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JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 - JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6

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JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 1

Which of the following sources refers tothe worshippers of Vasudeva (Krishna)?

1. Panini’s Ashtadhyayi

2. The Chhandogya Upanishad

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 1
  • A Sutra in Panini’s Ashtadhyayi refers to the worshippers of Vasudeva (Krishna).

  • The Chhandogya Upanishad also speaks of Krishna, the son of Devaki, a pupil of the sage Ghora Angirasa, who was a sun-worshipping priest.

  • A large number of people worshipped Vasudeva Krishna exclusively as their personal God and they were at first known as Bhagavatas.

  • The Vasudeva-Bhagavata cult grew steadily, absorbing within its fold other Vedic and Brahminic divinities, like Vishnu (primarily an aspect of the Sun) and Narayana (a cosmic God).

  • From the late Gupta period the name mostly used to designate this Bhakti cult was Vaishnava, indicating the predominance of the Vedic Vishnu element in it with emphasis on the doctrine of incarnations (Avataras).

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 2

Consider the following statements about Bhimbetka caves:

1. The caves of Bhimbetka were discovered by Archibold Carlleyle.

2. The paintings in these caves belong to lower and upper Palaeolithic periods.

3. The paintings in these caves depict subjects ranging from mundane events of daily life to sacred and Royal images.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 2
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The caves of Bhimbetka were discovered in 1957–58 by eminent archaeologist V. S. Wakankar. The first discovery of rock paintings, not Bhimbetka caves, was made in India in 1867–68 by an archaeologist, Archibold Carlleyle, twelve years before the discovery of Altamira in Spain. Cockburn, Anderson, Mitra and Ghosh were the early archaeologists who discovered a large number of sites in the Indian subcontinent.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The rock art of Bhimbetka has been classified into various groups on the bases of style, technique and superimposition. The drawings and paintings can be categorised into seven historical periods. Period I, Upper Palaeolithic; Period II, Mesolithic; and Period III, Chalcolithic. After Period III there are four successive periods. In India the earliest paintings have been reported from the Upper Palaeolithic times.

Statement 3 is correct. The themes of paintings found here are of great variety, ranging from mundane events of daily life in those times to sacred and royal images. These include hunting, dancing, Music, horse and elephant riders, animal fighting, honey collection, decoration of bodies, and other household scenes. About Bhimbetka Caves: The largest and most spectacular rock-shelter is located in the Vindhya hills at Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh. Bhimbetka is located 45 kilometres south of Bhopal, in an area of ten square kilometres, having about eight hundred rock shelters, five hundred of which bear paintings.

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JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding the Brahmo Sabha:

  1. Its purpose was to purify Hinduism and to preach theism.

  2. Tarachand Chakravarti was the first secretary of the Brahmo Sabha.

  3. It was opposed to idolatry.

  4. The new society was to be based on the Vedas only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 3

Explanation:

1. The Brahmo Sabha was indeed formed with the purpose of purifying Hinduism and preaching theism. Raja Ram Mohan Roy, the founder of the Brahmo Sabha, sought to reform Hinduism by removing practices like idolatry, caste system, and sati. He believed in monotheism and wanted to promote a rational understanding of religion.

2. Tarachand Chakravarti was the first secretary of the Brahmo Sabha. He was a close associate of Raja Ram Mohan Roy and played a crucial role in the early development of the organization.

3. The Brahmo Sabha was opposed to idolatry, as Raja Ram Mohan Roy believed that worshiping idols was a corrupt practice that had no basis in the original Hindu scriptures. He advocated for a more spiritual and rational understanding of religion.

4. The statement that the new society was to be based on the Vedas only is incorrect. Raja Ram Mohan Roy believed in the essential unity of all religions and did not want to restrict the Brahmo Sabha to a single religious scripture. He encouraged the study of various religious texts and promoted religious tolerance and understanding. In fact, the Brahmo Samaj, which evolved from the Brahmo Sabha, considered the Upanishads, Vedas, and other religious texts as important sources of spiritual knowledge, but not as infallible authorities.

 

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 4

With respect to women’s condition in Ancient India, consider the following statements:

  1. There was no female Upanishadic thinker in Ancient India.

  2. Women were not allowed to join Buddhist Sangha.

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 4
Statement 1 is incorrect. Though most Upanishadic thinkers were men, especially brahmins and raja, but there is mention of women thinkers, such as Gargi. Gargi was famous for her learning, and participated in debates held in royal courts.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The rules made for the Buddhist sangha were written down in a book called the Vinaya Pitaka. According to the rules written in the Vinaya Pitaka, all men, women and children could join the sangha.

