JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) Exam  >  JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) Tests  >  JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024  >  JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) MCQ

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 - JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) 2024 is part of JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 questions and answers have been prepared according to the JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) exam syllabus.The JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 MCQs are made for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 below.
Solutions of JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 questions in English are available as part of our JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) & JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 solutions in Hindi for JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) Exam by signing up for free. Attempt JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

This temple is built in Chalukyan Style on the Prabhas Pattan or Veraval Port of Gujrat. It was raided by Mahmud of Ghazni and is believed to have been plundered at least 17 times. India’s first president Dr Rajendra Prasad performed the Pran Pratishtha Ceremony over here. Which is the temple being referred to in the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 1
Somnath Temple:
  • It is the first among the 12 Jyotirlingas which are symbolic representations of Lord Shiva.

  • Located at the Veraval Port or Prabhas Pattan in Saurashtra, Gujrat, the present temple is built in the Chalukyan style.

    • This Architecture is also known as the “Kailash Mahameru Prasad” style.

    • It reflects the skill of the SompuraSalats, one of Gujarat’s master masons.

  • Raids - In AD 1026, Mahmud of Ghazni first looted the temple,and then came Afzal Khan, the commander of Ala-ud-din Khilji and later Aurangzeb.

  • It is said that the temple was looted and destroyed as many as seventeen times.

  • Post Modern History - The Iron man of India, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel was instrumental in the construction of the present temple.

  • The first President of India Dr Rajendra Prasad installed the Jyotirling in the new temple on May 11, 1951.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

1. Ellora caves have monasteries associated with Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism.

2. Elephanta caves were originally a Buddhist site, later dominated by the Shaivite faith.

3. Bagh caves are associated with Jainism only.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 2
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Ellora Caves are a series of rock-cut cave monuments that are associated with Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism. The caves were constructed between the 6th and 10th centuries CE and are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The caves are renowned for their beautiful sculptures and carvings, including depictions of the Buddha, Shiva and Vishnu. Elephanta Caves are a series of rock-cut temples that are located on an island in the Arabian Sea.

The caves were originally a Buddhist site, but were later dominated by the Shaivite faith. The caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site and are known for their sculptures and carvings depicting Hindu deities, stories from the Puranas and various scenes from Hindu mythology. Bagh Caves are a series of rock-cut cave monuments that are associated with Jainism. The caves were built between the 5th and 8th centuries CE and are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The caves are renowned for their sculptures and carvings, including depictions of popular Jain figures and various scenes from Jain mythology. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

With respect of Swadesh Bandhab Samiti set up during the Swadeshi Movement, which of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 3
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • The Swadesh Bandhab Samiti set up by Ashwini Kumar Dutt, a school teacher, in Barisal was the most well-known volunteer organization of them all.

  • Through the activities of this Samiti, whose 159 branches reached out to the remotest corners of the district, Dutt was able to generate an unparalleled mass following among the predominantly Muslim Peasantry of the region. The samitis took the Swadeshi message to the villages through magic lantern lectures and Swadeshi songs, gave physical and moral training to the members, did social work during famines and epidemics, organized schools training in Swadeshi craft and arbitration courts.

  • By August 1906 the Barisal Samiti reportedly settled 523 disputes through eighty-nine arbitration committees.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

Arrange the following bhakti saints chronologically:

  1. Narsi Mehta

  2. Basavanna

  3. Tulsidas

  4. Manikkavasagar

Select the correct answer using the code given Below.

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 4
  1. Narsi Mehta – 15th century CE. He was a bhakti saint from region belonging to the present-day Gujarat.

  2. Basavanna – 12th century CE. He was a bhakti saint from belonging to the present-day Karnataka.

  3. Tulsidas – 16th -17th century CE. He was a bhakti saint from belonging to the present-day Uttar Pradesh.

  4. Manikkavasagar – 9th Century CE. He was a 9th-century Tamil poet who wrote Tiruvasakam, a book of Shaiva hymns. He was a bhakti saint from belonging to the present-day Tamil Nadu.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

Which of the following best describes the term ‘khatduh’ belonging to the state of Meghalaya?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

Matriliny in Meghalaya Communities:

  • The Khasis, numbering about 1.39 lakh, are one of the three indigenous matrilineal communities in the northeastern State. The other two are Garos and Jaintias.

