JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ

• Mohiniyattam literally interpreted as the dance of ‘Mohini’, the celestial enchantress of Hindu mythology, is the classical solo dance form of Kerala. Mohiniyattam as seen today has evolved through a long process of evolution. It traces its origin to the temples of Kerala.
• Salient Features of Mohiniyattam Dance:
  • Mohiniyattam is characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps. It belongs to the lasya style which is feminine, tender, and graceful.
  • The movements are emphasized by the glides and the up and down movement on toes, like the waves of the sea and the swaying of the coconut, palm trees, and the paddy fields.
  • The footwork is not terse and is rendered softly. Importance is given to the hand gestures and
• Mukhabhinaya with subtle facial expressions.
  • Movements have been borrowed from Nangiar Koothu and female folk dances Kaikottikali and the
• Tiruvatirakali.
  • Mohiniyattam lays emphasis on acting. The dancer identifies herself with the character and sentiments existing in the compositions like the Padams and Pada Varnams which give ample opportunity for facial expressions.
• The hand gestures, 24 in number, are mainly adopted from Hastalakshana Deepika, a text followed by
• Kathakali. Few are also borrowed from NatyaShastra, AbhinayaDarpana, and Balarambharatam.
  • The gestures and facial expressions are closer to the natural (gramya) and the realistic (lokadharmi) than to the dramatic or rigidly conventional (natyadharmi).
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Ayagar System

• It was a Socio-economic system which originated first in the Karnataka region in ancient period and then spread to Tamil and Andhra regions in the medieval period.
• It meant that the requirements of the rural population in certain goods and social services were met by a staff of professionals, who were remunerated not with the payment for work done, but summarily with a fraction of gross agricultural produce, called Ayam.
• All village artisans and menials together with the community administrative staff were therefore known by the common name of ayagars (receivers of the ayam).

Hence, option (a) is correct.
 

• Statement 1 is not correct: Early Jain Tirthankar images and portraits of kings, are found at Mathura. Images of Vaishnava (mainly Vishnu and his various forms) and Shaiva (mainly the lingas and mukhalingas) faiths are also found at Mathura but Buddhist images are found in large numbers. It may be noted that the images of Vishnu and Shiva are represented by their ayudhas (weapons).
• Statement 2 is correct: The Kushans brought together masons and other artisans trained in different schools and countries. Indian craftsmen came in contact with the Greeks and the Romans, especially in the northwest frontier in Gandhara giving rise to the Gandhara school of art which had a strong Greco-Roman influence.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Gandhara art spread to many regions thereby influencing various local schools like Mathura and Sarnath. Mathura school produced many Buddha images but was also famous for the headless erect statue of Kanishka whose name is inscribed on its lower part.

Rashtrakutas (755 – 975 A.D.)

• The Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin and Kannada language was their mother tongue.
• Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
• His successor Krishna I was also a great conqueror. He defeated the Gangas and the eastern Chalukyas of Vengi. He built the magnificent rock-cut monolithic Kailasa temple at Ellora. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Amoghavarsha I (815- 880 A.D.) ruled for a long period of 64 years. He had lost control over Malwa and Gangavadi.
• Yet, his reign was popular for the cultural development. He was a follower of Jainism.
• He was also a patron of letters and he himself wrote the famous Kannada work, Kavirajamarga.
• He had also built the Rashtrakuta capital, the city of Malkhed or Manyakheda.