However, children had to take the permission of their parents and slaves of their masters. Those who worked for the king had to take his permission and debtors that of creditors. Women had to take their husbands’ permission.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 5

With reference to social conditions during Sangam age, consider the following statements:
1. Civil and military offices were held under both Cholas and Pandyas by rich peasants (vellalas).
2. The pariyars were agricultural labourers who also worked with animal skins and used them as mats.
3. There were sharp social inequalities in this period.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 5
  • Rise of Social Classes: Income from trade, war booty, and agricultural produce enabled the king to maintain groups of professional warriors and also to pay the bards and priests who were largely brahmanas.
  • The Brahmanas first appear in the Tamil land in the Sangam age. An ideal king was one who never hurt the Brahmanas. Many Brahmanas functioned as poets, and in this role they were generously rewarded by the king. Karikala is said to have given one poet 1,600,000 gold pieces, but this seems to be an exaggeration.
  • Besides gold, the poets or bards also received cash, land, chariots, horses, and even elephants. The Tamil brahmanas partook of meat and wine. The Kshatriyas and vaishyas appear as regular varnas in the Sangam texts. The warrior class was an important element in the polity and society.
  • The captains of the army were invested with the title of enadi at a formal ceremony. However, we have no clear idea about the vaishyas. Civil and military offices were held under both the Cholas and Pandyas by vellalas or rich peasants. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The ruling class was called arasar, and its members had marriage relations with the vellalas, who formed the fourth caste. They held the bulk of the land and thus constituted the cultivating class, divided into the rich and the poor. The rich did not plough the land themselves but employed labourers to undertake this.
  • Agricultural operations were generally the task of members of the lowest class (kadaisiyar), whose status appears to have differed little from that of slaves. Some artisans were not differentiated from agricultural labourers. The pariyars were agricultural labourers who also worked with animal skins and used them as mats. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Several outcastes and forest tribes suffered from extreme poverty and lived from hand to mouth.
  • We notice sharp social inequalities in the Sangam age. The rich lived in houses of brick and mortar, and the poor in huts and humbler dwellings. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • In the cities, rich merchants lived in the upper storey of their houses. It is not however clear whether rites and religion were used to maintain social inequalities. We notice the emergence of the Brahmanas and the ruling caste, but the acute caste distinctions of later times did not exist in the early Sangam age.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding Folk Dances
I. Alkap is mainly performed solo, while balancing a number of earthen pots on the head.
2. The dancers are armed with wooden spears and shields in Paika Dance
3. Gaur Maria imitates the movements of a bison and is performed in group by both men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 6
  • Matki is performed by the women of Malwa region on the occasions of wedding and other festivities. It is mainly performed solo, while balancing a number of earthen pots on the head. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Paika is a martial folk dance performed in the southern parts of Odisha. Paika is a form of long spear. The dancers are armed with wooden spears and shields, and show off their skills and agility in infantry like formations. It has a martial art character. The word Paika signifies battle. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
  • Gaur Maria is an important ritualistic dance form of the Bison Horn Maria tribes who live in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh. The dance imitates the movements of a bison and is performed in group by both men and women. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
  • Paika is a martial folk dance performed in the southern parts of Odisha. Paika is a form of long spear. The dancers are armed with wooden spears and shields, and show off their skills and agility in infantry like formations. It has a martial art character. The word Paika signifies battle.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 7

Consider the following statements with reference to the Mauryan Empire :
1. A uniform method of administration existed throughout the whole of the Mauryan Empire.
2. They had a vast espionage system for both internal and external security purposes
3. The head of the provincial administration was the Kumara
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 7
  • Mauryan Empire consisted of various political formations and ecological zones like forest peoples and nomads, chieftaincies and oligarchies like the gana–sangha confederacies of chiefs. It contained smaller kingdoms with a range of administrative structures not necessarily similar to that in Magadha. Different parts of the Empire, like the core, the metropolis and the peripheries, were administered differently. Thus, there was no uniform method of administration in the whole of the Mauryan Empire. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • The organization of the Mauryan empire was in line with the extensive bureaucracy described by Kautilya in the Arthashastra: a sophisticated civil service governed everything from municipal hygiene to international trade. The expansion and defense of the Empire were made possible by what appears to have been the largest standing army of its time. According to Megasthenes, the possessed wielded a military of 600,000 infantry, 30,000 cavalry, and 9,000 war elephants. A vast espionage system collected intelligence for both internal and external security purposes. Having renounced offensive warfare and expansionism, Ashoka maintained this large army to protect the Empire and instill stability and peace across West and South Asia. So, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The Empire was divided into four provinces, with the royal capital at Pataliputra. From Ashokan edicts, the names of the four provincial capitals are Tosali (in the East), Ujjain (in the west), Suvarnagiri (in the south), and Taxila (in the north). The head of the provincial administration was the Kumara (royal prince), who governed the provinces as the king’s representative. Mahamatyas and the council of ministers assisted the Kumara. So, Statement 3 is correct.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 8

Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the Boddhisattvas under Buddhism ?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 8
  • Vajrapani, or Sakra, has a twofold role. In the Hinayana texts, he is an attendant of Buddha; in the Mahayana iconography, he is a Dhyani Bodhisattva and an emanation of Akshobhya, with his Sakti being Lochana. With his thunderbolt, he appears as a constant attendant of Buddha to crust every enemy. Vajrapani is contemplated to manifest all the powers of Buddha and the power of all five tathagatas, namely Vairocana, Akshobhya, Amitabha, Ratnasambhava and Amoghasiddhi. So, Option (a) is correct.
  • Manjusri, one of the most important Bodhisattvas of the Mahayana pantheon, bears a sword for destroying ignorance and holds the Prajnaparamita book that symbolizes transcendental knowledge. Manjusri is best known for his wisdom and intellect, and he frequently occurs in the Dunhuang Art. So, Option (b) is correct.
  • The origin of the Samantabhadra cult is not known. The Chinese pilgrims visiting various Buddhist countries seldom mention him. He became prominent in the fifth century after translating the Cheng F-Hua-Ching (Dharmaraksha’s version of the Lotus). In iconography, he wears not only a crown but is also dressed up in princely attire. In Japan, he is known as Fu-gen. He is a very popular figure in Chinese and Japanese art. Samantabhadra, a bodhisattva in Mahayana Buddhism associated with practice and meditation. So, Option (c) is correct.
  • Vasudhara is a Sanskrit word that means the stream of gems. The Buddhist deity, Vasudhara, is a female bodhisattva of wealth, prosperity, and abundance. She has strong followers among the Buddhist Newars of Kathmandu valley. Sometimes she is related to the Hindu goddess Lakshmi. So, Option (d) is not correct.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 9

With reference to Qutub Minar, consider the following statements:

1. Iltutmush completed the construction of Minar.

2. Red sandstone and marbles are used in its construction.

3. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 9
Recently, a Delhi court reserved its order on a plea challenging the dismissal of a civil suit that sought to restore 27 Hindu and Jain temples inside the Qutub Minar complex in New Delhi.
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Qutab-ud-din Aibak, the first Muslim ruler of Delhi, commenced the construction of the Qutab Minar in 1200 AD, but could only finish the basement. His successor, Iltutmush, added three more storeys, and in 1368, Firoz Shah Tughlak constructed the fifth and the last storey.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The tower has five distinct storeys, each marked by a projecting balcony and tapers from a 15 m diameter at the base to just 2.5 m at the top. The first three storeys are made of red sandstone; The fourth and fifth storeys are of marble and sandstone. Statement 3 is correct: Qutub Minar and its monuments were declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1993.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 10

Consider the following statements with reference to the ancient history:

1. Manuscripts dealt with only religious beliefs and practises

2. Manuscripts were written in Sanskrit, Prakrit and Tamil

3. Inscriptions are writings on soft surfaces such as palm leaf, or on the specially prepared bark of a tree known as the birch.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 10
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The manuscripts dealt with all kinds of subjects like religious beliefs and practices, lives of kings, medicine and science, epics, poems, plays, etc.

Statement 2 is correct. They were written in Sanskrit, Prakrit, and Tamil. Manuscripts are writings on soft surfaces such as palm leaf, or on the specially prepared bark of a tree known as the birch. The word manuscript comes from the Latin word ‘manu’ meaning hand.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Inscriptions are writings on relatively hard surfaces such as stone or metal. Kings used to get their orders inscribed so that people could see, read and obey them. They often kept records of victories in battle through inscriptions. There are other kinds of inscriptions as well, where men and women, including kings and queens, recorded what they did.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Fifth Report’ by East India Company:

  1. It was in relation to the activities and the administration of the East India Company in India.

  2. It was submitted to the Governor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is correct: A report that was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813. It was the fifth of a series of reports on the administration and activities of the East India Company in India. Often referred to as the Fifth Report. Since, the Company established its rule in Bengal in the mid-1760s, its activities were closely watched and debated in England. Many opposed to the monopoly that the East India Company had over trade with India and China. These groups wanted a revocation of the Royal Charter that gave the Company this monopoly.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It was published by a select committee on the affairs of the East India Company of the British Parliament. It was submitted to the British Parliament and not the Governor General of India. There was no such post as of 1813.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 12

Which Union Ministry identified and published poems, writings and publications that were banned by the British Government?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 12
The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry for the 75-week-long Amrit Mahosav celebrations. It has identified poems, writings and publications that the British government banned and put them as catalogue, which has been published on the website by the National Archives of India. These works are in nine regional languages Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Marathi, Kannada, Odia, Punjabi, Sindhi, Telugu, Tamil and Urdu.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 13

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the People’s uprisings during British era?

