JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ

Statement 1 is correct.

The oldest Veda, i.e. the Rig Veda was composed about 3500 years ago. It includes more than a thousand hymns, called sukta. These hymns, composed by sages (rishis) are in praise of various gods and goddesses. Agni (the god of fire), Indra (a warrior god) and Soma (a plant from where a special drink was prepared) are the three gods that were especially important.

Statement 2 is correct.

There were various battles fought during Rig Vedic period for cattle, land, water and to capture people.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Atharvaveda is completely different from the other three Vedas- Rig Veda, Samaveda and Yajurveda. It contains charms and skills to ward off evils and diseases. Its contents throw light on the beliefs and practices of the non - Aryans. The Samaveda is the Veda of melodies and chants. It is an ancient Vedic Sanskrit text, and part of the scriptures of Hinduism.

Statement 1 is correct.

The zamindars held extensive personal lands termed milkiyat, meaning property. Milkiyat lands were cultivated for the private use of zamindars, often with the help of hired or servile labour. The zamindars could sell, bequeath or mortgage these lands at will.

Statement 2 is correct.

Zamindars spearheaded the colonisation of agricultural land, and helped in settling cultivators by providing them with the means of cultivation, including cash loans. The buying and selling of zamindaris accelerated the process of monetisation in the countryside. In addition, zamindars sold the produce from their milkiyat lands. Zamindars often established markets (haats) to which peasants also came to sell their produce.

Statement 3 is correct.

Control over military resources was a source of power for the zamindars. Most zamindars had fortresses (qilachas) as well as armed contingent comprising units of cavalry, artillery and infantry.

ADMM-Plus

About: It is an annual meeting of Defence Ministers of 10 ASEAN countries and eight dialogue partner countries. The ADMM-Plus countries include ten ASEAN Member States (Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar and Cambodia) and eight Plus countries, namely Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russian Federation, and the United States.

Aim:

• It aims to promote mutual trust and confidence between defence establishments through greater dialogue and transparency.

Areas of cooperation:

• Maritime security, counter-terrorism, humanitarian assistance and disaster relief, peacekeeping operations, and military medicine.

Hence, Option C is correct.

According to the accounts of the foreign travellers, the Vijayanagar Empire was one of the wealthiest parts of the world at that time. The chief items of exports were cotton and silk clothes, spices, rice, iron, saltpetre and sugar. The imports consisted of horses, pearls, copper, coral, mercury, China silk and velvet clothes.

• Abul Fazl, while writing in the Ain-i- Akbari, speaks of fourteen silsilahs of the Sufis. These silsilahs were divided into two types: Ba-shara and Be- shara.

• Ba-shara was those orders that followed the Islamic Law (Sharia) and its directives, such as namaz and roza. Chief amongst these were the Chishti, Suhrawardi, Firdawsi, Qadiri and Naqshbandi silsilahs.

• The Be-shara silsilahs were not bound by the Sharia. The Qalandars belonged to this group.

• Sheikh Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar of Ajodhan (Pattan in Pakistan) popularised the Chishti silsilah in modern Haryana and Punjab. He opened his door of love and generosity to all. Baba Farid, as he was called, was respected by both Hindus and Muslims. His verses, written in Punjabi, are quoted in the Adi Granth.

• The term Kalam refers to the orthodox doctrines that prevailed in Islam. Kalam were challenged by the rationalist arguments developed by the Ashari School.

The position of shudras improved in this period, as they were now permitted to listen to the Ramayana, the Mahabharata and the Puranas. They could also worship a new god Krishna. They were also allowed to perform certain domestic rites, which brought fee to the priests. The women belonging to the upper varnas lacked proprietary rights and this, along with their complete dependence on men for their livelihood, was the main reason behind their subordination.

Statement 2 is incorrect: They encouraged certain practices like post-puberty marriage and widow remarriage, which were disapproved by the Dharmashastras. We learn about Virashaiva traditions from ‘vachanas’ composed in Kannada.

