the eukaryotic flagella.
  • Flagella measures up to 15 to 20 micrometers long.
  • They are made up of the protein flagellin and helical in shape.
  • It consists of 3 parts:
    • Filament - The longest portion which extends from cell surface to tip.
    • Basal body - It is a central rod embedded in the cell membrane that attaches the flagellum to the cell. It has a system of rings, inner S and M and outer L and P (only in gram-negative bacteria).
    • Hook - It is a short curved segment present outside the cell wall which connects filament to the basal body. It is wider than flagella.
  • Movement takes place by the whip-like action of the flagellum.
  • Rotation of flagella in a clockwise or counterclockwise direction causes the movement of bacteria.
  • The basal body is used to rotate the flagella.

Other Related Points

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

What is the middle lamella of cell wall made up of?

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

The correct answer is Calcium pectate
Key Points
Middle Lamella of Cell Wall:

  • Middle lamella is a jelly-like substance made up of calcium and magnesium pectate.
  • It is made up of calcium and magnesium pectates, along with muramic acid, phosphoglycerides, and hemicellulose.
  • It is laid down by the joint activity of cells between which it lies.
  • It is formed at the time of cytokinesis as a layer of pectin.
  • The sequence from inside:

Plasma membrane → Tertiary cell wall → Secondary cell wall → Primary cell wall → Middle lamella → Primary cell wall of an adjacent cell.

  • The major constituent, pectin forms a unified and continuous lamellar layer between adjacent cells.
  • It is lacking on the outer (exposed) side of the surface cells.

Other Related Points
Calcium Pectate

  • Calcium is an essential mineral nutrient for all living organisms including bacteria, animals, and plants.
  • Calcium pectate is found in all of the fruits and vegetables we eat.

Calcium Oxide

  • Calcium oxide, CaO, also known as lime is a white or greyish white solid produced in large quantities by roasting calcium carbonate so as to drive off carbon dioxide.
  • It is used industrially to treat acidic soil and to make porcelain and glass, bleaching powder, caustic soda, mortar and cement.

Calcium Hydroxide

  • Calcium hydroxide, also called slaked lime, Ca(OH)2, is obtained by the action of water on calcium oxide.
  • It is used in industrial settings, such as sewage treatment, paper production, construction, and food processing.

Calcium Sulphate

  • Calcium sulfate, CaSO4, is a naturally occurring calcium salt. It is commonly known in its dihydrate form, CaSO4∙2H2O, a white or colourless powder called gypsum.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 16
Which of the local Indian honey bee varieties are used for used for commercial honey production?
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

The correct option is Both 1 & 2

Explanation

  • Honey is widely used and therefore beekeeping for making honey has become an agricultural enterprise.
  • In addition to honey, beehives are a source of wax that is used in various medicinal preparations.
  • The local varieties of bees used for commercial honey production are:
    • Apis cerana Indica, commonly known as the Indian bee
    • A. dorsata (the rock bee)
    • A. florae (the little bee)
  • Apis florae, also known as the dwarf honey bee, does produce honey.
  • The local varieties of bees used for commercial honey production are Apis cerana indica, commonly known as the Indian bee, A. dorsata, the rock bee and A. florae, the little bee.
  • An Italian bee variety, A. mellifera, has also been brought in to increase yield of honey.

Important Points

  • A. mellifera is not a local Indian variety it is an Italian bee variety.
  • This is the variety commonly used for commercial honey production.
  • The Italian bees have a high honey collection capacity. They sting somewhat less. They stay in a given beehive for long periods and breed very well.

Other Related Points

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Which of the following shows a whorled phyllotaxy?

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Concept:

  • The arrangement of leaves on the stem or the branch of a plant is called phyllotaxy.
  • There are three different kinds of phyllotaxy: alternate, opposite, and whorled.

Explanation:

  • Alternate
    • In this case, a single leaf arises at each node.
    • The leaves are arranged in an alternate manner.
    • It is observed in china rose, mustard, and sunflower.
  • Opposite
    • In this case, a pair of leaves are arranged on either side of the node.
    • The leaves lie opposite each other.
    • It is observed in Calotropis.
  • Whorled
    • ​If more than one leaf arises from a node and forms a whorl, the kind of phyllotaxy is called whorled phyllotaxy,
    • It is observed in Alstonia.


So, the correct answer is option 1, Alstonia.

