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DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - DGAFMS Group C MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 for DGAFMS Group C 2025 is part of DGAFMS Group C preparation. The DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 questions and answers have been prepared according to the DGAFMS Group C exam syllabus.The DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 MCQs are made for DGAFMS Group C 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 below.
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DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

Select the number from the given options to complete the series.
25, 30, 40, 55, 75, ___

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

In a row of children, who are facing north. Abhas is 19th from the left end and second to the right of Suresh, who is 17th from the right end . How many children are there in that row?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

As per the given information:
In a row of children, who are facing north. Abhas is 19th from the left end and second to the right of Suresh, who is 17th from the right end.
So, the rank of Suresh from left will be '17'.

Now,
Total children in the row = Position of Suresh from left + Position of Suresh from right - 1
= 17 + 17 - 1
= 34 - 1
= 33
Thus, the total number of children in the row is '33'.
Hence, the correct answer is "33".

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Priya started walking towards east for 20 m, then took left and walked for 40m, then turned right and walked for 30 m. Now she turns right and walks 40 m. How far is priya from her starting point?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Given:
Priya started walking towards east for 20 m
Then took left and walked for 40m
Then turned right and walked for 30 m.
Now she turns right and walks 40 m.

So, the distance of Priya from the starting point = 20 + 30 = 50 m
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3:50 m

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?
TUV RXR ? NDJ LGF

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Carefully read the given information and answer the given questions.

The compartment of 7 vegetable is kept on a rack. Each box of stacks has a special vegetable i.e. Carrots, Cauliflower, potatoes, cabbage, beans, pumpkins and tomatoes. The boxes is computed in the order of 1, 2, 3 ..... from the bottom of the rack.

i) Carrot has been placed in any box above cabbage but not above the potato.

ii) Cauliflower is not kept at either top or bottom box.

iii) Potatoes are placed in a box kept in the middle of the rack.

iv) The beans are kept just top of the potato box.

v) There are as many boxes under the pumpkin as there are above the carrot.

Which box has the tomato kept?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Given:
The compartment of 7 vegetable is kept on a rack.
Each box of stacks has a special vegetable i.e. Carrots, Cauliflower, potatoes, cabbage, beans, pumpkins and tomatoes.
The boxes is computed in the order of 1, 2, 3 ..... from the bottom of the rack.
i) Potatoes are placed in a box kept in the middle of the rack - This implies that potato will kept on the 4th number box.
ii) The beans are kept just top of the potato box.

iii) There are as many boxes under the pumpkin as there are above the carrot.
iv) Carrot has been placed in any box above cabbage but not above the potato.

v) Cauliflower is not kept at either top or bottom box.
And, Tomato will kept at the remaining place.

So, the vegetable 'Tomato' is kept One of the boxes above pumpkin.
Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

Six friends are sitting in a circle. All of them are facing the centre. Kanak sits third to the right of Sona. Kapil is an immediate neighbour of Mani. Goldy sits second to the right of Mani. Sona is an immediate neighbour of Kapil and Suresh.

Who sits to the immediate right of Goldy?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

According to the given information,
1) Kanak sits third to the right of Sona.

2) Sona is an immediate neighbour of Kapil and Suresh.

3) Kapil is an immediate neighbour of Mani.4) Goldy sits second to the right of Mani.

Here, we can see that Suresh sits to the immediate right of Goldy.

Hence, the correct answer is "Suresh".

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

8, 16, 13, 26, 23, 46, ? ?
What will come in place of the question mark?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

The pattern followed here is;

Hence, the correct answer is "43, 86".

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which conclusion's logically follow/s from the given statements.
Statements: All crows are sparrows. Some sparrows are parrots. All parrots are yellow.
Conclusion I: Some crows are parrots.
Conclusion II: Some yellow are parrots.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Given:
Statements:
All crows are sparrows.
Some sparrows are parrots.
All parrots are yellow.
The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:
I. Some crows are parrots → False (There is no direct relation given between crows and parrots. It is possible but not certain.)
II. Some yellow are parrots → True (All parrots are yellow, so it is certain that some yellow things are parrots.)
Hence, only conclusion (II) follows.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

The mirror image of this image is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 10
Two successive discounts of 20% and 30% are given while selling an item. What is the ratio of the marked price to the selling price of the item?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

Given:

2 successive discounts of 20% and 30%

Calculations:

Let the Marked price be 100.

SP after 1st discount = 100 - 20 = 80

SP after 2nd discount = 80 - 30% of 80 = 80 - 0.3(80)

= 80 - 24 = 56

So, The Ratio

= 100 ∶ 56

= 25 ∶ 14

∴ The Required ratio is 25 ∶ 14.