• Statement 1 is correct: Santiniketan, popularly known today as a university town, is located in the Birbhum district in West Bengal.
• Statement 2 is not correct: It was originally an ashram built by Debendranath Tagore, where anyone, irrespective of caste and creed, could come and spend time meditating on the one Supreme God.
• Debendranath, father of the Poet, Rabindranath, was also known as Maharshi (which means one who is both saint and sage) and was a leading figure of the Indian Renaissance.
• Statement 3 is correct: The area is flanked on two sides by the rivers, the Ajay and the Kopai.
   

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Bakhshali manuscript, an ancient Indian text, was found in 1881, buried in a field in a village called Bakhshali, near Peshawar, now in Pakistan.
• Statement 2 is correct: Radiocarbon dating reveals the fragmentary text, which is inscribed on 70 pieces of birch bark and contains hundreds of zeroes, dates to as early as the 3rd or 4th century. This makes it one of the world’s oldest recorded origins of the zero symbol that we use today.

• Socialist ideas began to spread rapidly, especially because many young persons, who had participated actively in the Non-Cooperation Movement, were unhappy with its outcome and were dissatisfied with the Gandhian policies and ideas, as well as the alternative Swarajist programme.
• Several socialist and communist groups came into existence all over the country.
• In Bombay, S.A. Dange published a pamphlet Gandhi vs Lenin, and started the first socialist weekly, The Socialist.
• In Bengal, Muzaffar Ahmed brought out Navayug and later founded the Langal in co-operation with the poet NazruI Islam.
• In Punjab, Ghulam Hussain and others published Inquilab.
• In Madras, M. Singaravelu founded the Labour-Kisan Gazette.

Statement 1 is not correct: C. Subramania Bharathi was a poet, freedom fighter and social reformer from Tamil Nadu.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: He was known as Mahakavi Bharathiyar and the laudatory epithet Mahakavi means a great poet.

• His songs on nationalism and freedom of India helped to rally the masses to support the Indian Independence Movement in Tamil Nadu.
• Bharathi was also against the caste system. He declared that there were only two castes-men and women and nothing more than that.
• He believed in women’s rights, gender equality and women emancipation. He opposed child marriage, dowry and supported widow remarriage

• Guruvayur Satyagraha took place in (1931–32) in the present Thrissur district, which was then part of Ponnani Taluk of Malabar district, now part of Kerala. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It was an effort to allow entry for untouchables into the Guruvayur Temple. Hence, statement 1 is not correct It was led by K. Kelappan, who undertook a hunger strike for 12 days until it was abandoned because of a request from Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress. Kelappan was popularly known as Kerala Gandhi. Mahad Satyagrah was launched by Ambedkar to establish the right of untouchables to draw water from public wells and tanks. 

The Company did not pay much attention to problems of famine and famine relief. It had no administrative machinery and experienced personnel to deal with the problems of famine. In the early 19th century, it did try to solve problems of famine-affected people by half-hearted measures.

• First Famine Commission (1880): After the famine of 1876-78 Government of India appointed the first Famine Commission in 1778 under John Strachey, which submitted its Report in 1880. It formulated general principles of famine-relief policy and suggested preventive and protective measures for famine relief.
• Second Famine Commission (1898): The famine of 1896-97 led to the appointment of the second commission under James Lyall. It mostly endorsed earlier recommendations and recommended a freer grant of gratuitous relief, a more liberal remission of land revenue, and special attention to weaker sections.
• Third Famine Commission (1901): The famine of 1899-1900 led to the appointment of the Third Famine Commission in 1901 under Antony MacDonell. It emphasized the moral strategy of putting the heart into famine-affected people and building up their will-power by rendering assistance to them immediately after the danger of famine is scented.
• Woodhead Commission (1944): The Bengal famine of 1943 led to the appointment of the Woodhead Commission. It recommended the creation of the All-India Food Council, monopoly procurement and distribution of food grains through a chain of fair-price shops, etc. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• The Savanna landscape is typified by tall grass and short trees. The trees are deciduous, shedding their leaves in the cool, dry season to prevent excessive loss of water through transpiration, e.g. acacias.

