JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ

All the pairs given above are correctly matched.

• There are nearly 4000 specimens of Harappan writing on stone seals and other objects. Unlike the Egyptians and Mesopotamians, the Harappans did not write long inscriptions. Most inscriptions were recorded on seals and contain only a few words. Altogether we have about 250 to 400 pictographs, and in the form of a picture each letter stands for some sound, idea, or object.
• The Harappan script is not alphabetical but largely pictographic. The use of burnt bricks in the Harappan cities is remarkable because in the contemporary buildings of Egypt dried bricks were primarily used. We find the use of baked bricks in contemporary Mesopotamia, but they were used to a much larger extent in the Harappan cities. The Indus people produced wheat, barley, rai, peas, and the like. Two types of wheat and barley were grown. A substantial quantity of barley was discovered at Banawali.
• In addition, sesamum and mustard were grown. However, the position seems to have been different with the Harappans at Lothal. It seems that as early as 1800 BC, the people of Lothal grew rice, the remains of which have been found. Although the Harappans practised agriculture, animals were raised on a large scale. Oxen, buffaloes, goats, sheep, and pigs were domesticated.
• Humped bulls were favoured by the Harappans. There is evidence of dogs and cats from the outset, and asses and camels were bred. Elephants were well known to the Harappans, who were also acquainted with the rhinoceros.
• The contemporary Sumerian cities in Mesopotamia produced virtually the same food grains and domesticated the same animals as did the Harappans, but the Harappans in Gujarat produced rice and domesticated elephants which was not the case with the Mesopotamians. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• The Anguttara Nikayas list of the mahajanapadas is as follows: Kasi (Kashi), Kosala (Koshala), Anga, Magadha, Vajji (Vrijji), Malla, Chetiya (Chedi), Vamsa (Vatsa), Kuru, Panchala, Machchha (Matsya), Shurasena, Assaka (Ashmaka), Avanti, Gandhara, and Kamboja.
• Two kinds of states are included in the list of mahajanapadas—monarchies (rajyas) and non- monarchical states known as ganas or sanghas. Two of the mahajanapadas, the Vajji and Malla, were sanghas/ oligarchy form of government

• It was during the time of Mahajanapadas that variant languages began to develop from Sanskrit.
• Classical Sanskrit became gradually and increasingly the language of brahmans and the learned few, or had a restricted use on certain occasions such as the issuing of proclamations and official documents, and during Vedic ceremonies.
• In the towns and the villages, a popular form of Sanskrit was spoken – Prakrit.
• This had local variations; the chief western variety was called Shauraseni and the eastern variety Magadhi, after the regions where they were spoken. Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Pali was another popular language based on Sanskrit and commonly used in these regions.

• Megasthenes in his Indika speaks of Mauryan society as being divided into seven castes – philosophers, farmers, soldiers, herdsmen, artisans, magistrates, and councillors.
• Clearly, he was confusing caste with occupation. Commenting on caste he says, ‘No one is allowed to marry outside his own caste or exercise any calling or art except his own’.

• A fundamental aspect of Mauryan administration was the espionage system.
• The Arthashastra advocates the frequent use of spies, and recommends that they should work in the guise of recluses, householders, merchants, ascetics, students, mendicant women, and prostitutes.
• Policy was dictated at the centre although the initiative was left to local interest.
• Ashoka also refers to agents who bring him the news and generally keep him informed on public opinion. This was one of the means through which the king kept a watch on even the more remote parts of the empire, which was necessary to the Mauryan government.

• Statement 1 is not correct: Under the Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972, the Archaeological Survey
• of India can retrieve only such antiquities that have been illegally exported out of the country.
• Statement 2 is correct: Kohinoor was surrendered by Maharaja Dalip Singh as part of the 1849 Lahore
• treaty with the British.

Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct:The Copyright Act, 1957 provides copyright protection in India.

• India follows a hybrid model of exception in which fair dealing with copyrighted work is exempted for some specific purposes under Section 52(1)(a) of the Copyright Act 1957. India also has a long list of enumerated exceptions.
• India being a signatory to the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works, 1886, is obligated to give equal protection to the works originating not only in India but also outside India in any of the contracting states.