  1. Increasing number of intermediary revenue collectors, tenants, moneylenders caused the exploitation of common people and gave rise to uprisings.

  2. These uprisings were very stubborn in nature and were not pacified by concessions.

  3. Destruction of indigenous industry is also a causative factor for people’s uprising.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 13
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: Exploitation of rural society increased with the growth of intermediary revenue collectors, tenants, moneylenders and thus gave rise to civil uprisings like civil uprisings in Gorakhpur, Basti and Bahraich due to involvement of English officers as izaradars (revenue farmers in Awadh

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: These uprisings were not so obstinate and were often pacified through concessions by the authorities like Ho and Munda Uprisings where British agreed to the demand of Chhotanagpur as their area and deployed force there

  • Statement 3 is correct: Destruction of indigenous industry led to migration of workers from industry to agriculture, increasing the pressure on land/ agriculture and resulted in civil Uprisings.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 14

Consider the following passage:

The Governor-General abolished the Dual System introduced by Robert Clive. He also abolished the system of dastaks, or free passes, and regulated the internal trade. He set up the Calcutta Madrasah for the study and teaching of Muslim law and related subjects. He also introduced a uniform system of pre-paid postage system.

The above passage refers to which of the following Governors-General?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 14
  • When Warren Hastings assumed the administration of Bengal in 1772, he found it in utter chaos. Therefore, Warren Hastings realized the immediate need for introducing reforms.

  • Reforms under Warren Hastings:

    • The East India Company decided to act as Diwan and to undertake the collection of revenue by its own agents. Hence, the Dual System introduced by Robert Clive was abolished.

    • After the abolition of the Dual System, the responsibility of collecting the revenue fell on the shoulders of the Company. For that purpose, a Board of Revenue was established at Calcutta to supervise the collection of revenue.

    • Warren Hastings felt the necessity of reorganizing the judicial system. Each district was provided with a civil court under the collector and a criminal court under an Indian Judge.

    • Warren Hastings abolished the system of dastaks, or free passes, and regulated the internal trade.

    • In 1781, Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrasah for the study and teaching of Muslim law and related subjects.

    • He also introduced a uniform system of pre-paid postage system.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with reference to the Nagpur Satyagraha of 1923 :
1. It was held under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. People from different parts of the nation came to Nagpur.
3. The satyagrahis were encouraged to hoist the national flag without resisting arrest or retaliating against police.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 15
  • The Nagpur Satyagraha of 1923 is the Flag Satyagraha, also called the Jhanda Satyagraha. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel led it at Nagpur in the year 1923. Hence, it was not held under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Jamnalal Bajaj, Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, and Vinoba Bhave organized the revolt thousands of people from different regions, including from south of the Princely state of Travancore, traveled to Nagpur and other parts of the Central Provinces that is the present states like Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh to participate in civil disobedience. Therefore, people from different parts of the nation came to Nagpur. So, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The satyagrahis were encouraged to hoist the national flag without resisting arrest or retaliating against police, even though the British government deployed a heavy police force. They ignored the probable danger and they were even ready to sacrifice their lives and hoisted the flag in Victoria Town Hall, Jabalpur. And after that, flags were hoisted at several places across the country. So, Statement 3 is correct.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 16

Consider the following statements about Sati system in Modern India:
1. Dayabhag system law practiced in Bengal made widow’s successor to husband's property.
2. Mrityunjaya Vidyalankar, a Sanskrit scholar at the Fort William College, argued against Sati.
3. Sati was banned during the term of Governor General Lord Auckland.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 16

Sati System – 

  1. Mrityunjaya Vidyalankar, a sanskrit scholar who was associated with the Supreme Court at Calcutta, wrote against the Sati system. He is considered to be one of the first to write against Sati system. (Even before Raja Rammohun Roy). On the recommendation of William Carey, Mrityunjaya was appointed as head pundit in Bangla Department at the Fort William College. 
  2. Some scholars believe that the rise of Sati system in 17th and 18th century in Bengal was because Dayabhaga system of Hindu Personal Law followed there. The Dayabhaga system gave the widow greater rights to inherit the deceased husband’s property as well as her father’s property. This induced male member of the husband’s family to force the widow to commit suicide. 
  3. Sati was banned in 1829 during the term of Governor General William Bentick.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 17