• The grass is tall and coarse, growing 6 to 12 feet high. The elephant grass may attain a height of even 15 feet. The grass tends to grow in compact tufts and has long roots which reach down in search of water.

• The vegetative luxuriance reaches its peak in the rainy season when trees renew their foliage and flower. Due to the presence of trees along with the luxuriant tall grass this landscape is also known as 'parkland' or 'bush-veld'. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• In tropical monsoon forests, the ecosystems which develop are very similar to the true rainforests which develop in equatorial climates, but are more open, less luxuriant & contains far fewer species. The natural vegetation of tropical monsoon land depends on the amount of summer rainfall. Trees are normally deciduous, because of the marked dry period, during which they shed their leaves to withstand drought.

• China Type climate supports luxuriant vegetation. The lowlands carry both evergreen broad-leaved forests and deciduous trees. On the highlands, are various species of conifers such as pines and cypresses which are important softwoods. Perennial plant growth is not checked by either a dry season or a cold season.

• Steppes occur in temperate climates, which lie between the tropics and polar regions. A steppe is a dry, grassy plain. Steppes are semi-arid, meaning they receive 25 to 50 centimetres (10-20 inches) of rain each year. This is enough rain to support short grasses, but not enough for tall grasses or trees to grow. Many kinds of grasses grow on steppes, but few grow taller than half a meter.

• A Shield volcano is characterized by gentle upper slopes and somewhat steeper lower slopes. Shield volcanoes are composed almost entirely of relatively thin lava flows built up over a central vent. They are formed by low viscosity basaltic magma that flows easily down slope away from the summit vent. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The low viscosity of the magma allows the lava to travel down slope on a gentle slope, but as it cools and its viscosity increases, its thickness builds up on the lower slopes giving a somewhat steeper lower slope. Most shield volcanoes have a roughly circular or oval shape in map view. Calderas are a common feature on shield volcanoes. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Very little pyroclastic material is found within a shield volcano, except near the eruptive vents, where small amounts of pyroclastic material accumulate as a result of fire fountaining events.

• The best known shield volcanoes are the ones that make up the Hawaiian Islands, especially Mauna Loa and Mauna Kea. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• The amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface varies due to angle of the sun’s radiation, length of the day, the distance between the sun and the earth, sunspots and effects of the atmosphere. Hence, all of the options given above are correct.

• The solar energy radiated from the outer surface of the sun in the form of electromagnetic radiation, which travels at the speed of 3,00,000 km per second. The solar energy received at the earth’s surface is called insolation or solar radiation. The amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface varies significantly (decreases) from the equator towards poles due to certain astronomical and geographical factors viz.

  • Angle of the sun’s radiation: The angle between the rays of the sun and the tangent to the surface of the earth at a given place largely determines the amount of insolation to be received at that place.

  • Length of day: If all the other conditions are favourable and equal then the longer duration of sunshine and shorter duration of night enables the ground surface to receive a larger amount of insolation. On the other hand, the shorter the duration of sunshine and longer the period of the night, the lesser the amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface. The length of the day varies at all places except at the equator due to inclination of the earth’s axis, it’s parallelism and the earth’s rotation and revolution.

  • Distance between the sun and the earth: As per rule, the earth at the time of perihelion, when it is nearest to the sun, should receive maximum insolation while it should receive minimum insolation at the time of aphelion when the earth is at the greatest distance from the sun.

  • Sunspots: Sunspots are created in the solar outer surface due to periodic disturbances and explosions. The number of sunspots varies from year to year. The energy radiated from the sun increases when the number of sunspots increases and therefore the amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface also increases. On the other hand, the amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface decreases when the number of sunspots decreases.

  • Effects of the atmosphere: The electromagnetic solar radiation or the incoming shortwave solar radiation has to pass through a thick layer of the earth's atmosphere and hence it is partly absorbed, partly reflected and partly scattered by the atmosphere and partly transmitted to the earth’s surface.

