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DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - DGAFMS Group C MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 for DGAFMS Group C 2025 is part of DGAFMS Group C preparation. The DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 questions and answers have been prepared according to the DGAFMS Group C exam syllabus.The DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 MCQs are made for DGAFMS Group C 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 below.
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DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

Who sits second to the right of W?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

According to the given information,
1) W sits immediate left of L who sits second right of O.

2) C sits second right of S who is not an immediate neighbour of O.

3) I is not an immediate neighbour of S.

Hence, S sits second right of W.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

Choose the number pair/group which is different from others-

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

The logic follows here:
(1st number × 3) + 1 = 2nd number.
Now check all the options:
Option (1): 8 ∶ 25 → (8 × 3) + 1 = 24 + 1 = 25 = 2nd number
Option (2): 18 ∶ 73 → (18 × 3) + 1 = 54 + 1 = 55 ≠ 2nd number
Option (3): 22 ∶ 67 → (22 × 3) + 1 = 66 + 1 = 67 = 2nd number
Option (4): 15 ∶ 46 → (15 × 3) + 1 = 45 + 1 = 46 = 2nd number
Hence, "Option (2)" is different from others.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

The present age of father is 3 times and 3 years more than his son. After 3 years the age of father will 2 times and 10 years more than the age of son. The present age of father is.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

Let the age of son be x year and age of father be y year.

Given:

y = 3x + 3

Now, the present age of father = 3x + 3

And the present age of son = x

3 year later,

age of the son = x + 3

age of the father = 3x + 3 + 3 = 3x + 6

According to the question,

⇒ (3x + 6) = (x + 3) × 2 + 10

⇒ 3x + 6 = 2x + 6 + 10

⇒ 3x + 6 = 2x + 16

⇒ 3x - 2x = 16 - 6

⇒ x = 10 year

Thus age of the father = 10 × 3 + 3 = 33 year

Hence, the correct answer is "33 year".

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 4
If 29 November 2010 was Monday, then what was the day of the week on 29 November 2017?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

We know:

Now,
29 November 2010 ⇒ Monday,
29 November 2011 ⇒ Monday + 1 = Tuesday.
29 November 2012 ⇒ Tuesday + 2 (Leap Year) = Thursday.
29 November 2013 ⇒ Thursday + 1 = Friday.
29 November 2014 ⇒ Friday + 1 = Saturday.
29 November 2015 ⇒ Saturday + 1 = Sunday.
29 November 2016 ⇒ Sunday + 2 (Leap Year) = Tuesday.
29 November 2017 ⇒ Tuesday + 1 = Wednesday.
Hence, the correct answer is "Wednesday".Alternate MethodAs, we know that, the leap year has 2 odd days and ordinary year has only 1 odd day.
Since, all the odd days of the year from 2011 to 2017
= 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 9 days
Thus, given 29th Nov 2017 = Monday + 9 = Wednesday
Hence, the correct answer is 'option 4'.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

There are four persons standing in ground, "A" is standing to North-East of "D". Person "C" is south of "A" and east of "D". While person "B" is to South- West of "C" and south of "D". What is the direction of "B" with respect of "A"?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

According to the given conditions,

As it can be seen that "B" is in the South-West direction of "A".
Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2: South-West"

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

The given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded

Hence, the correct answer is option 4. 

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 7
Select the option that is different from the remaining three options.
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

The logic that follows here is:

Temperature, Rainfall, Precipitation are natural phenomena.

An anemometer is a device used for measuring wind speed and direction.

Hence, the correct answer is Anemometer.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

A question is given, followed by two statements labelled 1 and 2. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the question.
Question:
Is Mohita younger or older than Shubham?
Statements:

  1. Mohita is, at present, exactly 35 years younger than her father.
  2. Mohita's brother, Shubham, who was born in 1954, is exactly 34 years younger than his father.
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Given that -

  1. Mohita is, at present, exactly 35 years younger than her father.
  2. Mohita's brother, Shubham, who was born in 1954, is exactly 34 years younger than his father.

From both 1 and 2 , we find that Mohita is ( 35 - 34 ) = 1 year younger than Shubham .
Hence, Both statements 1 and 2 are necessary to answer the question.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 9
If the height and slant height of a right circular cone are 8 cm and 10 cm, respectively, then the volume of the cone is (use ): (correct the two decimal places)
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

Given:

The height and slant height of a right circular cone are 8 cm and 10 cm, respectively
Formula used:

Volume of the cone = , where 'l' and 'h' are the slant height and height of the cone.