Statement 1 is correct: On the occasion of International Museum Day PM Modi unveiled the Expos mascot – a “contemporised” version of the famous Dancing Girl of Mohenjodaro. The traditional craft of Channapatna toys was used to create this mascot.
Statement 2 is correct: Channapatna toys are a particular form of wooden toys and dolls that are manufactured in the town of Channapatna in the Ramanagara district of Karnataka.

• This traditional craft is protected as a Geographical Indication (GI). Statement 3 is not correct: As a result of the popularity of these toys, Channapatna is known as the Gombegala Ooru (toy- town) of Karnataka.
• Traditionally, the work involved lacquering the wood of the Wrightia tinctoria tree, colloquially called Aale mara (ivory-wood).

Statement 1 is correct: The Dancing Girl was discovered in 1926, by British archaeologist Ernest McKay
in a ruined house in the ‘ninth lane’ of Mohenjodaro’s citadel.

• Even though Mohenjodaro and Harappa became part of Pakistani territory after the Partition, the Dancing Girl remained in India as part of an agreement.
• Today, the bronze figurine sits in the National Museum of India as an artifact, often referred to as its “star object”.

Statement 2 is not correct: John Marshall, Director-General of the ASI from 1902 to 1928 who oversaw
the initial excavations in Harappa and Mohenjodaro, described the figurine as “a young girl, her hand on
her hip in a half-impudent posture, and legs slightly forward as she beats time to the music with her legs
and feet”. As Marshall’s description suggests, it is the pose that the figurine strikes that has led historians to believe
that the woman depicted was a dancer. However, there is no other evidence to support this claim.
 

The Theosophical Society was founded in New York (USA) in 1875 by Madam H.P. Blavatsky, a Russian lady, and Henry Steel Olcott, an American colonel. Their main objectives were to form a universal brotherhood of man without any distinction of race, colour or creed and to promote the study of ancient religions and philosophies. They arrived in India and established their headquarters at Adyar in Madras in 1882. Later in 1893, Mrs. Annie Besant arrived in India and took over the leadership of the Society after the death of Olcott. Mrs. Annie Besant founded the Central Hindu School along with Madan Mohan Malaviya at Benaras which later developed into the Banaras Hindu University.

Arya Samaj –

• This movement was founded by Dayanand Saraswati.
• The movement got particularly in North- Western India. The constitution of the Arya Samaj drawn up in 1875 also provided for voluntary contributions, a hundredth part of the earnings of each member, to the Samaj’s fund. The money thus collected was spent on social service like famine relief and, more importantly, on establishing and running educational institutions.
• The Dayananda Anglo–Vedic School set up in Lahore soon developed into a college and became a model for several such institutions, which imparted English education but on the principles of the ‘Vedas’. Dayananda internalized the Orientalist privileging of texts as the basis of religion and affirmed that the Vedas were the most authentic religious texts of the Hindus.
• All post-Vedic developments, according to him, were accretions to be purged. Dayananda also rejected authoritative commentaries on the Vedas and upheld his own interpretation of these sacred texts.

Ramkrishna Suryabhan Gavai (1929-2015):

• Ramkrishna Suryabhan Gavai, known as “Dadasaheb” to his followers and admirers, was the founder of the Ambedkarite outfit Republican Party of India, and was a chairman of the Deekshabhoomi Smarak Samiti in Nagpur.
• He served as the Governor of Bihar, Sikkim, and Kerala between 2006 and 2011, when the Congress-led UPA was in power at the Centre.
• He was active in Maharashtra politics from 1964 to 1998. In 1998, he was elected to Lok Sabha from the Amravati constituency as a candidate of the Republican Party of India (RPI)

• Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The word ‘Lippan’ means ‘clay’ or ‘dung’ in local Gujarati. Lippan Art is essentially mud-relief work that incorporates mirrors. The mural tradition art form is from the Kutch region of Gujarat.
• Lippan Art is practiced mainly by the Rabari, Kumbhar, Marwada Harijan and Mutwa communities but most Lippan artisans today trace their origins to the Kumbhar community.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Though the work is limited mainly to the interior walls, it can be found on the outer walls as well of the circular adobes that these communities live in