What constitutes Matriliny?

  • In this system, lineage and descent are traced through the mother’s clan, like
    • Children take the mother’s surname,
    • The husband moves into his wife’s house, and
    • The youngest daughter (khatduh) of the family is bequeathed the full share of the ancestral — or the clan’s — property. Hence option (a) and (b) are correct.
  • The khatduh becomes the “custodian” of the land.
    • She assumes all responsibility associated with the land, including taking care of aged parents, unmarried or destitute siblings.
  • Khasi marrying non-Khasi person:
    • It is mandatory for any Khasi woman who marries a non-Khasi to obtain the Khasi tribe certificate for applying for the ST certificate for her children. 
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Consider the following statements
1. Basavanna and Muhammad Bin Tughluq are contemporaries.
2. Kalidasa and Chandragupta Maurya are contemporaries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Both the statements are incorrect.

  • Basaveshwara, colloquially known as Basavanna, was a 12th-century CE Indian statesman, philosopher, poet, Lingayat saint in the Shiva-focussed bhakti movement, and a Hindu Shaivite social reformer during the reign of the Kalyani Chalukya/Kalachuri dynasty. Basava was active during the rule of both dynasties but reached the peak of his influence during the rule of King Bijjala II in Karnataka, India.
  • Mohammad ibn Tughlaq or Mohammad Bin Tughlaq was the Sultan of Delhi from 1325 to 1351. He was the eldest son of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq, the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty.
  • The true beauty and grandeur of the literature in Gupta Era can be seen in the kavyas. The greatest among all the names is Kalidasa who lived in the 4th century CE and was a contemporary of Chandragupta II. His earliest production was Ritusamhara. But earliest drama was Malvikagnimitram. Meghaduta is pioneer Dutakavya in Sanskrit literature.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

With reference to the administration during Magadhan Empire, consider the following pairs:
Person - Designation
1. Koliya - Minister
2. Kumbhaghosaka - Physician
3. Jivaka - Treasurer
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
 

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

Magadhan Empire’s won were those that had larger, stronger, better armies, and this, in turn, was the result of effective political strategies of administration and control. Magadha’s gradual rise to political supremacy began with Bimbisara. The rise of Magadha to political supremacy can be reconstructed by comparing the information in the Puranic, Buddhist, and Jaina texts. The Mahavagga, a Buddhist text, speaks of Bimbisara’s administration and suggests that Bimbisara had a very large kingdom consisting of thousands of prosperous villages. Buddhist text talks of high- ranking officials known as mahamatras, who probably had executive, judicial, and military functions. Some administration members are:

  • Minister - Koliya
  • Treasurer - Kumbhaghosaka
  • Village Headmen - Gramakas
  • High-Ranking Officials - Mahamatras
  •  Physician - Jivaka
  • Flower Gatherer – Sumana.

So, Option (b) is correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

With reference to Indian History, consider the following pairs :
Historical person      Known as

1. Aryadeva                   Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga                  Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni              Vaishnava scholar
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 8
  • Aryadeva, was a Mahayana Buddhist monk, a disciple of Nagarjuna and a Madhyamaka philosopher. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
  • Dignaga was an Indian Buddhist scholar and one of the Buddhist founders of Indian logic (hetu vidya). Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Dignaga’s work laid the groundwork for the development of deductive logic in India and created the first system of Buddhist logic and epistemology (Pramana).
  • Sri Ranganathamuni, popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni, was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
  • Hence Correct Answer- Option-D 
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Sangam Literature’:

1. The Sangam literature was composed by the assemblies of Tamil poets.

2. The achievements of three powerful kingdoms i.e. Chera, Chola and Pallava were praised in the Sangam works.

3. The Sangam literature was composed during the four Sangam assemblies.

Which of the statement given below is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 9
  • Sangam literature Some of the earliest works in Tamil, known as Sangam literature, were composed around 2300 years ago. These texts were called Sangam because they were supposed to have been composed and compiled in assemblies (known as sangams) of poets that were held in the city of Madurai.