Calculation:

Volume of the cone =

∴ The volume of the given cone is 301.71 cm3

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 10
The sum of the squares of the sides of a rhombus is 900 m2. What is the side of the rhombus.
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

Given:

4(side of rhombus)2 = 900 m2

Concept:

The side of a rhombus is equal.

Calculation:

Let the side of the rhombus 'a'

∴ Sum of side of Rhombus = 4a

∵ 4a2 = 900 m2

⇒ a2 = 900/4 m2

⇒ a = √(900/4) m

⇒ a = 30/2 m

⇒ a = 15 m

∴ The correct answer is 15 m.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 11
A man on his tour travels the first 180 km at 40 kmph and the next 120 km at 60 kmph. What is the average speed of the first 300 km?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

Given:

Speed for first 180 km = 40 kmph

Speed for next 120 km = 60 kmph

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

⇒ Time = Distance/Speed

Average speed = Total travelled distance/Total time taken

Calculation:

Since, we have to calculate average speed for first 300 kms, then first 180 km will counted at 40 kmph speed and remaining 120 kms counted at 60 kmph.

Time taken for first 180 km = 180/40 = 4.5 hours

Time taken for next 120 km = 120/60 = 2 hours

Total time taken = (4.5 + 2) hours = 6.5 hours

Total distance = 300 km

Average speed = 300/6.5 ≈ 46.15 kmph

Thus, the average speed for 300 km is 46.15 kmph.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

The percentage distribution of Anil’s expenditures is presented in the given pie chart.

If Anil’s monthly expenditure is Rs. 65,000, how much money does he spend on Food and Rent?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

GIVEN:
The percentage distribution of Anil's expenditures
CALCULATION:
Here, it is given that % spent on food = 25% and % spent on rent = 12%
As, Anil's expenditure = Rs65,000
Anil's expenditure on food = 25% of 65,000 = 16,250
Anil's expenditure on rent = 12% of 65,000 = 7,800
Total money spend on food and rent = 16,250 + 7,800 = Rs 24,050
Hence, money spent on food and rent is Rs 24,050 .

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 13
Rupam borrows from a bank at 10% compound interest per annum. After how much time the compound interest will become 21% of the principal?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

Given:

Rupam borrows from a bank at 10% compound interest per annum.

Formula used:

A = P (1 + R/100)T

Calculation:

Let Principal (P) = 100

∴ Amount (A) = 121

⇒ 121 = 100 × (1 + 10/100)T

(1 + 10/100)T = 121/100

(11/10)T = (11/10)2

T = 2 Years

After 2 years, the compound interest will become 21% of the principal.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

Select the sentence that contains a spelling error.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

The correct answer is: Option 2.
Explanation

  • The word "perseverence" is a misspelling of the correct word "perseverance", which means persistence in doing something despite difficulty or delay in achieving success.
    • Example: His perseverance in studying for the exams finally paid off when he topped the class.
  • "Perseverance" refers to the quality of continuing to try to achieve a particular aim despite difficulties. 
    • Example: The athlete's perseverance earned her a gold medal in the competition.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.
Other Related Points
Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: Researchers recommend that pesticides should not be used indiscriminately as they eliminate biodiversity for future generations. 
  • Option 3: The venerated singer was also secretive, moody and very intense, famous for erratic and difficult behaviour. 
  • Option 4: Elephants are in trouble mainly because people desire ivory trinkets that are made of tusks, often gruesomely killing them to achieve their purpose.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Fill in the blanks with suitable Preposition from the given alternatives.

I saw him walking ____________ the street.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

The correct answer is C. across

The preposition “across” is the most suitable choice here. It indicates movement from one side of something to the other, which fits the context of the sentence. For example, saying "I swam across the river" illustrates this usage effectively. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: The preposition "at" is incorrect in this context as it typically refers to a specific point in time or place, not movement across a space.
  • B: "For" indicates purpose and does not apply to the context of movement across a street, making it an unsuitable choice.
  • D: The preposition "with" suggests accompaniment or combination, which does not align with the action of walking across a street.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, is distinguished by its indication of movement from one side to another, setting it apart from the other choices. Thus, across is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