He laid the foundation of a new monastic order at Baranagar. He believed that the real cause of India's downfall  as neglect of masses and poverty. He emphasised on two kinds of knowledge: Secular knowledge to improve their economic condition and Spiritual knowledge to infuse in them faith in themselves. Who is he?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 17

Swami Viveknanda –

  • Born in Kolkata in 1863, he was known as Narendra Nath Datta in his pre-monastic life. He was a disciple of Sri Ramakrishna Parmahansa and a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India. He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains as the one that he gave in Chicago in 1893 (Parliament of the World Religions)
  • He established a new monastic order in Baranagar in Kolkata and went to explore India. During his travels, he was deeply moved by appalling poverty and backwardness of the masses. He was the first religious leader who highlighted that real cause of India’s downfall was the neglect of masses and highlighted the immediate need to provide food and other necessities. He emphasised on improved methods of agriculture, village industries etc.
  • According to him, the crux of problem of poverty in India was because of centuries of oppression, downtrodden masses had lost faith in their capacity to improve their lot. Therefore, it was necessary to infuse faith in their own capacities. Vivekanand believed that principle of Atman i.e. doctrine of potential divinity of soul, taught in Vedanta could ameliorate the condition of the poor people. Thus, the masses needed two kinds of knowledge: secular knowledge to improve their economic condition and spiritual knowledge to infuse in them faith in themselves.
  • He formed the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 “to set in motion a machinery which will bring noblest ideas to the doorstep of even the poorest and the meanest.” In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode. He also wrote books like Karma yoga, Jnana yoga, Raja Yoga etc.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Simon Commission?
1. It was formed on the basis of the provision of the Government of India Act, 1919.
2. The Secretary of State for India, Lord Stanley Baldwin, was responsible for the appointment of the Simon Commission.
3. The Hindu Mahasabha and the majority faction of the Muslim League, under Jinnah, decided not to boycott the Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 18
  • The Government of India Act, 1919, had a provision that a Commission would be appointed 10 years from the date to study the progress of the governance scheme and suggest new steps. An all-White, seven-member Indian Statutory Commission, popularly known as the Simon Commission (after the name of its Chairman, Sir John Simon), was set up by the British government under Stanley Baldwin‘s Prime Ministership in 1927.
  • The Commission was to recommend to the British government whether India was ready for further constitutional reforms and along what lines. Although the constitutional reforms were due only in 1929, the Conservative Government, then in power in Britain, feared defeat by the Labour Party and, thus, did not want to leave the question of the future of Britain‘s most priced colony in ―irresponsible Labour hands‖.
  • The Conservative Secretary of State for India, Lord Birkenhead, was responsible for the appointment of the Simon Commission. What angered the Indians the most was the exclusion of the Indians from the Commission and the basic notion behind the exclusion that the foreigners would discuss and decide upon India‘s fitness for self-government. This notion was seen as a violation of the principle of self- determination and as a deliberate insult to the self-respect of the Indians. The Congress Session in Madras (December, 1927), meeting under the Presidency of M.A. Ansari, decided to boycott the Commission ―at every stage and in every form‖. Meanwhile, Nehru succeeded in getting a snap resolution passed at the Session, declaring ―Complete Independence‖ as the goal of the Congress. Those who decided to support the Congress call of boycott of the Simon Commission included the liberals of the Hindu Mahasabha and the majority faction of the Muslim League under Jinnah.
  • The Muslim League had two sessions in 1927 – one under Jinnah at Calcutta, where it was decided to oppose the Simon Commission and another at Lahore under Muhammad Shafi, who supported the government. Some others, such as the Unionists in Punjab and the Justice Party in the south, decided not to boycott the Commission.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding the Nehru Report:
1. It was the first major attempt by the Indians to draft a Constitutional Framework for the country.
2. The Report was based on the recommendation by a Sub-Committee under the Chairmanship of Jawahar Lal Nehru.
3. The Report confined itself to British India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 19