  • The period in which the Sangam literature was composed is called Sangam Age. The three kingdoms Chera, Chola and Pandya flourished during this period. There were three Sangams which created a literary movement. The Sangam literature consists of Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku and the two epics Silappathigaram and Manimegalai. Among these, the Tolkappiyam authored by Tolkappiyar was the earliest work which provides the information on Social, Economic and political conditions of the Sangam Age along with the Tamil grammar.

  • It was composed in the second Sangam. The third Sangam created Patthupattu, (Ten Idylls or poetries), Ettuthokai (The eight Anthologies), Padinenkilkanakkyu (The Eight Minor Didactic Poems), the Rural and Jivaka Chintamani etc. The Sangam literature speaks of the worship of Vishnu, Siva and Indra.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

Regarding the Modhera Sun Temple, consider the following statements:

1. It is on the banks of Pushpavati River in Tamil Nadu.

2. It was built in the 11th century during the Chalukya dynasty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 10
The Ahmedabad Railway Station at Kalupur in Ahmedabad City will be developed on the theme of Modhera Sun Temple in the next five years.

Statement 1 is not correct :Modhera Sun Temple is located in Mehsana, neighbouring Ahmedabad district of Gujarat .Situated on the banks of Pushpavati River. Statement 2 is correct : Built in the 11th century during the Chalukya dynasty in honour of the Sun God, it is one of the major tourist destinations in North Gujarat.

● It is surrounded by a terra-formed garden of flowering trees and songs of birds.

● The remains of the Sun Temples at Modhera are relics of times gone by when reverence of the natural elements fire, air, earth, water and sky were at their peak sharing space with myriad manifestations of Vedic gods.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

Consider the following statements

  1. He founded the Servants of India Society.

  2. He started an English weekly newspaper, “The Hitavada”.

  3. He was a mentor to both Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammed Ali Jinnah.

Which of the following personality is been discussed in the above statements?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 11
  • In News: PM paid tributes to Gopal Krishna Gokhale on his birth anniversary.

  • Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society(SIS) in Maharashtra’s Pune on June 12, 1905. The SIS launched campaigns for the promotion of education, health care and sanitation. It also made efforts to eradicate social evils such as untouchability and oppression of women. He started an English weekly newspaper, The Hitavada (The people's paper). He was a mentor to both Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammed Ali Jinnah. Gandhi Ji, in his autobiography, described Gokhale as “pure as crystal, gentle as a lamb, brave as a lion and chivalrous to a fault and the most perfect man in the political field.”

  • Similarly, Jinnah was so inspired by Gokhle that his aspiration, during the early years of his political life, was to become a “Muslim Gokhle”.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

Arrange the following events chronologically:

1. Establishment of Sanskrit College by Jonathan Duncan

2. Establishment of Calcutta Madrasah

3. Censorship of Press Act

4. Foundation of the Asiatic Society of Bengal

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 12
Option (c) is the correct answer

● Calcutta Madrasah (1781) was established by Warren Hastings in 1781 for the study of Muslim law and related subjects.

● Foundation of the Asiatic Society of Bengal (1784): was founded by civil servant Sir William Jones in 1784 to enhance and further the cause of Oriental research

● The Sanskrit College (1791) was established by Jonathan Duncan, the resident, at Benaras in 1791 for study of Hindu law and philosophy. Censorship of the Press Act, 1799: Lord Wellesley enacted this, anticipating French invasion of India. It imposed almost wartime press restrictions including pre-censorship. These restrictions were relaxed under Lord Hastings, who had progressive views, and in 1818, pre censorship was dispensed with

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the 1857 revolt?