'Brittle'-

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

The correct answer is D. Formidable

The term "brittle" describes something that is hard yet easily breakable, akin to being fragile. For instance, old bones can be brittle and may fracture with minimal force. In contrast, "formidable" denotes something that evokes fear or respect due to its impressive size, power, or capability. An example is a strong athlete regarded as a formidable opponent in sports. Therefore, the opposite of 'brittle' is indeed 'formidable'.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect as "weak" (कमजोर) indicates a lack of strength, which aligns more closely with fragility than with a contrasting quality to brittleness.
  • B: This option is incorrect since "week" (सप्ताह) simply refers to a time frame of seven days and does not relate to the concept of strength or durability.
  • C: This option is incorrect because "fragile" (नाज़ुक) directly correlates with brittleness, indicating something that is easily broken, rather than its opposite.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant choice, stands out for its representation of strength and capability, clearly distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, Formidable is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Fill in the blank with the appropriate word:

A ________ of sheep were roaming in the meadow.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

The correct answer is D. flock

The term "flock" specifically refers to a group of sheep, making it the most appropriate choice to fill in the blank. This collective noun is widely accepted in English when discussing sheep, reflecting standard language usage.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: "Pack" is incorrect as it usually describes a group of wolves or dogs, not sheep.
  • B: "Colony" refers to groups of certain animals, particularly insects or birds, and is not suitable for sheep.
  • C: "Herd" can apply to various animals, like cattle, but "flock" is the more specific and preferred term for sheep.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specificity in referring to sheep, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, flock is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 18
Choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
He was asked to accelerate the pace of work.
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

The correct answer is C. Slacken

The term "accelerate" means to speed up or hasten a process. For instance, one might accelerate their studies to finish school sooner. Conversely, "slacken" implies reducing speed or intensity, such as when a manager decides to slacken project pace for improved quality. Thus, slacken is the direct opposite of accelerate.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: Check (जाँच): This means to inspect or verify something's accuracy, not directly opposing the idea of speeding up.
  • B: Control (नियंत्रण): This refers to managing or directing a situation, which does not inherently suggest slowing down.
  • D: Supervise (पर्यवेक्षण): This involves overseeing a task or project, which does not imply any change in pace.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant choice, stands out for its clear opposition to the term accelerate, effectively distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, slacken is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. 'belong'.Explanation

  • Present simple tense is used for general truths; "belong" fits this usage.
  • "Belong" agrees with the plural antecedent subject "Swans."
  • Other options are grammatically incorrect for stating a general fact.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'belong'.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e. 'for example'.Explanation

  • "For example" is used to introduce an instance or an illustration of a broader category or statement made previously.
  • In this context, it serves to provide a specific example (the Black Swan) that contrasts with the general statement about swans being recognized for their striking white feathers.
  • The passage is illustrating an exception to the common perception of swans with the mention of the Black Swan's unique coloration, making "for example" the appropriate choice to introduce this specific case.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'for example'.Other Related Points

  • Option (2) "of course" is typically used to emphasize something that is considered obvious or well-known, which does not suit the introduction of a specific contrasting example.
  • Option (3) "after all" is usually used to add information that confirms or goes back to something previously said, but it does not aptly introduce an example.
  • Option (4) "in addition" is used to add extra information to what has been previously stated, rather than to introduce a specific example that contrasts with what has been mentioned.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 21
Which of the following instruments is associated with Yehudi Menuhin?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

Yehudi Menuhin was an American-born violinist and conductor.

He is widely regarded as one of the greatest violinists of the 20th century.

He spent most of his career performing in Britain.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 22
The revolver was invented by _______.
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

The correct answer is B. Samuel Colt

Samuel Colt, an American inventor and industrialist, is credited with the invention of the revolver. He was instrumental in the development of the interchangeable parts manufacturing system, which revolutionized production processes. Colt's design for a revolver, featuring a revolving cylinder, was commissioned in large quantities by the U.S. government for use during the Mexican War. His factory later supplied arms during the Civil War and popularized interchangeable manufacturing in various industries. The most famous model produced by his company is the .45-caliber Peacemaker, introduced in 1873.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: John Browning was a prominent American firearms designer known for his contributions to small arms and automatic weapons, but he did not invent the revolver.
  • C: Henry Deringer, an American gunsmith, is recognized for creating the derringer handgun, not the revolver itself.
  • D: Theodor Bergmann was a notable firearms designer and manufacturer, but he is not credited with the invention of the revolver.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its historical significance in firearm development, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Samuel Colt is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 23
Who was the Mauryan ruler who was killed by Pushyamitra Shunga?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