The Nehru Report – As an answer to Lord Birkenhead‘s challenge, an All Parties Conference met in February, 1928, and appointed a Sub-Committee under the Chairmanship of Motilal Nehru to draft a Constitution. This was the first major attempt by the Indians to draft a Constitutional Framework for the country. The Committee included Tej Bahadur Sapru, Subhash Bose, M.S. Aney, Mangal Singh, Ali Imam, Shuab Qureshi and G.R. Pradhan as its members. The Report was finalized by August, 1928. The recommendations of the Nehru Committee were unanimous except in one respect – while the majority favoured the ―Dominion Status‖ as the basis of the Constitution, a section of it wanted ―Complete Independence‖ as the basis, with the majority section giving the latter section liberty of action. Main Recommendations – The Nehru Report confined itself to British India, as it envisaged the future link-up of British India with the princely states on a federal basis. For the Dominion it recommended:
(i) The Dominion Status on the lines of self-governing dominions as the form of government desired by the Indians (much to the chagrin of the younger, militant section – Nehru being prominent among them).
(ii) Rejection of separate electorates which had been the basis of the constitutional reforms so far. Instead, a demand for joint electorates with reservation of seats for the Muslims at the Centre and in the Provinces where they were in minority (and not in those where the Muslims were in majority, such as Punjab and Bengal) in proportion to the Muslim population there with a right to contest additional seats.
(iii) Linguistic provinces.
(iv) 19 fundamental rights, including equal rights for the women, right to form unions and universal adult suffrage.
(v) Responsible government at the Centre and in the Provinces.
(vi) Full protection to cultural and religious interests of the Muslims. (vii) Complete dissociation of the state from religion.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 20

With reference to a leader of the Indian National Movement, consider the following  statements:
1. He was chosen as the first Secretary of the Native Press Association formed in the 1870s.
2. He became a member of the Imperial Legislative Assembly in 1921.
3. He cleared the Imperial Civil Service (ICS) but was not allowed to work in the administration.
Who among the following has been described in the statements given above?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 20
  • Surendranath Banerjea (1848-1925) was born on 10 November 1848 in Calcutta. He graduated from Calcutta University in 1868 and proceeded to England to compete for the Indian Civil Services. He cleared the Imperial Civil Service (ICS) but was not allowed to work in the administration. He was declared disqualified by the British. 
  • He was the first to familiarize an Indian audience with Giuseppe Mazzini (1805-1872), the pioneer of Italian unification. Banerjea was the first leader to use material from Indian and foreign histories to instil a sense of patriotism in his audience. On his return to India in June 1875, Banerjea began his new career as a Professor of English. In 1876 he founded the Indian Association. He was among the earliest leaders who attempted to forge all India links among the political associations in different parts of India. 
  • The Indian Association of Calcutta tried to open branches in the other two presidencies with a view to sending a joint petition to the British parliament on the eve of the renewal of the Company's Charter. The Native Press Association was founded by the Indian journalists in the 1870s and Surendranath Banerjea was chosen as its first secretary. The Indian Association organised a National conference in Calcutta in 1883 and another was scheduled in December 1885. He became a member of the Imperial Legislative Assembly in 1921 and was knighted the same year.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 21

Which of the following conditions are favourable for the formation of Tropical Cyclones?

1. Sea surface with a temperature higher than 27° C

2. Coriolis force

3. Large differences in the vertical wind speed

4. High pressure area

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 21
  • Statement 1 is correct: Sea surface with a temperature higher than 27° C provides a continuous source of water to the storm leading to formation and intensification of tropical cyclone storms.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Coriolis force is formed due to the rotation of the Earth on its axis. It deflects bodies towards their right in the Northern hemisphere and towards their left in the Southern hemisphere. Coriolis force provides circular movement to the cyclone.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: Small differences in the vertical wind speed is required for formation and intensification of tropical cyclone storms. Statement 4 is not correct: Cyclones are characterised by a low pressure area at the Centre, which is called the Eye of the Cyclone. Therefore, a pre-existing low pressure area is conducive to the formation of a cyclone.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 22

Consider the following statements:

  1. Deserts are mostly formed in the western part of the continents.
  2. Warm currents contribute to the formation of Desert.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 22

Option (a) is the correct answer.

There is a certain definite pattern to the location of the world’s desert. Almost all the deserts are confined within the 15 to 30 degrees parallels of latitude north and south of the equator.

Deserts lie in the trade wind belt on the western part of the continent where trade winds are off-shore. They are bathed by Cold Currents which produce a desiccating effect. So that moisture is not easily condensed into precipitation.

Statement 1 is correct. Deserts are mostly formed in the western part of the continent where trade winds are off-shore.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Cold currents contribute to the formation of deserts by producing a desiccating effect (removal of moisture) so that moisture is not easily condensed. This also causes the air above the cod current to become cold and develops into a stable cold air mass which is difficult to break, thus causing stable conditions for desert to form.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 23

With reference to the Paris climate agreement, consider the following statements:

  1. Paris climate agreement replaced the Kyoto Protocol.

  2. It aims to limit global warming to well below 2.5°C compared to pre-industry levels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 23
  • The Paris Agreement (also known as the Conference of Parties 21 or COP 21) was adopted in 2015. It replaced the Kyoto Protocol which was an earlier agreement to deal with climate change. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • It is a global treaty wherein some 200 countries agreed to cooperate to reduce Green House Gas (GHG) Emissions and rein in climate change. It seeks to limit global warming to well below 2°C, preferably to 1.5°C, compared to pre-industry levels. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 24