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Fasciola attaches to liver by

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Explanation

  • Fasciola is a parasite that belongs to the phylum Platyhelminthes under Animalia kingdom.
  • It is commonly known as liver fluke as it infects the livers of mammals including humans.
  • Morphology:
    • It has a dorsoventrally flattened body.
    • It has a leaf-like shape where the anterior end is broader and with a conical apex.
    • It has 2 suckers: one oral sucker at anterior cone end and one ventral sucker at the base of the cone.
    • The oral sucker surround the ventral mouth.
    • The suckers help in feeding within the host organism.
    • Suckers are used to migrate through liver parenchyma and then attach to the inner lining of biliary ducts.


Other Related Points

  • The life cycle of Fasciola involves a primary host (mammals) and an intermediate host (molluscs).
  • They may form 7 different development stages: egg, miracidium, sporocyst, redia, cercaria, metacercaria and adult fluke.
  • Fascioliasis is a global disease caused by Fasciola hepatica and Fasciola gigantica.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 19
Which is of the following statements is incorrect?
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Concept:

  • Fungi are heterotrophic, eukaryotic organisms.
  • It is classified under the Kingdom Fungi.
  • Fungi contains a cell wall made up of chitin and it is omnipresent.
  • Fungi are classified into Zygomycetes, Basidiomycetes, Ascomycetes, and Deuteromycetes divisions.
  • Yeast is not considered as true fungi because it lacks sexual reproduction and is a unicellular sac fungus. It lacks filamentous structure or hyphae.

Explanation:

Option 1: Morels and truffles are edible delicaciesCORRECT

  • Morels and truffles are edible fungi and are known as edible delicacies because it is pleasing to eat.
  • Hence, this statement is correct.

Option 2: Claviceps are a source of many alkaloids and LSD. – CORRECT

  • Claviceps is also a type of fungi and it is a seed pathogen.
  • It is also termed ergot fungus and contains many alkaloids and LSD.
  • If ingested, it can lead to severe toxicity in mammals.
  • Hence, this statement is correct.

Option 3: Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously – CORRECT

  • Conidia are non-motile exogenous asexual spores that develop through special hyphae called conidiophores.
  • While ascospores are sexual spores and are found in ascus endogenously.
  • Hence, this statement is correct.

Option 4: Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae. – INCORRECT

  • Yeast is a unicellular sac fungus. It lacks filamentous structure or hyphae.
  • Hence, this statement is incorrect.

So, the correct answer is option 4).

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 20
It takes a very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield?
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Concept:

  • Plant growth regulators (PGRs) are defined as small, simple molecules of diverse chemical composition.
  • They are also described as plant hormones or phytohormones.
  • PGRs are classified into two broad groups based on their functions in a living plant body.
  • One group of PGRs is involved in growth-promoting activities, such as cell division, cell enlargement, pattern formation, tropic growth, flowering, fruiting, and seed formation.
  • The PGRs of the other group plays an important role in plant responses to wounds and stresses of biotic and abiotic origin.
  • A few examples of PGRs are indole-3-acetic acid, abscisic acid, terpenes (gibberellic acid, GA3 ), or gases (ethylene, C2H4 ).

Explanation:

Auxin

  • Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in pineapple.

Ethylene

  • Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone.
  • Ethylene also helps in the synchronization of flowering and fruit set up in a pineapple.
  • Therefore, auxin and ethylene can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield.

Gibberellin

  • Speeds up the malting process.
  • Gibberellins, cause fruits like apples to elongate and improve their shape and also delay senescence.
  • Thus, the fruits can be left on the tree longer so as to extend the market period.

Cytokinin

  • Cytokinin helps to overcome apical dominance.
  • It also helps to produce new leaves, chloroplasts in leaves, lateral shoot growth, and adventitious shoot formation.

Abscisic acid

  • Abscisic acid is responsible for seed dormancy and inhibition of seeds.

Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 21
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Concept:

  • Biodiversity is responsible for providing food, providing resistance to diseases, providing livelihood to humans, etc.
  • Conservation of biodiversity is defined as the protection and management of all natural resources to maintain their optimum level.
  • It involves sustainable use of all the resources to ensure that it is available for the present and future generations.
  • There are two main strategies of conservation: In situ and Ex situ conservation
  • In situ conservation:
    • Conservation of all the life forms both plant and animal species in their natural habitat and environment is called In situ conservation.
    • National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves, etc. are all examples of In situ conservation.
  • Ex situ conservation:
    • Conservation of life forms outside of their natural habitat in a special setting is called Ex situ conservation.
    • Zoos, botanical gardens, aquariums, gene banks, cryopreservation, etc. are all examples of Ex situ conservation.