• Statement 1 is correct: The shape of the main temple tower known as vimana in Tamil Nadu is like a stepped pyramid that rises up geometrically rather than the curving shikhara of North India. In the South Indian temple, the word ‘shikhara’ is used only for the crowning element at the top of the temple which is usually shaped like a small stupa or an octagonal cupola— this is equivalent to the amlak and kalasha of North Indian temples.
• Statement 2 is not correct: At the entrance to the North Indian temple’s garbhagriha, it would be usual to find images such as mithunas and the river goddesses, Ganga and Yamuna, in the south you will generally find sculptures of fierce dvarapalas or the door-keepers guarding the temple. It is common to find a large water reservoir, or a temple tank, enclosed within the complex in the Dravida style temple.
• Statement 3 is correct: At some of the most sacred temples in South India, the main temple in which the garbhagriha is situated has, in fact, one of the smallest towers. This is because it is usually the oldest part of the temple. With the passage of time, the population and size of the town associated with that temple would have increased, and it would have become necessary to make a new boundary wall around the temple. This would have been taller than the last one, and its gopurams would have been even loftier. So, for instance, the Srirangam temple in Tiruchirapally has as many as seven ‘concentric’ rectangular enclosure walls, each with gopurams. The outermost is the newest, while the tower right in the center housing the garbhagriha is the oldest.

Nayanars and Alvars

• There were 63 Nayanars, who belonged to different caste backgrounds such as potters, “untouchable” workers, peasants, hunters, soldiers, Brahmanas and chiefs. The best known among them were Appar, Sambandar, Sundarar and Manikkavasagar. There are two sets of compilations of their songs – Tevaram and Tiruvacakam.
• There were 12 Alvars, who came from equally divergent backgrounds, the best known being Periyalvar, his daughter Andal, Tondaradippodi Alvar and Nammalvar. Their songs were compiled in the Divya Prabandham.

Hence, option (b) is correct.
 

About:

• Thrissur Pooram is celebrated in the Malayalam month of Medam (April-May).
• This festival is considered the “mother of all poorams”.
• It is held in the Thekkinkadu Maidanam in Thrissur Celebrations:
  • Obeisance to the Shiva:
    • The Pooram is centered on the Vadakkunnathan Temple, with all these temples sending their processions to pay obeisance to the Shiva, the presiding deity.
    • The Thampuran is believed to have chalked out the program and the main events of the Thrissur
• Pooram festival.
  • Flag Hoisting:
    • The pooram officially begins from the event of flag hoisting.
    • The flag hoisting ceremony (Kodiyettam) begins seven days before Thrissur Pooram. 
• All the participating temples of Thrissur Pooram are present for the ceremony, and there is a light fireworks to announce the commencement of the festival.
  • Poora Vilambharam:
    • Poora Vilambaram is a custom where the elephant pushes open the south entrance gate of the
• Vadakkunnathan Temple, which hosts the Thrissur Pooram, with the idol of 'Neithilakkavilamma' atop of it.
  • Madathil varavu:
    • One of the major events in Thrissur Pooram is "Madathil varavu", a panchavadhyam melam, participating more than 200 artists, with instruments such as thimila, madhalam, trumpet, cymbal and edakka.
  • Sample Vedikettu - the fireworks show:
    • On the fourth day after flag hoisting, Thiruvambady and Paramekkavu Devaswoms present a one-hour-long firework show known as the Sample Vedikettu. 

Statement 1 is not correct: The state’s geography is divided between a central valley that accounts for
about 10% of the landmass of Manipur and is home primarily to the Meitei and Meitei Pangals who
constitute roughly 64.6% of the state’s population.

• The remaining 90% of the geographical area comprises hills, surrounding the valley, that are home
• to the recognised tribes, about 35.4% of the population.
• Manipur’s two major tribal communities – Naga and Kuki – live in the hill districts, which account for about 90% of the state’s area.

Statement 2 is correct: The Meiteis are largely concentrated in the Imphal Valley.
They are currently categorized as OBCs or SCs, the Meitei people dominate in more than half the State’s Assembly constituencies. A majority of them identify as Hindu while about 8% are Muslim.