• Statement 1 and 2 are not correct: What is the External Debt of a country?
• It refers to money borrowed from a source outside the country. External debt has to be paid back in the currency in which it is borrowed.
• Sources
  • External debt can be obtained from foreign commercial banks, international financial institutions like International Monetay Fund (IMF), World Bank, Asian Development Bank (ADB) etc and from the government of foreign nations.
  • Normally these types of debts are in the form of tied loans, meaning that these have to be used for a predefined purpose as determined by a consensus of the borrower and the lender.
• Governments and corporations are eligible to raise loans from abroad. These are in the form of external commercial borrowings. The interest rate on foreign loans is linked to LIBOR (London Interbank Offer rate) and the actual rate will be LIBOR plus applicable spread, depending upon the credit rating of the borrower.
• Statement 3 is correct: As per the RBI India’s external debt has risen up to $624.7 billion during the financial year 2023. India’s external debt at end-March 2023 rose by $5.6 billion to $624.7 billion from the year-earlier period but the external debt-to-GDP ratio slid to 18.9% at end-March from 20% a year earlier.

Statement 1 is correct: Crossing through ten countries and draining some 817,000 km² and the territory of 18 countries, the Danube is the most international river in the world.

• Flowing from Germany’s Black Forest to the Danube Delta in Romania and Ukraine and the Black Sea, the Danube is Europe’s only major river which flows west to east, from Central to Eastern Europe Statement 2 is not correct: The Danube is the longest river of the European Union and Europe’s second-longest after the Volga.
• The European Commission now recognizes the Danube as the “single most important non oceanic body of water in Europe” and a “future central axis for the European Union”.
• Statement 3 is correct: Major tributaries of the Danube include the Tisza, Drava, Sava, Inn, and Prut rivers. 

Both the statements are incorrect.

• Suriname is a small country on the northern coast of South America
• Suriname is bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the north, by French Guiana to the east, by Brazil to the south, and by Guyana to the west.
• Capital: Paramaribo 

• A climatic region has a homogeneous climatic condition which is the result of a combination of factors. Temperature and rainfall are two important elements that are considered to be decisive in all the schemes of climatic classification. The classification of climate, however, is a complex exercise. There are different schemes of classification of climate.
• Koeppen based his scheme of Climatic classification on monthly values of temperature and precipitation. He identified five major climatic types, namely:
  • Tropical climates, where the mean monthly temperature throughout the year is over 18°C.
  • (Dry climates, where precipitation is very low in comparison to temperature, and hence, dry. If dryness is less, it is semiarid (S); if it is more, the climate is arid(W).
  • Warm temperate climates, where the mean temperature of the coldest month is between 18°C and minus 3°C.
  • Cool temperate climates, where the mean temperature of the warmest month is over 10°C, and the mean temperature of the coldest month is under minus 3°C.
  • Ice climates, where the mean temperature of the warmest month is under 10°C.
• Each type is further subdivided into sub-types on the basis of seasonal variations in the distributional pattern of rainfall and temperature. Koeppen used letter symbols to denote climatic types. He used S for semi-arid and W for arid and the following small letters to define sub-types: f (sufficient precipitation), m (rain forest despite a dry monsoon season), w (dry season in winter), h (dry and hot), c (less than four months with mean temperature over 10°C), and g (Gangetic plain).
• Koeppen divided India into nine climatic regions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, which changes with altitude.
• Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas.
• It is succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000 m.
• In the higher hill ranges of northeastern India, hilly areas of West Bengal and Uttaranchal, evergreen broad leaf trees such as oak and chestnut are predominant.
• Between 1,500-1,750 m, pine forests are also well-developed in this zone, with Chir Pine as a very useful commercial tree. • Deodar, a highly valued endemic species grows mainly in the western part of the Himalayan range.
• Deodar is a durable wood mainly used in construction activity.
• Similarly, the chinar and the walnut, which sustain the famous Kashmir handicrafts, belong to this zone. • Blue pine and spruce appear at altitudes of 2,225-3,048 m.
• At many places in this zone, temperate grasslands are also found.
• But in the higher reaches there is a transition to Alpine forests and pastures.
• Silver firs, junipers, pines, birch and rhododendrons, etc. occur between 3,000-4,000 m.
• However, these pastures are used extensively for transhumance by tribes like the Gujjars, the Bakarwals, the Bhotiyas and the Gaddis.
• The southern slopes of the Himalayas carry a thicker vegetation cover because of relatively higher precipitation than the drier north-facing slopes.
• At higher altitudes, mosses and lichens form part of the tundra vegetation.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Temperate continental climates (Steppe) are located in the heart of continents meaning they have little maritime influence. Their climate is thus continental with extremes of temperature - summers are very warm and winters are very cold. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The presence of deciduous trees is a feature of Tropical grasslands (short trees and tall grasses), whereas, in the steppes, trees are very scarce, because of the scanty rainfall, long droughts, and severe winters. Tall, fresh, and nutritious prairie grass are found, thus, they are often referred to as 'Granaries of the world'. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Fohn (Switzerland) and Chinook (Canadian praries) are names of local winds that play an influential role in the pastures of temperate grasslands. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