Explanation:

  • CRYOPRESERVATION:
    • Cryopreservation is the technique of storing biological structures like cells, tissues, organs, etc. at very low temperatures.
    • This is done to maintain their viability.
    • Through this technique, the structures can be preserved for a very long time.
    • Cryopreservation of important biological cells like gametes is done at a temperature of -196°C in liquid nitrogen.
    • Pollen grains are the male gametophyte. Cryopreservation of gametes like pollen grains is carried out to preserve endangered species.
    • Cryopreservation of pollen grains is done using liquid nitrogen at -196°C temperature.
    • This helps in making a pollen seed bank that can be made available for crop breeding programs.

So the correct answer is option 4.

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 22
Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure:
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Concept:

  • Assisted Reproductive Technology or ART refers to the special techniques that are used to deal with infertility.
  • The methods include gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), in vitro fertilization (IVF), zygote intra-Fallopian transfer (ZIFT), embryo transfer (ET), etc.
  • These all methods aim to increase pregnancy probability to full term.

Explanation:

Option 1:

  • In GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer), the ovum is collected from the donor and transferred into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce eggs.
  • Therefore, this statement is the incorrect and hence incorrect option.

Option 2:

  • Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT), also called Tubal Embryo Transfer is analogous to IVF.
  • It is a form of assisted reproductive technology or ART procedure in which fertilization takes place in a laboratory.
  • It is most often done when helping women with blocked Fallopian tubes that do not allow normal binding of sperm to egg thus preventing pregnancy.
  • The zygote or early embryos (with up to 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into the Fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote intrafallopian transfer).
  • Therefore, this is the correct answer.

Option 3:

  • Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT – Intra uterine transfer), to complete their further development.
  • This is also an important part of IVF.
  • The ZIFT and IUT are types of embryo transfer techniques.

Option 4:

  • Ova is never transferred to the uterus.
  • Therefore, this statement is the incorrect.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 23
Earliest evidences of social life are attributed to
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 23
Explanation

  • The earliest evidence of social life among early humans is typically attributed to Neanderthal man.
  • Neanderthals, belonging to the species Homo neanderthalensis, are known for their relatively complex social structures and behaviors, which included caring for the sick and elderly, burying their dead, and possibly engaging in rituals, all indicating a form of social life.
  • Cro-Magnon men (early modern humans) also exhibited advanced social structures, but they appear later in the archaeological record compared to Neanderthals.
  • ‘Cro-Magnon Man’ is the name given to the early humans who existed 40,000-10,000 years ago.
  • The name came from the five skeletons that were found from a rock shelter in France, which was known by the same name.
  • They have been recently renamed as Early Modern Human because it was found after much research that they do not have significant differences from modern humans.
  • They are our immediate ancestor hominin who were in the process of developing the modern human behaviours.
  • The physical differences between Cro-Magnons and modern humans are key to the change in lifestyle from long-distance hunting to sedentism, which requires them to live in groups and thus have a social life.
  • They are also known to have used modern tools and had burial rituals.

Other Related Points

  • Java man – refers to an extinct hominin of the species Homo erectus that was discovered from Java. The thighbones discovered indicated their upright posture.
  • Peking man – refers to Homo erectus fossils that were found from Zhoukoudian site of China. They lived about 2 million – 250,000 years ago.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 24
Which of the following pteridophytes shows secondary growth?
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Concept-

  • Plants are divided into five groups- Thallophytes, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
  • Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to acquire vascular tissues – xylem and phloem.
  • Pteridophytes are also called vascular crypto games.
  • Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes.
  • Pteridophytes are not completely differentiated into root, stem, and leaves.
  • Pteridophytes are divided into 4 classes-
    • (1) Psilopsida (2) Lycopsida (3) Sphenopsida (4) Pteropsida

Explanation-

  • Secondary growth results from cell division in the lateral meristems.
  • Due to secondary growth, the stems and roots become thicken.
  • Fascicular vascular cambium and cork cambium are examples of secondary growth.

Thereby secondary growth is present in Isoetes.

Note- Secondary growth is absent in pteridophytes but exceptionally present in isoetes.