• India and US both reiterated commitment to step efforts to implement the G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatment in a predictable, timely, orderly and coordinated manner. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• India and US Both countries shared the re-energized global efforts to increase climate ambition as well as respective domestic efforts to meet publicly expressed climate goals. Both sides affirmed their commitment to debt sustainability, transparency in bilateral lending, and coordinating closely on extending fair and equal debt treatment to countries facing debt distress.

• The two sides will continue to engage in discussions relating to the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) for sharing of financial account information. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The laterite soils are commonly found in the area of high altitude and heavy rainfall in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Orissa, Assam and Meghalaya extending over 13 million hectares. They generally form under hot and humid climatic conditions. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The lateritic soils are particularly found on high flat erosion surfaces in areas of high and seasonal rainfall. Loss of nutrients by accelerated leaching is the most common feature which renders the soil infertile. The pebbly crust is the important feature of laterites which is formed due to alteration of wet and dry periods. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• As a result of weathering, laterite becomes extremely hard. Thus, their characteristics include complete chemical decomposition of the parent rock, complete leaching of silica, a reddish-brown colour given by the oxides of aluminium and iron and lack of humus. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• The crops which are generally grown are rice, millets, sugarcane on lowland and tropical plantation such as rubber, coffee and tea on uplands.

• Cold air masses: Cold air masses originate in the polar and arctic regions. They are characterized by the following properties in their source regions:

  • Specific humidity is extremely low. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Stability increases and normal lapse rate of temperature is low.

• Cold air masses after moving from their source regions and reaching other areas have the following properties:

  • Temperature of that areas where cold air masses reach starts decreasing.

  • The air mass is warmed from below and thus normal lapse rate increases and the air becomes unstable. This mechanism causes convective currents.

  • If the cold air mass lies over warm ocean surface, then its specific humidity increases and cumulo- nimbus clouds are formed.

• Precipitation occurs only when the cold air mass lies over warm ocean surface but if it lies over warm continent, there is clear weather. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• If the cold air mass lies partly over warm ocean surface and partly over the adjoining cold land surface, then cyclonic conditions are induced.

• Warm air mass: Warm air mass is that whose temperature is greater than the surface temperature of the areas over which it moves.

• Warm air masses generally originate in the subtropical regions characterized by anticyclonic conditions. Hence, statement 3 is the correct.

Madden Julian Oscillation (MJO):

• The Madden Julian Oscillation (MJO) is one of the most important atmosphere-ocean coupled phenomena in the tropics, which has profound influence on the Indian Summer Monsoon.

• The MJO can be defined as an eastward moving 'pulse' of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The MJO is the leading mode of tropical intra-seasonal climate variability and is characterized by organization on a global spatial scale with a period typically ranging between 30-60 days.

• When Madden Julian Oscillation is over Indian Ocean during Monsoon season, it brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• On the other hand, when it witnesses a longer cycle and stays over the Pacific Ocean, MJO brings bad news for the Indian Monsoon. It is linked with enhanced and suppressed rainfall activity in the tropics and is very important for the Indian monsoonal rainfall.

It has the following characteristics:

• MJO is a massive weather event consisting of deep convection coupled with atmospheric circulation, moving slowly eastward over the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

• MJO is an equatorial traveling pattern of anomalous rainfall that is planetary in scale.

• Each cycle lasts approximately 30–60 days. Also known as the 30-60 day oscillation, 30-60 day wave, or intra-seasonal oscillation (ISO).

• The MJO involves variations in wind, sea surface temperature (SST), cloudiness, and rainfall. Based on the place of convective activity the period of MJO is divided into 1-8 phases with each phase roughly last for 7 to 8 days.

• Since the MJO is the most important mode of tropical intra-seasonal variability with potentially important influences on monsoon activity in the Asian regions on extended range time scale (beyond 7 days to one month), the capability of statistical or numerical models in capturing MJO signal is very crucial in capturing the active/break cycle of monsoon.