Soil erosion refers to the removal of soil at a greater rate than its replacement by natural agencies. Topography, rainfall, wind, lack of vegetation cover, land use practices, etc. are the causes of soil erosion.

Water erosion means that soil particles are detached either by splash erosion (caused by raindrops), or by the effect of running water. It is mainly categorized into the following types:

• Sheet Erosion - Sheet erosion is a type of soil erosion that removes a uniform layer of soil from a surface area. It's caused by rain splash and storm water runoff.
• Rill Erosion - It occurs where water runs in very small channels over the soil surface, with the abrading effect of transported soil particles causing incision of the channels into the soil surface.
• Gully Erosion - It occurs when rills flow together to make larger streams (gully formation).
• Bank Erosion - It is caused by water cutting into the banks of streams and rivers. It can cause large floods and major destruction to property.

Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.

Samoa is a group of Polynesian islands and islets in the south-central Pacific Ocean. It consists of the nine inhabited and five uninhabited islands west of the meridian. 

Ocean currents are like river flow in oceans. They represent a regular volume of water in a definite path and direction. The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are

• Latitude
• Unequal distribution of land and water
• Prevailing wind
• Ocean currents

Warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas, while cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. The Gulf stream (warm current) raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America and the West Coast of Europe. In contrast, the Labrador current (cold current) lowers the temperature near the northeast coast of North America. All these factors influence the temperature of the ocean currents locally. The enclosed seas in the low latitudes record relatively higher temperatures than the open seas, whereas the enclosed ones in the high latitudes have lower temperatures than the open seas. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The temperature-depth profile for the ocean water shows how the temperature decreases with increasing depth. A current is usually strongest at the surface and decreases in strength (speed) with depth. Currents generally diminish in intensity with increasing depth. The Vertical currents arise mainly due to density differences caused by temperature and salinity changes. Differences in water density affect the vertical mobility of ocean currents. Therefore, The intensity of the ocean currents generally decreases with increasing depth. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The warm ocean currents move from the equator to the poles, and the cold ocean currents move from the poles toward the equator. Cold currents decrease the temperature in warm areas, and warm currents raise the temperature in cold areas. Cold currents flow from the poles towards the equatorial regions. The Labrador currents are major cold currents. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Currents are referred to by their "drift." The currents are strongest near the surface and may attain speeds over five knots. At depths, currents are generally slow, with speeds of less than 0.5 knots. Usually, a current's speed is referred to as its "drift." Drift is measured in terms of knots. The strength of a current refers to the speed of the current. A fast current is considered strong. A current is usually strongest at the surface and decreases in strength (speed) with depth. Most currents have speeds less than or equal to 5 knots. Ocean currents (Average 3.2 km to 10 kmph) with higher speeds are called streams, and currents with lower speeds are called drifts. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Jet streams are fast-flowing, narrow meandering air currents in the atmosphere of the Earth. Jet streams are narrow belts of high altitude (above 12,000 m) westerly winds in the troposphere. Their speed varies from 110 km/h in summer to 184 km/h in winter. Tibetan highlands act as a barrier in the path of Western jet stream. As a result, jet streams get bifurcated. One of its branches blows to the north of the Tibetan highlands, while the southern branch blows eastward, south of the Himalayas. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