• Manipur has two major tribal communities – Naga and Kuki – live in the hill districts, which account for about 90% of the state’s area. The Meiteis account for roughly 64.6% of the state’s population and are largely concentrated in the Imphal Valley. They are currently categorized as OBCs or SCs, the Meitei people dominate in more than half the State’s Assembly constituencies. Hence, it is not the reason for the demand.
• Demand of Meitei community for ST status
• Loss of identity:
  • In their plea before the High Court, the petitioners argued that the Meitei community was recognised as a tribe before the merger of the princely state of Manipur with the Union of India in 1949.
  • They also claim that they lost their identity as a tribe after the merger.
• Victimization of the community & reduction in population:
  • In various pleas to the state and central governments, the STDCM has stated that as a result of being left out of the ST list, “the community has been victimized without any constitutional safeguards to date.
  • Their population which was 59% of the total population of Manipur in 1951 has now been reduced to 44% as per 2011 Census data”. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Preserving the community & land rights:
  • It was argued in court that the demand for ST status arose from the need to “preserve” the community, and “save the ancestral land, tradition, culture and language” of the Meiteis.
    • The Meitei/Meetei have been gradually marginalised in their ancestral land. Hence option 3 is correct.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Percussion instruments are the oldest man-made musical instruments and produce music based upon percussion. The family of percussion musical instruments includes those which require the use of methods like striking, rubbing, shaking or friction for playing them.

• Percussion instruments are of two main types: pitched and unpitched percussion instruments.

Statement 3 is not correct: Pitched percussion have specific notes and pitches while the latter lacks the identified pitch.
 

The International Buddhist Confederation (IBC), under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture celebrated Ashadha Purnima, as the Dharma Chakra Pravartana Divas.

• The auspicious day of Ashadha Purnima, which falls on the full moon day of the month of Ashadha as per the Indian lunar calendar, is also known as Esala Poya in Sri Lanka and Asanha Bucha in Thailand.
• The day marks Buddha’s first teaching after attaining Enlightenment to the first five ascetic disciples on the full-moon day of Ashadha at ‘Deer Park’, Risipatana Mrigadaya in the present day Sarnath, near Varanasi, India

State: Meghalaya
Movement: The Khasi Rebellion of 1833
Start Year: 1833

• Tirot Sing, also known as U Tirot Sing Syiem was a Khasi chief of the early 19th century.
• He drew his lineage from the Syiemlieh clan and declared war and fought against British for  attempts to take over control of the Khasi Hills. In the Anglo-Khasi War, the Khasis resorted to 
• Tirot Sing was eventually captured by the British in January 1833 and deported to Dhaka.
• Pair 2 is not correct: Veer Surendra Sai

State: Odisha
Movement: 1857 Rebellion of Sambalpur
Start Year: 1857

• Surendra Sai was born in the year 1809 in Rajpur Khinda, located about 35 kms. from Sambalpur.
• Next in line to the throne of Sambalpur after the death of Maharaja Sai in 1827, Surendra Sai helped the tribal people in the fight against the British by encouraging their language and cultural development.
• He was a man with great military genius. He guarded the passes to check military inflow of the 
• Britishers in Sambalpur.
• During the 1857 Mutiny, the Hazirabagh Jail was broken down and prisoners were liberated including Veer Surendra Sai. The 1857 rebellion of Sambalpur was essentially a tribal rebellion.
• Pair 3 is correct: Paona Brajabashi

State: Manipur
Movement: Khongjom Battle of 1891
Start Year: 1891

• The Anglo-Manipuri war or the Khongjom Battle broke out in 1891. Attempting to resist British  forces marching from Tamu, 700 Manipuri soldiers were dispatched to Thoubal led by Major  General Paona Brajabashi, a brave soldier of the kingdom of Manipur.
• Manipur celebrates Khongjom Day every year on 23rd April.
• Pair 4 is not correct: Laxman Naik

State: Odisha
Movement: Koraput Revolt, 1942
Start Year: 1942

• Laxman Naik, belonging to the Bhumia tribe of Odisha, was accepted as the tribal leader by the  people of Koraput and its surrounding region like Malkanagiri and Tentulipada.
• The tribal people devoted themselves for the cause of national freedom. He mobilized the tribal  people for development works like construction of roads, building bridges and establishing  schools. He asked the villagers not to pay any tax. He spearheaded the fight against colonial oppression  and exploitation.
• During the Quit India Movement 1942, he was nominated to represent Matili. He used  nonviolence as a main weapon against colonial power.
• The tribal people called him “Gandhi of Malkangiri.