Shortcut TrickFormula used:

When 2 successive discounts X and Y are given -

Equivalent discount = (X + Y - XY/100)%

Calculation:

X = 20% and Y = 30%

Equivalent discount = [20 + 30 - (20 × 30)/100]%

= 50 - 6

= 44%

Let MP be 100

Then, after 44% discount

SP = 56

∴ MP : SP = 100 : 56

= 25 : 14

Required ratio is 25 : 14

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

A shopkeeper wanted to sell ₹2,700 worth of products. But he had two options — giving two successive discounts of 10% and 15%, respectively, or giving a single discount of 25%. What was the difference between the two options?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Given:
Product Price = Rs 2,700
Successive Discounts = 10% and 15%
Single Discount = 25%
Concept Used:
Discount = % of Discount × Product Price
Price After Discount = Product Price – Discount
Calculations:
For first successive discount of 10%,
⇒ Product Price = 2,700 - 10% x 2,700
⇒ Product Price = 2,700 - (10/100) x 2,700
⇒ Product Price = 2700 - 270
⇒ Product Price = Rs 2,430
For second successive discount of 15%,
⇒ Product Price = 2430 - 15% x 2430
⇒ Product Price = 2430 - (15/100) x 2430
⇒ Product Price = 2430 - 364.50
⇒ Product Price = Rs 2065.50
Price after single discount of 25%,
⇒ Product Price = 2700 - 25% x 2700
⇒ Product Price = 2700 - (25/100) x 2700
⇒ Product Price = 2700 - 675
⇒ Product Price = Rs 2025.00
Difference between prices after the discounts = Rs 2065.50 – Rs 2025.00
Difference between prices after the discounts = Rs 40.50
∴ The required difference between the two options is Rs 40.50

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

The smallest six-digit number which is completely divisible by 4, 8, 12 and 16 is:

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

Given:

  • Smallest six-digit number which is divisible by 4, 8, 12 and 16.

Concept:

  • LCM (Lowest Common Multiple)
  • Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder

Calculation:
LCM of 4, 8, 12 & 16 will be calculated by writing them as the product of their prime factors.

  • 4 = 22
  • 8 = 23
  • 12 = 22 × 3
  • 16 = 24

So, LCM (4, 8, 12, 16) = 24 × 3 = 48
The smallest six-digit number is 100000.

By dividing 100000 by 48, we get the remainder 16.
So, we need to add the difference between the Divisor and Remainder to 100000 (Dividend) in order to get the smallest six-digit number divisible by 48.
⇒ 100000 + (48 - 16) = 48 × 2083 + 16 + (48 - 16)
⇒ 100032 = 48 × 2083 + 16 + 32
⇒ 100032 = 48 × 2083 + 48
⇒ 100032 = 48 × 2083 + 48
∴ The smallest six-digit number which is completely divisible by 4, 8, 12 and 16 is 100032.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Area of the triangle is equal to area of the square, if the base and height of the triangle is 98 cm and 36 cm, then, the perimeter of the square (in cm) is:

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Given:

Area of Triangle = Area of square

Base of Triangle = 98 cm

Height of Triangle = 36 cm

Concept Used:

Area of Triangle = ½ × Base × Height

Area of Square = Side2

Perimeter of Square = 4 × Side

Calculation:

Area of Triangle = ½ × Base × Height

⇒ ½ × 98 × 36

⇒ 1764 sq. cm

∴ Area of Square = Side2

⇒ Side2 = 1764

⇒ Side = √(1764)

⇒ Side = 42 cm

Perimeter of Square = 4 × Side

⇒ 4 × 42

∴ Perimeter is 168 cm

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 14
If selling price and cost price of an article are Rs. 684.25 and Rs. 595 respectively, then what is the profit percentage?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

Given:

S.P = 684.25

C.P = 595

Formula used:

Profit = S.P. - C.P.

Profit% = (Profit/C.P) × 100%

Calculation:

∴ Profit % = (684.25 – 595)/595 × 100 = 15%

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

The pie - chart shows percentage - wise distribution of teachers who teach six different subjects. Study the pie chart and answer the question:

Total number of teachers = 1650
What is the total number of teachers teaching English, Maths and Physics?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

From Pie chart,
⇒ English teacher = 26% of total number of teacher
⇒ (26/100) × 1650 = 429
⇒ Maths teacher = 14% of total number of teacher
⇒ (14/100) × 1650 = 231
⇒ Physics teacher = 18% of total number of teacher
⇒ (18/100) × 1650 = 297
⇒ Total number of teacher of English, Maths and Physics = 429 + 231 + 297 = 957
∴ Total number of teachers teaching English, Maths and Physics is 957