  1. The 1857 revolt failed as most of the Rajas and Nawabs helped the British cause.

  2. The revolt was led by enlightened and educated middle class.

  3. The Madras army remained complete loyal to the British and half of the company’s troops did not join the revolt and fought against Indians.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 13
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: One of the reasons for failure of 1857 revolt that most of the Rajas and Nawabs helped the British cause. Sir Dinkar Rao of Gwalior and Salar Jung of Nizam did everything to suppress the rebellion.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The revolt was led by old feudal lords not the enlightened middle educated class. These people had already been defeated many times.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Madras army remained completely loyal to the British and half of the company’s troops did not join the revolt and fought against Indians. The south India was not affected by this revolt. Punjab, Sindh, Rajputana, and east Bengal remain undisturbed.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

The call of “No religion, No caste and No God for mankind” against the caste system, is related to which of the following leaders?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 14
  • Kumbalathuparambu Ayyappan better identified as Sahodaran Ayyappan, was a social reformer, thinker, rationalist, journalist, and politician from Kerala, India. A vocal follower of Sree Narayana Guru, he was associated with a number of events related to the Kerala reformation movement and was the organizer of Misra Bojana in Cherai in 1917. He founded Sahodara Sangam, and the journal Sahodaran and was the founder-editor of the magazine Yukthivadhi.

  • He gave the call of “No religion, No caste and No God for mankind” against the caste system.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with reference to the Red Shirts movement of 1929 :
1. It is a nationalist movement started by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan.
2. It aimed to introduce a better education system through the establishment of village schools.
3. It aimed to reform the social structure by eliminating violence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 15
  • ‘Khudai Khidmatgars movement’ (“Servants of God”), also known as the ‘Red-Shirts’ movement is a nationalist and nonviolent one, that was established in 1929. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan also called Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi had organized a volunteer brigade (a military unit), ‘Khudai Khidmatgars,’ popularly known as the ‘Red-Shirts,’ who were pledged to the freedom struggle.
  • One of the fundamental ideas of the movement is to reform the social structure by preparing the people for more direct action against British rule by the use of non-violent means. So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
  • The red Shirts movement of 1929 was initially a social reform organization focusing on a better education system through the establishment of village schools and was set to work organizing village projects to build capacity and prepare the people for more direct action against British rule. Later, only it developed into a Political movement. So, Statement 2 is correct.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the “Doctrine of Lapse”?
1. It was invented and applied by Lord Dalhousie to the Indian states. 
2. The adopted son had the right to succeed the personal property of the chieftain.
3. It was not applicable to those states which were not tributary, and which were not and never had been
subordinate to a paramount power. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

Doctrine of Lapse –

  • Dalhousie did not invent the Doctrine. As early as 1834, the Court of Directors had laid down that in case of failure of lineal successors the permission 'to adopt' was an indulgence that "should be the exception, not the rule, and should not be granted but as a special mark of favour and approbation." Few years later in 1841, the home authorities decided in favour of a uniform policy and directed the Governor-General "to persevere in the one clear and direct course of abandoning no just and honourable accession of territory or revenue while all existing claims of right are at the same time scrupulously respected". It was in pursuance of the policy thus laid down that Mandavi state was in 1840 and the titular dignity of the Nawab of Surat abolished in 1842.
  • According to Dalhousie, there were 3 categories of Hindu states in those days in India – Those states which were not tributary, and which were not and never had been subordinate to a paramount power. Hindu princes and chieftains which were tributary and owed subordination to the British Government as their paramount power in place of the Emperor of Delhi or the Peshwa, etc. Hindu sovereignties and states which had been created or revived by the Sanads (grants) of the British Government. 
  • Dalhousie recognised the right of the adopted son to succeed to the personal property of the chieftain, but drew a distinction between succession to private property and succession to the Royal Gaddi: In the latter case, he held that the sanction of the Paramount Power must be obtained. The Paramount Power could refuse 'adoption' in case of states covered by categories II and III, and declare the states having passed back or 'lapsed' to the supreme authority. 
  • In such cases the 'Right of Adoption' was substituted by the Paramount Power's 'Right of Lapse'. The power that gives, it was argued, could also rightfully take it away. It may be added that the over-zealous Governor-General treated some states as 'depedent principalities' or 'subordinate states' which rightly were ‘protected allies'. Dalhousie's decision, therefore, had to be reversed by the Court of Directors in case of the old Rajput state of Karauli. Similarly, Baghat and Udaipur were returned to their respective rulers by Lord Canning. 
  • The states actually annexed by the application of the Doctrine of Lapse under Lord Dalhousie were Satara (1848), Jaitpur and Sambhalpur (1849), Baghat (1850), Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854).
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