Alluri Sitarama Raju: He was born on 04 July 1897, in a village called Mogallu near Bhimavaram in Andhra Pradesh, Alluri Sitarama Raju was a sanyasi and a strong believer in justice who raised his voice against unlawful British policies. He had led the Rampa rebellion, which was launched in 1922. He was honoured for his valour and fiery spirit with the title, “Manyam Veerudu” (Hero of the Jungle).

• Statement 1 is correct: It is a traditional form of art and craft practised by the Lambani community, also known as the Banjara community in Karnataka.
• Statement 2 is correct: Lambani embroidery is a vibrant and intricate form of textile embellishment characterized by colourful threads, mirror work, and a rich array of stitch patterns. Lambani art includes a wide range of products, such as clothing, textiles, accessories, home decor items, and jewellery. It received the status of Geographic Indication (GI) tag in 2010 from Karnataka. Lambani craft tradition involves skillfully stitching together small pieces of discarded fabric to create a beautiful fabric.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Lambanis, also called Lambadis or Banjaras, were nomadic tribes who came from Afghanistan to Rajasthan and have now spread themselves across Karnataka and other parts of India. The language of Banjara is known as “Gorboli” “Gor mati Boli” or “Brinjari” an independent dialect (under the category of Indo-Aryan language). They are known by different names like:
  • Lambada or Lambadi, Sukali in Andhra Pradesh
  • Lambani in Karnataka
  • Gwar or Gwaraiya in Rajasthan

• Wajid Ali Shah started two distinct forms of Kathak, one is Rahas and the other one is called Raas. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• He established the famous Parikhaana (abode of fairies) in which hundreds of beautiful and talented girls were taught music and dancing by expert-teachers engaged by the royal patron. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The famous poet Mirza Ghalib received the gracious patronage of Wajid Ali Shah, who granted him a pension of Rupees five hundred per year in 1854. So, Statement 3 is correct.

• The density of population is defined as the ratio of the total number of people per unit area of land. It is a crude measure of human and land relationships. To get a better insight into the human-land ratio in terms of pressure of population on total cultivable land, the physiological and the agricultural densities should be found out which are significant for a country like India having a large agricultural population.

• Physiological density refers to the number of people per unit area of net cultivable land. It is a basic indicator of a country's food-producing capability and the human pressures placed upon it.

  • Physiological density = total population / net cultivated area

  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Agricultural density refers to the total number of agricultural population per unit area of net cultivable area. Here Agricultural population includes cultivators and agricultural labourers and their family members.

  • Agricultural density = total agricultural population / net cultivable area

• The Pygmies:

  • They are the extremely short-statured people of the Congo Basin in Africa.

  • They are scattered across equatorial Africa, where they speak various languages, inhabit different types of forests, and hunt and gather food in diverse ways.

  • They inhabit a narrow band of tropical rain forest about four degrees above and four degrees below the Equator, stretching from Cameroon's Atlantic coast eastward to Lake Victoria in Uganda.

  • They are the largest group of hunter-gatherers left on earth. But they are under serious threat.

• The Eskimos:

  • Greenland, northern Canada and Alaska are their lands.

  • They used to live as hunters, fishers and food-gatherers but in recent years more and more of them are settling in permanent huts.

  • The Polar Eskimos, living around Thule in north-west Greenland still lead an uncertain life, not very much different from their forefathers.

  • During winter they live in compact igloos and in summer when they move out to hunt they pitch portable tents of skins by the side of streams

• The Lapps:

  • The Lapps are vigorous people of obscure origin who have managed until now to preserve their race, language, and elements of their culture on the northern fringe of European civilisation.

  • The Samis, normally known as Lapps, live in a very wide territory stretching from the coasts of Norway to the peninsula of Kola, in Russia.

  • The Samis are nomadic shepherds and their economy is based on reindeer rearing. Their nomadic life is due to the reindeers’ dietary needs. These big herbivores mainly feed on slowly-growing lichens, so they need very large areas to survive.