In the context of the busiest world trade routes, the Big Trunk Route is a part of the

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 24
  • The Northern Atlantic Sea Route links North-eastern U.S.A. and North-western Europe, the two industrially developed regions of the world. The foreign trade over this route is greater than that of the rest of the world combined. One-fourth of the world's foreign trade moves on this route. It is, therefore, the busiest in the world and otherwise, called the Big Trunk Route. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

  • Both the coasts have highly advanced ports and harbor facilities. Rich agricultural, commercial, and industrial regions of Europe export large quantities of manufactured items-textiles, chemicals, machinery, fertilizers, steel, and wine to the United States and Canada. Bulky and large quantities of food grains and raw materials, like wheat, wood pulp, copper as well as iron and steel, transport, copper as well as iron and steel, transport, copper as well as iron and steel. Transport equipment etc. is sent to Western Europe through this route.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 25

What will happen if the Earth’s core cools down ?

1. The convection mechanism within the earth stops.

2. The Earth will lose its continental drift resulting in the absence of volcanic eruptions, earthquakes etc.,

3. The magnetic field of Earth will disappear.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 25

Earth's geomagnetic field originates in the fluid outer core. Like boiling water on a stove, convective forces (which move heat from one place to another, usually through air or water) constantly churn the molten metals, which also swirl in whirlpools driven by Earth's rotation. As this roiling mass of metal moves around, it generates electrical currents hundreds of miles wide and flowing at thousands of miles per hour as Earth rotates. This mechanism, which is responsible for maintaining Earth's magnetic field, is known as the geodynamo.

Cooling of the Earth's core leads to stopping the convection mechanism within the Earth and also leads to disappear the magnetic shield around the planet, which protects Earth from cosmic radiation. When the Earth has cooled completely, the movement in the mantle will also stop eventually. Then, the plates on the surface will no longer move, and Volcanoes will no longer erupt; the continents will stop drifting, clashing, and causing earthquakes. The magnetic field will disappear, and the planet will become similar to Mars. So, Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 26

Consider the following statements with respect to the distribution of ocean temperature :

1. In general, the surface water temperature decreases from the equator toward the poles.

2. Oceans in the Northern hemisphere record a relatively higher average temperature than in the Southern hemisphere.

3. In the Northern Atlantic Ocean, the decrease in temperature with increasing latitudes is relatively high than in the southern Atlantic Ocean.

Which of the above statement is/are not correct ?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 26
  • The average temperature of surface water in the oceans is about 27°C, gradually decreasing from the equator towards the poles. The rate of decrease of temperature with increasing latitude is generally 0.5°C per latitude. The surface water temperature decreases from the equator to the poles as the sun's rays become increasingly slanted, and therefore the amount of insolation decreases poleward. The surface water temperature between 40°N and 40°S is lower than the air temperature, but it becomes higher than the air temperature between 40° latitude and the poles in both the hemispheres. So, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The oceans in the northern hemisphere record relatively higher temperatures than in the southern hemisphere. The highest temperature is not recorded at the equator but slightly towards the north of it. The average annual temperature for the northern and southern hemispheres is around 19° C and 16° C, respectively. This variation is due to the unequal distribution of land and water in the northern and southern hemispheres. It is a well-known fact that the maximum temperature of the oceans is always at their surfaces because they directly receive the heat from the sun, and the heat is transmitted to the lower sections of the oceans through the conduction process. It results in the decrease of temperature with the increasing depth, but the rate of decrease is not uniform throughout. The temperature falls very rapidly up to the depth of 200 m, and after that, the rate of decrease of temperature is slowed down. So, Statement 2 is correct.
  • In Northern Atlantic, there is a very low decrease in temperature with increasing latitudes towards the north. However, in the southern Atlantic, the decrease in temperature with increasing latitude is more pronounced. The North Atlantic is the warmest and saltiest, the South Atlantic is the coldest and densest, and the North Pacific is the least dense and least salty. Temperature variations between the northern and southern hemispheres are caused by the different distribution of land and ocean water. Because of warm ocean currents, the temperature decline with increasing latitude in the northern Atlantic Ocean is very low. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 27

Consider the following statements

1. Under the El Nino event, the surface temperature of the Pacific ocean increased more than usual causing heavy rainfalls in Australia.

2. While El-Nino leads to drought events in the subcontinent, La-Nina is primarily associated with flood events.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 27
  • In Context: The La Nina is being blamed this year for worsening the longest spell of heat waves in north, west and Central India.

  • Statement 1 is not correct: El-Nino: It leads to warming in surface temperature of the eastern Pacific Ocean region. This is associated with an increase in rainfall along the western coast of South America and a decrease in rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. It also leads to westerly winds, instead of the generally occurring easterly winds.