The correct answer is B. Bridhadratha

Bridhadratha was the final ruler of the Maurya dynasty, who met his end in 185 BC at the hands of his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Shunga. Following this assassination, Pushyamitra established the Shunga dynasty, marking a significant transition in Indian history.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: Kunala, the son of Ashoka, ruled the Western part of the Mauryan Empire after Ashoka's death, but he was not assassinated by Pushyamitra Shunga.
  • C: Dasaratha, the grandson of Ashoka, governed the Eastern part of the empire and was not involved in the events surrounding Bridhadratha's death.
  • D: Tissa, also known as Vitashoka, was Ashoka's full brother and lived a monastic life, having no direct role in the political turmoil that led to Bridhadratha's assassination.

Conclusion:

Option: B, stands out as the most accurate choice, as it identifies Bridhadratha as the Mauryan ruler killed by Pushyamitra Shunga, distinguishing it clearly from the other options. Thus, Bridhadratha is the correct answer.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 24
Which act is also known as Black Act?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

The correct answer is A. Rowlatt Act

The Rowlatt Act, commonly referred to as the Black Act, was introduced by the British Government in 1919. It aimed to curb political dissent by granting the government extensive powers to suppress political activities and detain individuals without trial for up to two years. Named after Sir Sidney Rowlatt, the act sparked widespread protests, notably led by Mahatma Gandhi, who initiated a nationwide satyagraha against it. The act was particularly controversial as it prohibited Indians from possessing weapons, which angered communities such as the Sikhs, who traditionally carried the kirpan as part of their faith. This legislation was seen as a significant affront to Indian rights and liberties.

Details on Other Options:

  • B: The Hunter Act, while related to the investigation of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, is not referred to as the Black Act and does not share the same repressive measures as the Rowlatt Act.
  • C: The Charter Act pertains to the governance of British India and does not possess the same punitive characteristics as the Rowlatt Act, making it irrelevant in this context.
  • D: The Pitts Act, which relates to the administration of India, is not known as the Black Act and lacks the specific oppressive features associated with the Rowlatt Act.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its direct association with the term "Black Act," clearly distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, Rowlatt Act is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 25
INS Tushil, recently commissioned into the Indian Navy, is a class of:
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

The correct answer is C. Frigate

INS Tushil is a stealth-guided missile frigate belonging to the advanced Krivak III class, recently commissioned into the Indian Navy at Yantar Shipyard in Kaliningrad, Russia. This vessel is part of Project 1135.6 and is designed with advanced stealth technology to reduce radar and thermal signatures, making it less detectable. Its capabilities are tailored for multi-dimensional warfare, allowing it to conduct anti-air, anti-surface, and anti-submarine operations. The commissioning of INS Tushil significantly enhances India's maritime security and naval strength, while also reflecting the strategic defense relationship between India and Russia.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a ballistic missile refers to a weapon designed to deliver a payload over long distances, typically not related to naval vessels like INS Tushil.
  • B: This option is incorrect as a submarine is an underwater vessel, whereas INS Tushil is a surface ship designed for various naval operations.
  • D: This option is incorrect since an aircraft carrier is a large naval vessel designed to carry aircraft, which is distinctly different from the frigate classification of INS Tushil.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant choice, stands out for its classification as a frigate, which aligns with the capabilities and design of INS Tushil, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Frigate is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

According to the Census of 2011, which of the following states has the highest density of population per km2?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

The correct answer is Jharkhand.Mistake Points

  • You have to choose the correct answer from the given following options.
  • If Bihar is in the options then it will be the correct answer.
  • But as per the given options, Jharkhand will be the correct answer.
  • Population Density 2011 of India State:
    • Jharkhand: 414 people per square kilometer
    • Goa: 394 people per square kilometer
    • Maharashtra: 365 people per square kilometer
    • Gujrat: 308 people per square kilometer

Explanation

  • The density of the population is expressed as the number of persons per unit area.
  • It helps in getting a better understanding of the spatial distribution of population concerning land.
  • The density of population in India (2011) is 382 persons per sq km.
  • There has been a steady increase of more than 200 persons per sq km over the last 50 years as the density of the population increased from 117 persons/ sq km in 1951 to 382 persons/sq km in 2011.
  • The state of Arunachal Pradesh has a total population of roughly 1.4 million as per the census of 2011.
  • On an area of 84,000 km2, approximating a population density of about 17 pop./km2.
  • Delhi's population Density is 11,320 persons per sq km.
  • Among the northern Indian States, Bihar (1106), West Bengal (1028), and Uttar Pradesh (829) have higher densities, while Kerala (860) and Tamil Nadu (555) have higher densities among the peninsular Indian states.
  • States like Assam, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand, and Odisha have moderate densities.