  • The Lapps follow their animals, as they move in search of new pastures. The nomadic groups of Lapps still live in reindeer skin tents that look like those of native Americans. Traditional Sami dishes are mainly made of reindeer meat and fish.

• The Masai:

  • In the land of the lions, the proud Masai still live the way they did for centuries, with a few significant changes in their lifestyle.

  • They are a nomadic tribe who once wandered with their herds of cattle in the central highlands of East Africa. But now mainly confined to the few square miles of Masai reserves in Kenya and Tanzania.

  • They build circular huts with sticks, bushes and mud for temporary shelter.

  • The cattle kept by the Masai are the zebu cattle with humps and long horns. They are treated with great respect and affection and are never slaughtered for food or for sale.

  • Cattle are kept by every Masai family and are symbols of wealth.

  • They drink the blood as well as the milk.

• Minerals are usually found in “ores”. The term ore is used to describe an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements. The mineral content of the ore must be in sufficient concentration to make its extraction commercially viable.

• Minerals generally occur in these forms:

  • In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults, or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger is called lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface. Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc, and lead, etc. are obtained from veins and lodes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • In sedimentary rocks, a number of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation, and concentration in horizontal strata. Coal has been concentrated as a result of long periods under great heat and pressure. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Another mode of formation involves the decomposition of surface rocks, and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered material containing ores. Bauxite is formed this way. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

  • Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills. These deposits are called ‘placer deposits’ and generally contain minerals, which are not corroded by water. Gold, silver, tin, and platinum are the most important among such minerals.

  • The ocean waters contain vast quantities of minerals, but most of these are too widely diffused to be of economic significance. However, common salt, magnesium, and bromine are largely derived from ocean waters. The ocean beds, too, are rich in manganese nodules.

• Mediterranean Agriculture: The term ‘Mediterranean agriculture’ applies to the agriculture done in those regions which are having the Mediterranean type of climate. Mediterranean agriculture is unique because it is a mixture of diverse bio-cultural activities (both animal husbandry and crop farming) that has developed in five major world regions. This type of agriculture is determined by climatic conditions, which exert such an influence that both traditional and commercial agriculture flourish with a dominance of the agriculture of citrus fruits along with horticulture and floriculture.

  • Characteristics:

    • The natural setting that lends itself to Mediterranean agriculture is distinguished by erratic rainfall, mild temperatures, irregular topography, and nearness to large water bodies.

    • In this type, farming is intensive, highly specialized, and varied in the kinds of crops raised. Subsistence agriculture occurs side by side with commercial farming. Many crops such as wheat, barley, and vegetables are raised for domestic consumption, while others like citrus fruits, olives, and grapes are mainly for export. The Mediterranean lands are also known as ‘orchard lands of the world’.

    • The land use in these areas is dependent on such factors as the total annual amount of rainfall, length of summer drought, availability of melting snow, local soil conditions, and price fluctuations in local and world markets.

  • The main aspects of Mediterranean agriculture are:

    • Orchard fanning: It represents a highly specialized commercial agriculture here. The world supply of citrus fruits, olives, and figs comes almost exclusively from Mediterranean lands. Fruit culture has long been a traditional Mediterranean occupation because of the very special climatic features in Mediterranean areas. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Viticulture: Viticulture or grape cultivation is a specialty of the Mediterranean region. It represents a very intensive form of farming requiring not only good conditions of moisture, temperature, and soil but also much personal care if the grapes are to be of high quality. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Cereal and vegetable cultivation:

    • In acreage, cereal crops are the most important in Mediterranean agriculture. Wheat, especially hard winter wheat, is the principal food grain, and barley is grown in the poorer areas. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    • In most Mediterranean countries cereals often occupy about half the total cultivated acreage and provide enough grain for home consumption. The warm and sunny Mediterranean climate also allows a wide range of other food crops and green vegetables to be harvested.

  • Limited animal husbandry:

    • Mediterranean agriculture is also characterised by limited animal husbandry, which survives on grasslands available here. In areas like Lombardy plain, Ebro basin, San Joaquin valley of California, dairy farming is important. In mountain areas, the practice of ‘transhumance’, moving the cattle up to mountain pastures in the summer and returning them to the valleys in winter, is very common.