Consider the following statements about social reforms movements in Western India:
1. Prarthana Samaj was more radical than Brahmo Samaj in its prescriptions against social evils.
2. Manav Dharma Sabha was founded by Dadoba Pandurang and Durgaram Mehta.
3. Paramhansa Mandali was secret organisation that believed in One-God.
Which of the statement given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867 by Atmaram Pandurang in Bombay. This organisation became popular in Western India after M G Ranade joined it. The Samaj was different from the Brahmo Samaj of Bengal in that it was not as radical and took a cautious approach to the reformist programmes. For this reason, it was better received by the public as well. Prarthana Samaj did not ask its members to believe their caste and discard rituals. Manav Dharma Sabha was secret social reform movement founded in Surat in 1844 by Durgaram Mehta and Dadoba Pandurang. It was one of the earliest socio-religious reform movements in Gujarat. The goals of Manav Dharma Sabha were to expose the deceitful acts present in Chritianity, Islam and Hinduism. Manav Dharma Sabha developed 7 principles which reflected its core philosophy. They are:

  1. There is one God, the creator of this universe.
  2. All human beings belong to one fraternity.
  3. Religion is one for all men, yet, if they follow several faiths each one believings in one's own, one is only following the bent of one's mind. Men should be judged by the qualities they have, and not by their lineage or caste.
  4. Men should not act with discrimination.
  5. The object of all action should be to win the grace of God.
  6. All should be taught the importance of path of righteousness. Paramhansa Mandali was founded by Dadoba Pandurang and Bal Shastri Jambhekar in Bombay in 1849. (After he left Manav Dharma Sabha in Surat and came to Bombay). It was secret organisation. These principles denied polytheism of popular Hinduism, the caste system and the Brahmanical monopoly of knowledge. All members were required to take a pledge that they would abandon caste restrictions and take food and drink prepared by a member of a lower caste.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

Which of the following were part(s) of the Congress manifesto for elections to the Provincial Assemblies held in 1937?
1. Total rejection of the Government of India Act 1935.
2. Removal of disabilities on the basis of gender and caste.
3. Radical transformation of the agrarian system.
4. Right to form trade unions and to strike.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

Congress Manifesto for the Elections – The Congress manifesto reaffirmed total rejection of the Government of India Act 1935 and promised the release of the prisoners, the removal of the disabilities on the basis of gender and caste, radical transformation of the agrarian system, substantial reduction of rent and revenue, scaling down of rural debts, cheap credit and right to form trade unions and to strike. Gandhi did not attend a single election meeting. Note: In February, 1937, elections to the Provincial Assemblies were held. Elections were held in 11 Provinces – Madras, the Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, the United Provinces, the Bombay Presidency, Assam, the NWFP, Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

Which of the following reflects/reflect the influence of the Socialist ideas on the Congress?
1. The Resolution on Fundamental Rights passed by the Karachi Session.
2. The formation of the National Planning Committee in 1938.
3. Election manifesto of the Congress in 1936.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

The impact of the Socialist ideas on the National Movement was reflected in the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy passed by the Karachi Session of the Congress in 1931; the Resolutions on Economic Policy passed at the Faizpur Session in 1936; the Election Manifesto of the Congress in 1936; the setting up of a National Planning Committee in 1938; and the increasing shift of Gandhiji towards radical positions on economic and class issues.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Eka movement or unity peasant movement in the 1920s?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 20
  • The Eka Movement is a peasant movement that started in Lucknow, and soon spread to Hardoi, Unnao, and Sitapur districts and became a strong force. The initial thrust was provided by Congress and Khilafat leaders and the movement grew under the name of the Eka or unity movement. The main grievances here related to the extraction of a rent that was generally fifty percent higher than the recorded rent, the oppression of thekedars to whom the work of rent- collection was farmed out and the practice of share-rents. 
  • The Eka meetings were marked by a religious ritual in which a hole that represented the river Ganges was dug in the ground and filled with water, a priest was brought in to preside and the assembled peasants owed that they would pay only the recorded rent but pay it on time, would not leave when ejected, would refuse to do forced labour, would give no help to criminals and abide by the panchayat decisions. 
  • The Eka Movement, however, soon developed its own grassroots leadership in the form of Madari Pasi and other low-caste leaders who were no particularly inclined to accept the discipline of non- violence that the Congress and Khilafat leaders urged. 
  • As a result, the movement’s contact with the nationalists diminished and it went its own way. However, unlike the earlier Kisan Sabha a movement that was based almost solely on tenants, the Eka Movement included in its ranks many small zamindars who found themselves disenchanted with the Government because of its heavy land revenue demand. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. 
  • By March 1922, however, severe repression on the part of the authorities succeeded in bringing the Eka Movement to its end.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