Other Related Points

  • Psilopsida
    • Most vascular plants.
    • Examples are Psilotum.
  • Lycopsida
    • Club mosses are placed here.
    • Examples are lycopodium.
  • Sphenopsida
    • Horsetails are included here.
    • Examples are equisetum.
  • Pteropsida
    • They are commonly called ferns.
    • Examples are marsilea and pteris.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Biomagnification of DDT in an aquatic food chain starting from the water having concentration of 0.003 ppb may go in fish-eating birds up to

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 25
  • Biomagnification is the accumulation of the increasing amount ​ of non-degradable pollutants through the food chain i.e., the concentration of toxicants increases at successive trophic levels.
  • It is caused because a toxic substance accumulated in an organism cannot be metabolized or excreted out.
  • It can only be passed on to the next trophic level, in which the concentration of the toxicant increases.
  • It is observed in aquatic food chains.
  • An aquatic food chain can be represented as:

Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small Fish → Large Fish → Fish-eating birds

  • Phytoplanktons are the producers in the food chain, which are eaten by the zooplanktons and successively by fishes and then fish-eating birds.
  • Biomagnification is a well-known phenomenon for toxicants like mercury and DDT, which get released into water bodies.

Explanation:

  • If we take the example of DDT, it starts with 0.003 ppb (parts per billion) in water.
  • Its concentration is found to increase to 0.04 ppm (parts per million) in zooplanktons.
  • It keeps increasing in successive trophic levels and we can find up to 25 ppm of DDT in the fish-eating birds.
  • Such high concentrations of DDT disturbs the calcium metabolism in birds.
  • It may cause thinning of eggshell and premature breaking of eggs, which eventually leads to decline in bird populations.

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 26
The microbial biocontrol agent for butterfly caterpillar is________.
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Concept:

  • Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
  • Biocontrol agents are the organisms that are used for this purpose.
  • It is one of the novel methods that is followed in organic farming.
  • Major features of biocontrol:
    • It depends on natural predation and not chemicals.
    • It is believed that greater biodiversity brings greater sustainability.
    • It creates a system where pests are not eradicated but maintained balanced in the ecosystem.
    • It tries to understand the web of interaction within the diverse ecosystem in the field.
    • Eradication of insects is not desirable because beneficial insects depending on them would also get eradicated in their absence.

Important Points

  • The microbial biocontrol agent against butterfly caterpillars is Bacillus thruringiensis.
  • It is available as dried spores that can be mixed with water and sprayed onto crops like fruit trees and brassicas.
  • These bacteria produce a toxin called Bt-toxin in an inactive crystalline form.
  • The toxin is activated in the alkaline gut of the insect larvae, which leads to their death.
  • The genes encoding this toxin have also been genetically introduced into some plants for pest-resistance. E.g.- Bt-cotton.

Other Related Points

  • Trichoderma -
    • It is a free-living fungal species that is commonly found in root ecosystems.
    • They are effective against several plant pathogens.
  • Baculovirus -
    • They are a group of viruses that are pathogenic to insects and other arthropods.
    • The most commonly used genus is Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
    • They are species-specific and have a narrow spectrum of application.
    • They do not have any negative impact on the plants, animals or non-target insects.
    • Thus, it is specifically useful in integrated pest management (IPM) systems or ecologically sensitive regions.
  • Lactobacillus -
    • ​It is used for curd formation.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 27
Which of the following is the correct hierarchy of biological classification of plants?
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

The correct answer is Division - Class - Order - Family - Genus.

Concept:

Classification of organisms:

  • Biologists, such as Ernst Haeckel (1894), Robert Whittaker (1969), and Carl Woese (1977) have tried to classify all living organisms into broad categories, called kingdoms.
  • The classification Whittaker proposed has five kingdoms: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia, and is widely used.
  • These groups are formed on the basis of their cell structure, mode, source of nutrition, and body organization.
  • Further classification is done by naming the sub-groups at various levels and forming a hierarchy.

Explanation:

Biological hierarchy:

  • It refers to the systemic organization of organisms into different levels.
  • It was given by Carolus Linnaeus.
  • It organizes living things in descending levels of complexity: kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species.
  • Hierarchies are important to inform evolutionary biologists on the way living systems are organized throughout history and theorize how extinct animals function based on their positions on the hierarchy.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

In immune response mechanism clonal selection is a process in which:

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Concept:

  • The immunity system provides the body the ability to fight against the different pathogenic organisms or the toxins that damage the tissues and organs.
  • The immunity system consists of several structurally and functionally different organs and tissues.
  • The organs of the immune system are divided into two groups - Primary lymphoid organs (E.g.: Bone marrow) and Secondary lymphoid organs (E.g.: Tonsils).
  • Lymphocytes are the white blood cells that play an important role in the immune system.