• The number of women and men in a country is an important demographic characteristic. The ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called the Sex Ratio.

• It is calculated as the number of males per thousand females in many countries. In India, it is calculated as number of females per thousand males.

• As per the UN (World Population Prospects 2019) the sex ratio of the world is approximately 1016 males per 1000 females. Hence, the world's sex ratio is not favourable to females. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Around 125 countries have more females per thousand males. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Qatar has the world's worst sex ratio while Nepal has the world's best sex ratio. In 2020, male to female ratio for Nepal was 84.55 males per 100 females. Sex ratio at birth (male births per female births) in Qatar was reported at 1.045 in 2019.

• Pulses are a very important ingredient of vegetarian food as these are rich sources of proteins. These are legume crops that increase the natural fertility of soils through nitrogen fixation. India is a leading producer of pulses in the world. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The cultivation of pulses in the country is largely concentrated in the drylands of Deccan and central plateaus and northwestern parts of the country. Pulses occupy about 11 percent of the total cropped area in the country. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Being the rainfed crops of drylands, the yields of pulses are low and fluctuate from year to year. Gram and tur are the main pulses cultivated in India.

• Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. The production involves the ‘provision’ of services that are ‘consumed’. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries. The exchange involves trade, transport, and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance.

• Tertiary activities, therefore, involve the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible goods. They are not directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The main difference between secondary activities and tertiary activities is that the expertise provided by services relies more heavily on specialized skills, experience, and knowledge of the workers rather than on the production techniques, machinery, and factory processes.

• Quaternary activities involve some of the following: the collection, production, and dissemination of information or even the production of information. Quaternary activities center around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialized knowledge and technical skills.

• Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation, and the use and evaluation of new technologies. The highest level of decision-makers or policymakers performs quinary activities. Often referred to as ‘gold collar’ professions, they represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector representing special and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government officials, research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

• India is a leading country in the world in terms of coffee production and stands 8th among the top 10 coffee-producing countries in the world. There are three varieties of coffee i.e. arabica, robusta, and liberica. India mostly grows superior quality coffee, arabica, which is in great demand in the international market.

• In India, coffee is mainly produced in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.

• Among all coffee-producing states in India, Karnataka is the largest producer and produces more than 70% of the total coffee produced in the country.

• Kodagu, Chikmagalur, and Hassan are the main coffee-producing regions in Karnataka.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• The footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors such as resources or transport. Therefore these industries enjoy a relatively free choice of location. Diamonds and computer chips are some examples of footloose industries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Footloose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight loss, or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. Hence, access to raw material is not an important factor influencing the location of footloose industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.

• They produce in small quantities and also employ a small labor force. These are generally not polluting industries. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The reason for the growth of footloose industries lies in the rapid development of highly sophisticated products requiring a great deal of scientific research and development. Footloose industries enable quick product improvement of their products to suit the market demand.

• The population of India according to their economic status is divided into three groups, namely; main workers, marginal workers, and non-workers. It is observed that in India, the proportion of workers (both main and marginal) is only 39.8 percent (Census 2011) leaving a vast majority of about 60 percent as non-workers. It is understood that, in the context of a country like India, the work participation rate tends to be higher in the areas of lower levels of economic development since a number of manual workers are needed to perform the subsistence or near subsistence economic activities. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• The occupational composition of India’s population shows a large proportion of primary sector workers compared to secondary and tertiary sectors. As far as the occupation of the country’s male and female population is concerned, male workers outnumber female workers in all three sectors. The number of female workers is relatively high in the primary sector, though in recent years there has been some improvement in the work participation of women in secondary and tertiary sectors. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Election Commission, under Article 324, is not empowered to increase the limit on the election expenses for the candidates. The provisions are provided under Section 77 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, which mandates every candidate or his/her election agent to maintain an account of all expenses incurred for the election authorized by him/her or by his/her election agent between the date on which he/she has been nominated and the date of the declaration of the result thereof, both dates inclusive.
• Rule 90 of the Conduct of Election Rules provides for a maximum limit on the election expenses, as mandated under Section 77 of the RPA, 1951. The maximum limit is different for the Lok Sabha and the Assembly Constituencies. Recently, the Union ministry of Law and Justice has approved raising the election expenditure ceiling by a candidate as proposed by the Election Commission by notifying an amendment in Rule 90 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961.