  • Statement 2 is correct: La-Nina: It is the reverse phenomenon of El-Nino. The temperatures over the eastern Pacific Ocean increases, along with a decrease in rainfall. Also, the rainfall over the Indian subcontinent increases, along with augmentation of the strength of surface-level easterly winds. El-Nino causes higher temperatures and lesser rainfall over the Indian subcontinent, during the monsoon season. On the other hand, la-Nina increases the rainfall and decreases the temperature. Therefore, it is the La-Nina which is (ironically!) much warmly welcomed in the Indian subcontinent. While El-Nino leads to drought events in the subcontinent, La-Nina is primarily associated with flood events. These disasters affect the socio-economic status of the affected communities.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 28

With reference to the coastline of Submergence, consider the following statements:

  1. Fiord and Ria coasts are glaciated coasts.

  2. Depth of Fiord coast increases seaward whereas depth of Ria coast is more near the Land.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 28

Coastlines of Submergence:

Ria Coast: During the Ice Age a great deal of water was locked up in ice. The warmer climate that followed melted much of the ice. Subsequently there was an increase in the waters of the oceans and the sea level rose appreciably.

In some cases it is estimated that there was a rise of almost 300 feet! In upland coastal regions where the mountains run at right angles to the sea, that is transverse or discordant to the coast, a rise in the sea level submerges or drowns the lower parts of the valleys to form long, narrow branching inlets separated by narrow head­lands.

Statement 1 is incorrect. They differ from fiords in two important respects, i.e. they are not glaciated, and their depth increases seawards. A Ria coast is typical of the Atlantic type of coast like those of north-west France, north-west Spain, south-west Ireland, Devon and Cornwall. As Rias are generally backed by highland, they support few large commercial ports though they have deep water and offer sheltered anchorage. They have been

extensively used for siting fishing ports and naval bases such as Plymouth and Brest.

Fiord Coast: Fiords are submerged U-shaped glacial troughs. They mark the paths of glaciers that plunged down from the highlands. They have steep walls, often rising straight from the sea, with tributary branches joining the main inlet at right angles.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Due to the greater intensity of ice erosion fiords are deep for great distances inland but there is a shallow section at the seaward end formed by a ridge of rock and called the threshold. Off the fiord coast are numerous islands or skerries which, with the shallow thresholds, sometimes only 200 feet deep, complicate coastal navigation. Fiord coasts are almost entirely confined to the higher latitudes of the temperate regions which

were once glaciated e.g. Norway, Alaska, British Columbia, southern Chile and the South Island of New Zealand.

Some of the large fiords are extremely long and deep. For example, the Sogne Fiord of Norway is 110 miles long, 4 miles wide and almost 4,000 feet deep in its mid-channel. Despite their deep and sheltered water, few large ports are located in fiords. Their mountainous background with poor accessibility inland, attract few settlements.

Agriculture is confined to the deltaic fans, built up where streams flow down to the fjords. The few towns that exist either as fishing or market centres e.g. Trondheim, are only of local importance.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. Fossils are primarily found in both igneous rocks and sedimentary rocks.

  2. The volcanic rocks formed at the surface have smaller mineral grains compared to those at depth.

  3. Lithification is an important process of forming metamorphic rocks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 29
Based on the mode of formation three major groups of rocks are defined: Igneous, Sedimentary, and Metamorphic.
  • Igneous rocks: Rocks formed out of solidification of magma (molten rock below the surface) and lava (molten rock above the surface) are known as igneous rocks. The igneous rocks are unfossiliferous as they form under conditions of high temperatures. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Igneous rocks are classified based on texture. If molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very large. Sudden cooling (at the surface) results in small and smooth grains. Intermediate conditions of cooling would result in intermediate sizes of grains making up igneous rocks. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Sedimentary rocks: Rocks (igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction turn into sedimentary rocks. This process is called lithification. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • Metamorphic rocks: When rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks, metamorphosis occurs. In the process of metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement is called foliation or lineation.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 30

Which of the following states is the largest producer of coffee in India?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 30
  • India is a leading country in the world in terms of coffee production and stands 8th among the top 10 coffee-producing countries in the world. There are three varieties of coffee i.e. arabica, robusta, and liberica. India mostly grows superior quality coffee, arabica, which is in great demand in the international market.

  • In India, coffee is mainly produced in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.

  • Among all coffee-producing states in India, Karnataka is the largest producer and produces more than 70% of the total coffee produced in the country.

  • Kodagu, Chikmagalur, and Hassan are the main coffee-producing regions in Karnataka.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

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