An easterly jet stream flows over the southern part of the Peninsula in June and has a maximum speed of 90 km per hour. In August, it is confined to 15 degrees N latitude, and in September, up to 22 degrees N latitude. The easterlies normally do not extend north of 30 degrees N latitude in the upper atmosphere. The easterly jet stream steers the tropical depressions into India. These depressions play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. These depressions' tracks are the areas with the highest rainfall in India. The frequency at which these depressions visit India, their direction, and their intensity all go a long way in determining the rainfall pattern during the southwest monsoon period. Westerly Jetstream brings the western cyclonic disturbances (originating over the Mediterranean Sea) that enter the Indian subcontinent from the west and the northwest during the winter months. An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance in the arrival of these cyclones' disturbances. Therefore, the jet streams impact monsoon onset, depending on the upper air circulation dominated by Sub Tropical Jet Streams (STJ). The southwest monsoon in India is directly related to the tropical easterly stream. So, Statement 3 is correct. 

The density of the ocean is proportional to its salinity and inversely proportional to its temperature. As ocean salinity rises, so does ocean density, and vice versa. Ocean density decreases as the water's ocean temperature increases. Salinity can decrease from the melting of polar ice or increase from the freezing of polar ice. Evaporation increases salinity and density, while the addition of freshwater decreases salinity and density. The density of seawater (salinity greater than 24.7) increases as temperature decreases at all temperatures above the freezing point. The density of seawater is increased by increasing pressure. Density changes by about 2% because of the pressure difference between the surface and the deep seafloor. The effect of pressure on density can usually be ignored because most applications require density comparisons between water masses at the same depth. So, Option (d) is correct. 

Option (c) is correct:
Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament, but are in the nature of temporary laws. The ordinance-making power is the most important legislative power of the President. It has been vested in him to deal with unforeseen or urgent matters. But, the exercises of this power is subject to the following four limitations: He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone. An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation. He can make an ordinance only when he is satisfied that the circumstances exist that render it necessary for him to take immediate action. The decision of the President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court on the ground that the President has prorogued one House or both Houses of Parliament deliberately with a view to promulgate an ordinance on a controversial subject, so as to bypass the parliamentary decision and thereby circumventing the authority of the Parliament. His ordinance-making power is coextensive as regards all matters except duration, with the law-making powers of the Parliament.
This has two implications:

• An ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws.
• An ordinance is subject to the same constitutional limitation as an act of Parliament. Hence, an ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. Every ordinance issued by the President during the recess of parliament must be laid before both the Houses of Parliament when it reassembles. If the ordinance is approved by both the Houses, it becomes an act. If Parliament takes no action at all, the ordinance ceases to operate on the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament. The ordinance may also cease to operate even earlier than the prescribed six weeks, if both the Houses of Parliament pass resolutions disapproving it. The President can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. However, his power of ordinance-making is not a discretionary power, and he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister.

Option (d) is correct:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules). The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha, and its representative. He is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its committees. He is the principal spokesman of the House, and his decision in all Parliamentary matters is final. He is thus much more than merely the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. In these capacities, he is vested with vast, varied and vital responsibilities and enjoys great honour, high dignity and supreme authority within the House.

• Statement 1 is correct: Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship, that is, the Indian citizenship. The citizens in India owe allegiance only to the Union. There is no separate state citizenship like USA and Switzerland.
• Statement 2 is correct: A person can acquire citizenship by naturalisation if he/she fulfils all qualifications in the third schedule of the Citizenship Act.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:

• The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
• The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
• Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance. Statement 3 is incorrect. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.

Option (d) is correct:
The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:

• An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
• The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
• The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
• Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
• If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
• After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
• The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
• After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.