Other Related Points Census 2011

  • The Indian Census is the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy and Education, Housing Household Amenities, Urbanisation, Fertility and Mortality, etc.
  • Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of the Country.
  • Census was introduced in India during the era of Lord Mayo in the year 1872. It came into force in 1881.
  • This census was conducted under the guidance of Mr. C. Chandramouli.
  • The slogan of census 2011 was ‘Our Census, Our future’.
  • The population of the nation as per the provisional figures of Census 2011 was 1210.19 million of which 623.7 million (51.54%) were males and 586.46 million (48.46%) were females. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India its population is more than the population of Brazil.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

Which of the following rivers is NOT included in the ‘Panchnad’?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

The correct answer is The Indus.Explanation

  • Panchnad comprises five rivers located on the left bank of the Indus.
  • They are also tributaries of the Indus river.
  • They originate across the Himalayas.
  • They are Ravi, Jhelum, Satluj, Beas, and Chenab.

Other Related Points

  • Indus River system:
    • It originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Tibetan region.
    • Other tributaries are the Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting and the Dras.
    • In Tibet, the Indus river is known asSingi Khamban'.
DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

Which of the following satellites is India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory?

Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

The correct answer is Astrosat.Explanation

  • Astrosat:
    • It is India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory.
    • This scientific satellite mission was launched on September 28, 2015, and endeavours for a more detailed understanding of our universe.
    • Its objective was to study celestial sources in X-ray, optical, and UV spectral bands as it will help in the better understanding of the universe.
    • It has a mission life of 5 years.
    • Its successful launch made India members of the select elite group of nations comprising the US, Japan, Russia, and Europe have their own space observatory.

Other Related Points

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 29
Where is the headquarters of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development located?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

The correct answer is D. Mumbai

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is headquartered in Mumbai. Established on July 12, 1982, NABARD plays a crucial role in the development of agriculture and rural areas in India. It is responsible for formulating policies and planning initiatives that support economic activities in rural India, providing essential credit facilities and refinancing options for agricultural projects.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because the headquarters of NABARD is not located in New Delhi; it is situated in Mumbai, which is the main hub for many financial institutions in India.
  • B: This option is incorrect as Calcutta (now Kolkata) is not the location of NABARD's headquarters, despite being an important city in India's economic landscape.
  • C: This option is incorrect since Noida is primarily known for its IT and industrial sectors and does not house the NABARD headquarters, which is firmly established in Mumbai.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its correct identification of NABARD's headquarters in Mumbai, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Mumbai is the correct choice.

DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 30
Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains a list of central and state laws which CANNOT be challenged in courts?
Detailed Solution for DGAFMS Group C Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

The correct answer is D. Ninth Schedule

The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution includes a compilation of central and state laws that cannot be challenged in court. Currently, there are 284 laws protected from judicial review. A significant ruling by the Supreme Court in the case of IR Coelho vs. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) clarified that any laws added to the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can be examined if they violate the Constitution's Basic Structure. This means that amendments or laws enacted post this date can face judicial scrutiny if they infringe on fundamental constitutional principles. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in 1951 through Article 31B, alongside Article 31A, primarily to safeguard legislation related to agrarian reforms and the abolition of the Zamindari system.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: The Sixth Schedule is incorrect as it pertains to the establishment of autonomous councils for tribal governance in certain northeastern states, focusing on protecting tribal rights rather than legislative immunity.
  • B: The Twelfth Schedule outlines the powers and responsibilities of municipalities, ensuring local governance, but it does not provide any legal immunity from court challenges.
  • C: The Third Schedule contains the forms of oaths for various constitutional positions, and it does not relate to the immunity of laws from judicial review.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant option, is distinguished by its unique provision of legal immunity for specific laws, setting it apart from the other options. Thus, Ninth Schedule is the correct choice.

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