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

The effective annual rate of interest, corresponding to a nominal rate of 6% per annum, compounded half-yearly, is:

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

Formula used:

A = P (1 + r/n)nt

Calculation:

Let the principal amount of Rs. 100
It is given that amount is compounded half-yearly
⇒n = 2 and t = 1 year

So after 1 year the Amount he will be receiving,

⇒A =

A = 106.09
Effective rate = final amount - intial amount/100
⇒ 106.09 - 100/100  
⇒ 0.0609

The effective rate of annual interest is 0.0609

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 17
What is the sum of digits of the number which when divided by 24, 40, and 48 leaves the remainder of 13, 29, and 37, respectively?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

Given:

The number when divided by 24, 40, and 48 leaves the remainder of 13, 29, and 37, respectively.

Concept used:

If the gap for each number is equal,

Then, the number = LCM - The equal gap

Calculation:

The gap for each number is 24 - 13 = 11, 40 - 29 = 11 and 48 - 37 = 11

So, the LCM of 24, 40, and 48 is = 240

So the number should be

240 - 11 = 229

Sum of the digits will be 2 + 2 + 9 = 13

The Sum of digits of the number is 13.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 18
The match was postponed to the next day. Which phrasal verb can replace the verb in this sentence?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 18
The correct answer is Option 4.
Explanation
  • The phrasal verb "put off" means to postpone or delay something to a later time.
  • In the sentence "The match was postponed to the next day," the verb "postponed" can be replaced by the phrasal verb "put off" to convey the same meaning.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.
Correct Sentence: "The match was put off to the next day."
Other Related Points
  • Option 1: "Put of" is incorrect as it is not a proper phrasal verb.
  • Option 2: "Put up" means to provide accommodation or to display, which is not suitable in this context.
  • Option 3: "Put by" means to save or set aside, which does not fit the meaning of postponing.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 19
The correct answer is 'assistance'.
Explanation
  • The passage discusses the behavior of frogs and their ability to catch prey with their tongues.
  • The appropriate noun should indicate help or support, which fits the context of how frogs use their tongues to catch bugs.
  • "Assistance" fits well as it refers to help or support, which aligns with the idea of the frog's tongue helping in catching insects.
  • Other options such as "backing," "excuse," and "encouragement" do not fit the context of the frog catching bugs with its tongue.
Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.
Other Related Points
  • Backing refers to support or encouragement but does not fit the context of catching insects.
  • Excuse refers to a reason for something but does not relate to the frog's behavior.
  • Encouragement refers to giving support to someone to do something, but it doesn't match the context of frogs catching bugs.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 20
The correct answer is 'radiates'.
Explanation
  • The passage discusses the toxic substances that frogs release, specifically focusing on how their poison is exuded from their skin.
  • The appropriate verb should convey the idea of poison being emitted or released from the frog’s skin.
  • "Radiates" fits well as it means emitting or sending out, which aligns with how the frog's poison is released or radiated from its skin when threatened.
  • Other options such as "spells," "squeaks," and "glows" do not fit the context of poison being emitted from the frog's skin.
Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.
Other Related Points
  • "Spells" refers to casting a magical incantation, which does not fit the context of a toxic substance being emitted.
  • "Squeaks" refers to a high-pitched sound, which is irrelevant in the context of poison being emitted from the frog's skin.
  • "Glows" refers to emitting light, which does not match the description of poison being released from the skin.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct preposition from among the options given below.

My sister was not required to conform _________ the traditional ways of her husband's family.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 21
The correct answer is 'to'.
Explanation
  • The preposition "to" is used to indicate direction, place, or position.
  • In this sentence, "conform to" is the correct phrase used to indicate compliance or adherence to a set of rules or standards.
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.
Complete Sentence: "My sister was not required to conform to the traditional ways of her husband's family."
Additional Information
  • Option 2: "for" is incorrect because "conform for" is not a standard phrase.
  • Option 3: "of" is incorrect; "conform of" is not a grammatically correct phrase.
  • Option 4: "in" is incorrect because "conform in" does not convey the intended meaning.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Bully

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

The correct answer is D. Oppressor

The term "bully" describes an individual who consistently seeks to intimidate or harm those they view as weaker. An oppressor is someone who exercises power cruelly to keep others down. Both terms imply a sense of dominance over others, making "oppressor" a fitting synonym for "bully."

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because plough refers to a farming tool used to turn over soil, which has no relation to the concept of intimidation or dominance.
  • B: This option is incorrect as oxen are domesticated animals used for labor, lacking any connection to the idea of bullying or oppression.
  • C: This option is incorrect since coddle means to treat someone in a protective or indulgent manner, which is contrary to the aggressive connotation of "bully."