“The soil is generally clayey, deep and impermeable. It swells and become sticky when

wet and shrinks when dried. It is rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina.” The above characteristics can be attributed to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 21
  • Option D is the correct answer. Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu. In the upper reaches of the Godavari and Krishna, and the north western part of the Deccan Plateau, the black soil is very deep. These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.

  • The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soils develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self-ploughing’. Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.

  • Black soil is rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. At the same time, it also contains potash. However black soil lacks phosphorus, nitrogen and organic matter. It is suitable for growing cotton.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Which of the following is geographically closest to the Great Nicobar Islands?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 22
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Distance from Great Nicobar to Sri Lanka is 1,437 km. Distance from Great Nicobar to Sumatra is 1,192 km.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

Which of the following are common characteristics of weather fronts?

  1. Large difference in air temperature across the front.

  2. Bending isobar

  3. Abrupt shift in wind direction

  4. Cloudiness and precipitation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 23
  • A front is that sloping boundary which separates two opposing air masses having contrasting characteristics in terms of air temperature, humidity, density, pressure, and wind direction. An extensive transitional zone between two converging air masses is called the frontal zone or frontal surface which represents a zone of discontinuity in the properties of opposing contrasting air masses. Frontal zone is neither parallel nor vertical to the ground surface, rather it is inclined at a low angle.

  • Though fronts differ from each other in terms of their location, types, and the areal extent they are characterized by the following common characteristics e.g. large difference in air temperature across a front, bending isobars, the abrupt shift in wind direction, cloudiness and precipitation.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

Consider the following:

  1. Natural disasters

  2. Availability of regular work

  3. Poverty

  4. High population pressure on land

  5. Local conflicts

Which of the above-mentioned factors can be classified as the push factors of migration in India?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 24
  • The reasons for migration can be put into two broad categories:

    • push factor, these cause people to leave their place of residence or origin; and

    • pull factors, which attract people from different places.

  • In India, people migrate from rural to urban areas mainly due to poverty, high population pressure on the land, lack of basic infrastructural facilities like health care, education, etc. Apart from these factors, natural disasters such as floods, drought, cyclonic storms, earthquakes, tsunami, wars, and local conflicts also give an extra push to migrate. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

  • The most important pull factor for a majority of the rural migrants to urban areas is the better opportunities, availability of regular work, and relatively higher wages. Better opportunities for education, better health facilities and sources of entertainment, etc., are also quite important pull factors.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

Which of the following is/are not the effects of soil erosion ?