• The following activities are prohibited, once the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) comes into effect: Combining Election and Official Work: Any Minister shall not combine his official visit with the electioneering work and shall not also make use of the official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work. However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the Model Code of Conduct provision pertaining to the combining of official visit with the electioneering visit.
• Transport: Government transport, including official aircrafts, vehicles etc., shall not be used for the furtherance of the interest of any party or candidate.
• Transfers and Postings: There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Transfer prior to the MCC Announcement: Even if an officer, related to the election work, has been transferred by the government before the enforcement of the MCC and has not taken over the charge at new place, then such officer cannot take charge of his new office after the MCC has been announced.
• The Minister cannot summon the Officer in his Constituency: Any Union or State Minister cannot summon any election related officer of the constituency or the State for any official discussion during the period of elections. Only exception will be when a Minister, in his capacity as in charge of the department concerned, or a Chief Minister undertakes an official visit to a constituency, in connection with the failure of law and order or a natural calamity, or any such emergency which requires the personal presence of such Ministers/Chief Ministers for the specific purpose of supervising review/salvage/relief and such like purpose. The Chief Minister/Minister/Speaker can attend a “State Day” function of a State – provided they do not make any political speech on the occasion and the function is to be conducted only by the Government officials. No advertisement depicting the photograph of the Chief Minister/Minister/Speaker shall be released.

• As per Articles 243D and 243T of the Indian Constitution, the seats are not reserved in equal proportion for the Scheduled Castes (SCs), the Scheduled Tribes (STs), Other Backward Class and women. 243D (6) - Nothing in this Part shall prevent the Legislature of a State from making any provision for reservation of seats in any Panchayat or offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at any level in favour of backward class of citizens.
• 243T (6) - Nothing in this Part shall prevent the Legislature of a State from making any provision for reservation of seats in any Municipality or offices of Chairpersons in the Municipalities in favour of backward class of citizens. Article 243D – Reservation of Seats in the Panchayats: Seats shall be reserved for the SCs and the STs in every Panchayat.
• Number of seats reserved - Based on the population of the SCs and the STs in the Panchayat area, compared to the total population. Not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved for the SCs/STs shall be reserved for women. Not less than one-third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of the seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women and such seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a Panchayat.
• The Offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats at the village or any other level shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and women in such manner as the Legislature of a State may by law provide. Not less than one-third of the total number of Offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women. Nothing in this Part shall prevent the Legislature of a State from making any provision for reservation of seats in any Panchayat or Offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats at any level in favour of the backward class of citizens.

Statement 1 is correct: Under system of proportional representation, all sections of the people get representation in proportion to their number. Even the smallest section of the population gets its due share of representation in the legislature.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two kinds of proportional representation, namely, single transferable vote system and list system. In India, the first kind is adopted for the election of members to the Rajya Sabha and state legislative council and for electing the President and the Vice-President. Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of Rajya Sabha, it has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok Sabha. Instead, it has adopted the system of territorial representation for the election of members to the Lok Sabha. Under territorial representation, every member of the legislature represents a geographical area known as a constituency. From each constituency, only one representative is elected. Hence such a constituency is known as single member constituency. In this system, a candidate who secures majority of votes is declared elected. This simple majority system of representation does not represent the whole electorate. In other words, it does not secure due representation to minorities (small groups).

In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha:

• Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.
• Approval of ordinances issued by the President.
• Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President.
• Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission. In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha:
• A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
• Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations.
• A financial bill, not containing solely the matters of Article 110, also can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. But, with regard to its passage, both the Houses have equal powers.