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant choice, stands out for its alignment with the meaning of "bully," clearly distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, Oppressor is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Direction: Read the passage and answer the following questions:

Once upon a time in a lush village, nestled between rolling hills and sparkling streams, lived a young boy named Arlo. Arlo was known for his unparalleled swiftness; he could outrun any child or beast in the land. However, Arlo’s pride in his speed often led him to boast and belittle his friends. “Speed is all that matters!” he would claim, dismissing the virtues of patience and teamwork. His attitude isolated him, and over time, he found himself without companions, racing only against the wind.

One day, a great storm threatened the village, and the elders needed a vital message delivered to the neighboring village for help. Despite his speed, Arlo struggled against the storm alone. On the verge of giving up, his former friends, who had heard of his plight, found and supported him. Together, they braved the storm and delivered the message. Arlo learned that true strength lies not in individual prowess but in unity and humility. From then on, he valued his friends’ diverse talents, understanding that every virtue, including patience and teamwork, holds its own unique power.

What lesson did Arlo learn from his experience?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

The correct answer is Option (2).Explanation

  • Arlo learned that true strength lies not in individual prowess but in unity and humility.
  • This lesson is the moral of the story, summarized in the final paragraph.

Therefore, the correct answer is "That unity and humility are more important than individual prowess".Other Related Points

  • Options (1), (3), and (4) are not mentioned as lessons learned by Arlo according to the passage.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 24
Which force is responsible for the earth revolving around the sun?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

The correct answer is D. Gravitational Force

The gravitational force is the key force that causes the Earth to orbit the Sun. This force pulls the Earth towards the Sun, while the Earth's velocity acts perpendicular to this pull. The balance between these two forces enables the Earth to maintain a stable orbit around the Sun.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because magnetic force pertains to the interaction between magnetic fields and charged particles, which does not influence the Earth's orbit around the Sun.
  • B: This option is incorrect as electro-magnetic force relates to the interactions between charged particles but is not responsible for the gravitational attraction between the Earth and the Sun.
  • C: This option is incorrect since longitudinal force does not pertain to gravitational interactions and is not a recognized force in the context of celestial motion.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its fundamental role in celestial mechanics, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Gravitational Force is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 25
Which of the following states/UTs has the first 100% fully digital literate Panchayat in India?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

The correct answer is B. Kerala

Kerala is recognized for having the first 100% fully digital literate Panchayat in India, specifically the Pullampara Panchayat. The state has made remarkable progress in both literacy and digital education, reflecting its commitment to enhancing digital literacy and e-governance initiatives.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because while Puducherry has made strides in education, it has not achieved the status of a fully digital literate Panchayat like Kerala.
  • C: This option is incorrect as Delhi has various digital initiatives but does not have a Panchayat that is recognized as fully digitally literate.
  • D: This option is incorrect since Maharashtra, despite its advancements, has not reached the same level of digital literacy in its Panchayats as Kerala.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its pioneering achievement in digital literacy at the Panchayat level, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Kerala is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

Which of the following are three tributaries of the Indus river Himalayan rivers?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

The correct answer is Option 3.ExplanationIndus River

  • Also referred to as the “Sindhu”, it is a long transboundary river shared by the countries of China, India, and Pakistan.
  • Rising in Western Tibet, the river flows for more than 3,180km and is considered one of the world’s largest rivers.
  • The Indus river’s total drainage area is approximately 1,165,000 sq. km, of which 453,000 sq. km falls within the Himalayan ranges, the Karakoram Range, and the Hindu Kush mountains, while the remaining part lies in the desert plains of Pakistan.
  • The Indus River originates close to Lake Mansarovar on the northern slopes of the sacred Kailash Mountain Ranges in the Tibetan Plateau.
  • The Indus River finally drains into the Arabian Sea via the large Indus River Delta near the port city of Karachi.
  • The Indus River is fed by numerous glaciers and small rivers of the Himalayan, Hindu Kush, and Karakoram Mountain ranges.
  • Some of the major tributaries of the Indus include the Zanskar River, the Shyok River, the Shigar River, the Gilgit River, the Astor River, the Kabul River, the Kurram River, the Gomal River, the Jhelum River, the Chenab River, the Beas River, the Ravi River, and the Sutlej River.
  • The Himalayan Tributaries of the Indus river include Zanskar, Dras, Gartang, Shyok, Shigar, Bunra, Gilgit, etc. Hence Option 3 is correct.
  • The five major tributaries of the River Indus – Beas, Ravi, Chenab, Jhelum, and Sutlej (“Panjnad”), give the name to the region of Punjab (“the land of five rivers”) that is divided between the countries of India and Pakistan.
  • The Indus River and its tributaries together make up the Indus Basin, which spans four countries (China, India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan).