• Igneous rocks: Rocks formed out of solidification of magma (molten rock below the surface) and lava (molten rock above the surface) are known as igneous rocks. The igneous rocks are unfossiliferous as they form under conditions of high temperatures. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Igneous rocks are classified based on texture. If molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very large. Sudden cooling (at the surface) results in small and smooth grains. Intermediate conditions of cooling would result in intermediate sizes of grains making up igneous rocks. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Sedimentary rocks: Rocks (igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction turn into sedimentary rocks. This process is called lithification. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Metamorphic rocks: When rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks, metamorphosis occurs. In the process of metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement is called foliation or lineation.

• While the Earth appears to be round when viewed from the vantage point of space, it is actually closer to an ellipsoid. It is slightly flattened at the North and the South Poles and bulge in the middle. Its equatorial radius is 6378 km, but its polar radius is 6357 km - in other words, the Earth is slightly flattened. This is due to the centrifugal force created by the earth’s constant rotation. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• The magnetic poles of the earth are not fixed on the surface but wander quite a bit. The pole in the Northern Hemisphere seems to be moving northwards in geographic latitude by about 10 kilometers per year, but the motion is only an average. On any given day, it moves erratically by many tens of meters because of changes in the currents inside earth's core, as well as the influence of electrical currents in the ionosphere, and the changing space environment due to solar storms and winds. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• By dating the rocks on either side of the Mid Oceanic Ridge in the Atlantic Ocean, geologists discovered that the polarity of the Earth's field changes over the course of thousands of years. They are called Polarity Reversals. There have been about 170 of these reversals during the last 76 million years according to geological evidence. We are currently living during a period that has been called the Brunhes Magnetic Chron when the South Magnetic Pole is in the Northern Hemisphere. During the previous Matumaya Magnetic Chron, the North Magnetic Pole was in the Northern Hemisphere. Presently, Earth's magnetic field is weakening in strength by 5% every 100 years. It may be near zero in another few thousand years at this rate. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Thermosphere: The part of the atmosphere beyond the mesosphere is known as the thermosphere wherein temperature increases rapidly with increasing height.

• It is estimated that the temperature at its upper limit becomes extremely high. This temperature cannot be measured by an ordinary thermometer because the gases become very light due to extremely low density. That is why one does not feel warm when one stretches one’s arm in the air.

• This layer helps in radio transmission. In fact, radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The International Space Station and satellites orbit in this layer. (Though the temperature is high, the atmosphere is extremely rarified – gas molecules are spaced hundreds of kilometers apart. Hence a person or an object in this layer doesn’t feel the heat). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Aurora’s are also observed in lower parts of this layer. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Communalism means love for one’s religious community in preference to the nation and a tendency to promote the communal interest at the cost of the interest of other religious communities. It has its roots in the British rule where the 1909, 1919 and 1935 Acts had introduced communal representation for the Muslims, Sikhs and others.

“When we say that India follows a policy of non-alignment, it means
(i) that India has no military alliances with countries of either bloc or indeed with any nation;
(ii) India has an independent approach to foreign policy; and
(iii) India attempts to maintain friendly relations with all countries”

• Freedom of Religion is a Fundamental Right provided under Articles 25-28 of the Constitution. Freedom of religion also includes the freedom of conscience. This means that a person may choose any religion or may choose not to follow any religion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Freedom of Religion includes the right to not just practice one’s religion but also to propagate it. This includes persuading people to join one’s religion and willful conversion from one religion to another. The Constitution bars forceful conversions and conversions done by inducements. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Freedom of Religion is available to not just Indian citizens but also to foreign nationals residing within Indian territory. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
• The 38^th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the President in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the President is not beyond judicial review.

Hence, option (c) is correct.
 

- Supremacy of Parliament: Both India and the UK have parliamentary supremacy, meaning the legislature is the supreme legal authority. However, in India, the Constitution is supreme, while in the UK, Parliament is sovereign.

- Elected head of state: This is not a similarity. India has an elected President, while the UK has a hereditary monarch.

- Majority party rule: In both systems, the party or coalition with a majority in the lower house forms the government.

Correct answer: C: 1 and 3 only.