Important Points
Clonal Selection:

  • Lymphocytes are of two types - B cells and T cells.
  • B cells produce antibodies. Antibodies are the chemicals produced by the immune system in response to the antigenic stimulus. They fight against the antigens or the toxins and neutralize them.
  • T cells on the other hand fight against invading pathogens.
  • The B cells during differentiation in the bone marrow, is genetically programmed to produce antibodies.
  • The antibodies have a unique antigen-binding site.
  • These sites known as paratopes are present in the variable region of the heavy and light chains of the immunoglobulin.
  • These regions are characterized by an amino acid sequence that varies from one immunoglobulin to other.
  • The antigen-binding site is made through a series of gene translocations. These function as B cell receptors.
  • During a pathogen attack, antigens come across the cells of the immune system.
  • The epitope (site at which antibody binds) present on the antigen will react with only those B-cells that have receptors that fit more or less.
  • This in turn activates the B-cells.
  • This process is known as clonal selection.
  • The B cells thus activated start proliferating rapidly under the influence of cytokines produced by the effector T cells.
  • As a result, a large number of clones of the activated B cells are produced.
  • All these are the clones of the activated B-cells that have the correct specificity to the antigen.
  • This is known as clonal expansion.​
  • Based on the above-given information, the only option that correctly explains the clonal selection, as well as the clonal expansion process is the proliferation and differentiation of lymphocytes that occur in response to a specific antigen.

So the correct answer is option 2.

MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 29
Which one is the most primitive mollusca
Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Concept-

  • The five-kingdom system proposed by R.H. Whittaker.
  • The kingdom defined by him was named- Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia.
  • Kingdom Animalia is divided into sub-groups which is known as Phylum. There are 11 phyla in the kingdom Animalia.
    • Porifera, Coelenterata, Ctenophora, Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata, Hemichordata, Chordata.
  • Mollusca is the second-largest animal phylum. They are terrestrial or aquatic.
  • They exhibit an organ-system level of organization.
  • They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, coelomate animals.
  • They have an open circulatory system and kidney-like organs for excretion. The anterior head region has sensory tentacles.
  • The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called a radula.
  • They are usually dioecious and oviparous with indirect development.
  • The body is covered by a calcareous shell and is unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot, and visceral hump.
  • A soft and spongy layer of skin forms a mantle over the visceral hump.

Explanation-

  • Neopilina shows the characters of both phylum Annelida and Mollusca.
  • Neopilina has trochophore larva like Annelida.
  • Neopilina shows the presence of a flat muscular foot like in Mollusca.
  • Neopilina is a connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca.

Thereby Neopilina is the most primitive Mollusca.

Other Related Points

  • Chiton
    • A chiton is a form of tunic that fastens at the shoulder, worn by men and women of Ancient Greece and Rome.
    • Chitons have a shell composed of eight separate shell plates or valves.
    • These plates overlap slightly at the front and back edges and yet articulate well with one another.
    • They are also sometimes known as sea cradles or "coat-of-mail shells".
  • Mollusca includes animals like Octopus, Dentalium, Patella, etc.
MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is known as :

Detailed Solution for MPTET Varg 1 Biology Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Concept:

  • The exchange of gases between the atmosphere in lungs involves inspiration and expiration.
  • In Inspiration, the atmospheric air is drawn into the lungs.
  • During expiration, air from the alveolar sacs in the lungs is exchanged or released out of the lungs.

Explanation:
Let us look at some of the terminologies concerned with respiratory volumes and capacity:
Inspiratory Capacity (IC)

  • ​The total volume of air a normal person can inspire after a normal expiration is called inspiratory capacity.
  • It includes tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume.
  • Tidal volume (TV): It is the volume of air inspired or expired during normal respiration.
  • Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV): Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by forcible inspiration.

Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

  • ​​It is the total volume of air that can be accommodated inside the lungs at the end of forced inspiration.
  • It is the addition of vital capacity and residual volume.
  • Residual volume (RV): It is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after forcible expiration.

Expiratory Capacity (EC)

  • ​The total volume of air a normal person can expire after a normal inspiration is called expiratory capacity.
  • It includes tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume.
  • Expiratory reserve volume (ERV): Additional volume of air, a person can expire by forcible expiration.

Vital Capacity (VC)

  • It is the measure of the maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after forced expiration.
  • It is also the measure of the maximum amount of air a person can breathe out after forcible inspiration.
  • It includes ERV, TV, and IRV.​


So, the correct answer is option 4.

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