1. Increase in Frequency and intensity of floods and drought

2. Increase in water holding capacity of Rivers

3. Lowering of Groundwater level

4. Uneven Nutrient distribution

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

Soil erosion is the displacement of the upper layer of soil (called topsoil). It is a naturally occurring process that affects all landforms. However, certain human activities greatly enhance this process and contribute to significant soil loss. The intensity of soil erosion has also increased due to increased landslides, floods and drought. Soil erosion decreases soil fertility, which can negatively affect crop yields. It also sends soil-laden water downstream, which can create heavy layers of sediment that prevent streams and rivers from flowing smoothly and can eventually lead to flooding. The fertile soil on the top most surface of the dry agricultural land is easily blown away by the wind, which causes soil erosion. So, scarcity of water during drought increases soil erosion. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The raindrops dispersed the soil and washed away into the nearby streams and rivers. Regions with very heavy and frequent rainfall face a large amount of soil loss. When topsoil has eroded, the loss of organic matter can alter the soil's physical properties, especially soil density. Higher clay content at the surface can reduce infiltration of topsoil reducing soil recharge, thus reducing water availability to the plants. The flowing water during floods also erodes a lot of soil by creating potholes, rock-cut basins, etc. Thus, erosion decreases the water holding capacity of the rivers. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Groundwater erosion is the process by which groundwater erodes part of the bedrock as it passes through. This is primarily due to carbonic acid in the groundwater, which forms when rainwater picks up carbon dioxide in the atmosphere as it falls. The soil erosion mechanisms affect how much water the soil can hold, how rapidly water flows over the soil and its movement below the surface. Soil erosion adversely hinders the growth of plants, agricultural yields, quality of water, and recreation. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Soil erosion reduces the agricultural value of lands via physicochemical degradations. Soil nutrient loss through runoff and sediment is a major driver for soil fertility decline. The eroded sediments or soil are highly concentrated with crop nutrients, which are washed away from farmlands. Some conditions under which erosion can help distribute nutrients across a given area of land. The first condition under which this can occur is a condition of uneven soil nutrient distribution. In such a scenario, nutrients in the form of compost, mulch, or chemical fertilizer; are concentrated heavily in a defined area of land, while the concentration may be very low (relatively) in adjacent areas. A condition like this is unfavorable to the health of the soil and the optimal functioning of the entire ecosystem. Erosion can resolve the problem of uneven nutrient distribution when it occurs mildly or in a cyclic fashion. So, Statement 4 is correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Maharashtra

4. Odisha

With reference to the State mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

The correct answer is option 3, i.e 3-2-4-1.

  • As per the report published by the Forest Survey of India the percentage of forested area in ascending order is:
    • Chhattisgarh (41.09%),
    • Odisha (32.98%),
    • Madhya Pradesh (25.11%),
    • Maharashtra (16.47%)
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding Cyclone 30:

1. It is the biggest cyclotron in India for medical application.

2. It will provide for affordable radioisotopes and related radiopharmaceuticals for cancer care in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 27
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct. Cyclotrons are used to produce radioisotopes for diagnostic and therapeutic use for cancer care. Cyclone-30, the biggest cyclotron in India for medical application became operational in September 2018.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Cyclone-30 facility at VECC, Kolkata, a Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) unit, will have many unique features, under various stages of implementation, which are first of its kind in many ways. This facility will provide for affordable radioisotopes and related radiopharmaceuticals for the entire country especially for Eastern India for cancer treatment. It will also have in-situ production of Gallium-68 and Palladium-103 isotopes, used for breast cancer diagnosis and prostate cancer treatment, respectively.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

Which of the following is not an erosional coastal landform?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

Coastal Features of Deposition

  • Beaches: Sands & gravel loosened from the land are moved by waves to be deposited along the shore as beaches. The eroded material is transported along the shore in several distinct ways. Long shore drifts which comes obliquely to the coast carries material along the shore in the direction of the dominant wind. At the same time, backwash removes part of the material seawards, along the bed of the sea, and deposits it on the off-shore terrace and even beyond. The constant action of the waves automatically sorts out the shoreline deposits in a graded manner. The coarser materials are dropped by the waves at the top of the beaches & the finer materials, carried down the beach by the backwash, are dropped closer to the sea.

  • Spits & Bars:The debris eroded by waves is continually moved by long shore drift & where there is an indentation in the coast, such as at the mouth of the river or a bay, material may continue to be deposited across the inlet. As more materials are added, they will pile up into a ridge or embankment of shingle forming a spit, with one end attached to the land and other projecting into the sea. When a ridge of shingle is formed across the mouth of a river or the entrance to a bay, it is called a bar. Such a connecting bar that joins two land masses is known as Tombolo.

  • Marine Dunes & Dune Belts: With the force of on-shore winds, a large amount of coastal sand is driven landwards forming extensive marine dunes that stretches into dune belts. Their advance inland may engulf farms, roads & even the entire villages. Hence to arrest the migration of dunes, sand binding species of grass & shrubs, such as marram grass & pines are planted. KB) Coastal Features of Erosion

  • Capes & Bays: On exposed coasts, the continual action of waves on the rocks of varying resistance causes the coastline to be eroded irregularly. This is particularly pronounced where hard rocks occur in alternative band with softer rocks. The softer rocks are worn back into inlets or bays & the harder ones persist as headlands or capes. Even where the coastline consists of one rock type, irregularities will be caused by variation within the rock.