Other Related Points

  • The Barna, Hiran River, Tendoni River, Choral River, Kolar River, Man River, Uri River, Hatni River, and Orsang River are tributaries of the Narmada River System.
  • The Suki, Gomai, Arunavati, Aner, Vaghur, Amravati, Buray, Panjhra, Bori, Girna, Purna, Mona, and Sipna are tributaries of the Tapi River System.
  • Nandihole, Haridravathi, Mavinahole, Hilkunji, Yennehole, Hurlihole, and Nagodihole are the Sharavati river's principal tributaries.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 27
Which of the following is mentioned in Article 1 of the Indian constitution?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

The correct answer is C. India that is Bharat shall be a Union of states

Article 1 of the Indian Constitution establishes that "India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States." This designation indicates that India is a singular entity formed by a union of states, as opposed to a federation. The phrase "Union of States" signifies that the states do not have the right to secede, reinforcing the integrity of the nation as a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because while it mentions a federation, Article 1 specifically refers to India as a "Union of States," not a federation, which implies a different structure of governance.
  • B: This option is inaccurate as it suggests that Article 1 describes India as a parliamentary democracy. The article focuses on the union aspect rather than the specific form of government.
  • D: This option is incorrect because it refers to a presidential form of democracy, which is not mentioned in Article 1. The article emphasizes the union of states rather than the type of governance.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, clearly highlights the union nature of India, distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, "India that is Bharat shall be a Union of states" is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 28
Which of these tribes and states/UT is not correctly matched?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

The correct answer is B. Jarawas - Lakshadweep

The Jarawas are a tribe located in the Andaman Islands, not Lakshadweep. They are known as hunters and gatherers, living in nomadic groups. In contrast, the other tribes listed are accurately matched with their respective states or union territories.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: The Bhotias are indeed a prominent tribe in Uttarakhand, residing in areas such as Almora and Chamoli, making this pairing correct.
  • C: The Bhutia tribe, of Tibetan origin, migrated to Sikkim in the 16th century and primarily inhabit northern Sikkim, thus this option is correctly matched.
  • D: The Hajong tribe is primarily found in Assam and parts of Bangladesh, making this option accurate as well.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the incorrect match, highlights the geographical inaccuracy of associating the Jarawas with Lakshadweep instead of their actual home in the Andaman Islands. Thus, Jarawas - Lakshadweep is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 29
Under which article of the Constitution the Supreme Court of India has been established?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

The correct answer is B. Article 124

The Supreme Court of India serves as the highest judicial authority in the country, established under Article 124 of the Constitution. It is the apex constitutional court, responsible for upholding the law and ensuring justice through its power of judicial review. The Supreme Court is led by the Chief Justice of India and can comprise up to 34 judges, who exercise various jurisdictions including original, appellate, and advisory roles. This institution is recognized as a vital pillar of democracy in India.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of traffic in human beings and does not relate to the establishment or function of the Supreme Court.
  • C: This option is incorrect as Article 224 deals with the appointment of additional judges in High Courts, not the establishment of the Supreme Court.
  • D: This option is incorrect since Article 231 addresses the establishment of a common High Court for two or more states, which is separate from the Supreme Court's establishment.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its direct reference to the establishment of the Supreme Court under the Constitution. Thus, Article 124 is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 30
Who wrote the Indian patriotic song, ‘Sare Jahan se acchha, Hindustan hamara’?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

The correct answer is B. Mohammad Iqbal

Mohammad Iqbal is the composer of the renowned Indian patriotic song, 'Sare Jahan se acchha, Hindustan hamara'. This song, written in 1904, is celebrated across India and is frequently performed during national events, highlighting its importance in evoking patriotism. Iqbal, also known as Allama Iqbal, was a prominent philosopher, poet, and politician in British India, credited with inspiring the Pakistan Movement.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar is known for his contributions to education and social reform in India, but he did not write this song.
  • C: Rabindranath Tagore was a celebrated poet and the first non-European Nobel laureate in Literature, but he is not associated with this particular patriotic song.
  • D: Mahatma Gandhi, a key leader in India's independence movement, is famous for his philosophy of non-violence and civil disobedience, but he did not compose 'Sare Jahan se acchha'.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out due to its direct association with the song and its historical significance in Indian culture, clearly distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, Mohammad Iqbal is the correct choice.

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