  • Cliffs & Wave cut platforms: Generally, any steep rock platform adjoining the coast forms a cliff, whose rate of recession will depend on its geological structure i.e. the stratification & jointing of the rocks & their resistance to wave attack. If the bed dips seaward, large blocks of rock will be dislodged & fall into the sea & cliff will rise in a series of steps. On the other hand, if the beds dip landward, the cliff will be more resistant to wave erosion. At the base of the cliff the sea cuts a notch, which gradually undermines the cliff, so that it collapses. As the cliff recedes landwards under the pounding of waves, an eroded base is left behind called a wave cut platform. The platform, upper part of which is exposed at low tides, slopes gently seawards, with its surface strewn with rock debris from the receding cliff. Further the abrasion continues until the pebbles are swept away in the sea with eroded material deposited on off shore terrace.

  • Cave, Arch, Stack & Stump: Prolonged waves attack on the base of the cliff & excavate holes in regions of local weakness called cave. When 2 caves approach each other from either side of headland & unite, they form an arch. Further erosion by waves will lead to total collapse of the arch. The seaward portion of the headland will remain as a pillar of rock known as stack. With the course of time, these stubborn stacks will gradually be eroded, leaving behind the stumps, which are only just visible above the sea level.

  • Geos & Gloups (blow-holes): The occasional splashing of the waves against the roof of a cave may enlarge the joints when air is compressed & released repeatedly inside them. A natural shaft is thus formed which may eventually pierce through the surface. Waves breaking into the cave may force water or air out of this hole. Such a shaft is termed as Gloup or blow hole. The enlargement of blow-holes & continual action of waves weakens the cave roof. When the cave roof collapses, a long, narrow creek may develop known as Geos.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. There is slight flattening of the earth at the equator and slight bulging at the poles.

  2. On any given day, the position of the Earth's magnetic poles moves by a few meters.

  3. The polarity of the Earth's magnetic field has remained the same since the formation of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 29
  • While the Earth appears to be round when viewed from the vantage point of space, it is actually closer to an ellipsoid. It is slightly flattened at the North and the South Poles and bulge in the middle. Its equatorial radius is 6378 km, but its polar radius is 6357 km - in other words, the Earth is slightly flattened. This is due to the centrifugal force created by the earth’s constant rotation. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • The magnetic poles of the earth are not fixed on the surface but wander quite a bit. The pole in the Northern Hemisphere seems to be moving northwards in geographic latitude by about 10 kilometers per year, but the motion is only an average. On any given day, it moves erratically by many tens of meters because of changes in the currents inside earth's core, as well as the influence of electrical currents in the ionosphere, and the changing space environment due to solar storms and winds. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • By dating the rocks on either side of the Mid Oceanic Ridge in the Atlantic Ocean, geologists discovered that the polarity of the Earth's field changes over the course of thousands of years. They are called Polarity Reversals. There have been about 170 of these reversals during the last 76 million years according to geological evidence. We are currently living during a period that has been called the Brunhes Magnetic Chron when the South Magnetic Pole is in the Northern Hemisphere. During the previous Matumaya Magnetic Chron, the North Magnetic Pole was in the Northern Hemisphere. Presently, Earth's magnetic field is weakening in strength by 5% every 100 years. It may be near zero in another few thousand years at this rate. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding footloose industries:

  1. Footloose industries enjoy relatively a free choice of location.

  2. These industries are generally polluting industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - Question 30
  • The footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors such as resources or transport. Therefore these industries enjoy a relatively free choice of location. Diamonds and computer chips are some examples of footloose industries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Footloose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight loss, or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. Hence, access to raw material is not an important factor influencing the location of footloose industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.

  • They produce in small quantities and also employ a small labor force. These are generally not polluting industries. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • The reason for the growth of footloose industries lies in the rapid development of highly sophisticated products requiring a great deal of scientific research and development. Footloose industries enable quick product improvement of their products to suit the market demand.

View more questions
20 tests
Information about JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir)

Download as PDF

Top Courses for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir)