JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) MCQ

• Special features of Mahajanpadas Administration Forts were probably built because people were afraid of attacks from other kings and needed protection.

• Some rulers wanted to show how rich and powerful they were by building really large,

• tall and impressive walls around their cities.

• The land and the people living inside the fortified area could be controlled more easily by the king by building forts.

• Building such huge walls required a great deal of planning including resources, labours etc. The new rajas now began maintaining armies.

• Soldiers were paid regular salaries and maintained by the king throughout the year.

• The Mahajanapadas started to collect regular taxes.

• Changes took place in agriculture like the use of iron ploughshares and transplanting paddy.

• Generally, slave men and women, (dasas and dasis) and landless agricultural labourers (kammakaras) had to do agricultural work.

The term, which Indo-Persian sources of the Mughal period most frequently used to denote a peasant, was raiyat (plural, riaya) or muzarian. In addition, the terms kisan or asami were also used. Sources of the seventeenth century refer to two kinds of peasants – khud-kashta and pahi-kashta.

Khud-kashta were residents of the village in which they held their lands. Pahi- Kashta were non-resident cultivators who belonged to some other village, but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis. People became pahi-kashta either out of choice, for example, when terms of revenue in a distant village were more favourable or out of compulsion, for example, forced by economic distress after a famine.

• Statement 1 is correct: Magadha was one of the most important ahajanapada. Magadha was a monarchy as there was rule of one person. Vajji was under a different form of government, known as gana or sangha. This was different from Magadha as here there were not one but many rulers, sometimes thousands of men ruled together and each one was called as raja. Vajji was a united republic of eight smaller kingdoms including Lichhavis, Janatriks and Videhas.

• Statement 2 is correct: Both the Buddha and Mahavira belonged to ganas or sanghas. The Buddha belonged to the Sakya gana and Mahavira belonged to Jantrica clan which belonged to Vajji Sangha.

Trabeate style was used in the construction of temples, mosques, tombs and in buildings attached to large stepped-wells (baolis) between the eighth and thirteenth centuries in India.

Trabeate style of architecture refers to where the roofs, doors and windows are made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns”.

Statement 2 is correct. There are two technological and stylistic developments are noticeable from the twelfth century (since the medieval age) -

• Limestone cement was increasingly used in construction. This was very high-quality cement, which, when mixed with stone chips hardened into concrete. This made construction of large structures easier and faster.

Arcuate style of architecture- In this type of architecture, the weight of the superstructure above the doors and windows was carried by arches.

• Satavahanas became prominent in the Indian political scene sometime in the middle of the first century BC. Gautamiputra Satakarni (first century AD) is considered to be the greatest of the Satavahana rulers.
• He is credited with the extension of Satavahana dominions by defeating Nahapana, the Shaka ruler of
• Western India. Simuka was the founder of the Satavahana Dynasty. Hence, statement 3 is not correct
• His kingdom is said to have extended from river Krishna in the south to river the Godavari in the north. The Satavahanas had their capital at Pratishthana (modern Paithan) near Aurangabad in Maharashtra. The Satavahana kingdom was wiped out in the first quarter of the third century AD and the Satavahanas kings were succeeded by the Kings of the lkshvaku dynasty.
• Satavahana Society:
  • The Satavahanas originally seems to have been a Deccan tribe. They however were so brahmanized that they claimed to be Brahmanas. Their most famous king, Gautamiputra Satakarni, described himself as a brahmana and claimed to have established the fourfold varna system which had fallen into disorder. He boasted that he had put an end to the intermixture between the people of different social orders. He considered it their primary duty to uphold the varna system i.e. the fourfold division of social structure. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Indigenous tribal people were increasingly acculturated by the Buddhist monks who were induced by land grants to settle in western Deccan. It is suggested that traders too supported the Buddhist monks, for the earliest caves seem to have been located on the trade routes.
  • Satavahanas kings were the first in Indian history to make tax-free land grants to Buddhists and Brahmanas to gain religious merit. This practice became more prominent in succeeding periods. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• During the second millennium B.C. several regional cultures sprang up in different parts of the Indian subcontinent. These were non-urban, non-Harappan and were characterized by the use of stone and copper tools. Hence, these cultures are termed chalcolithic cultures. The chalcolithic cultures are identified on the basis of their geographical location.
  • The Jorwe culture is the most important and characteristic chalcolithic culture of Maharashtra, extending almost all over the present state, excepting the coastal strip on the west and Vidarbha in the northeast. The culture is named after the type site of Jorwe in the Ahmednagar district, of Maharashtra. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Kayatha culture was named after the type site Kayatha, in the Ujjain district of Madhya Pradesh. Over forty settlements of the Kayatha culture have been so far discovered in the Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh, most of them being located on the tributaries of the Chambal River.
  • The Ahar culture is among the earliest Chalcolithic cultures of India. This is seen from the calibrated radio-carbon dates available from many of the sites. The culture has been named after the type site Ahar, in District Udaipur, Rajasthan.
     

• Ghiyas-ud-din Balban (1266 to 1287 AD), the ninth Sultan of the Mamluk dynasty of Delhi, was one of the most powerful Sultans. He was a member of Iltutmish's famed group of 40 Turkic slaves. He adopted a policy of consolidation rather than expansion. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The silver and copper coins were mainly in circulation for cash transactions during the period of the Delhi Sultanate. Iltutmish and not Balban introduced the two coins, the Tanka (silver coin) and the Jital (copper coin), which became the basis for the subsequent coinage of the Delhi Sultanate. The value of coinage fluctuated with the change in the prices of metals. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Qutub-ud-din Aibak and not Balbun was referred to as Lakh Baksh. Lakh Baksh is usually referred to as those who give away property and wealth to the needy and poor. Because of his generosity and gave liberal donations, Qutub-ud-din Aibak was called Lakh Baksh. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
• Balban ruled in an autocratic manner and worked hard to elevate the position of the Sultan. He introduced a new theory of kingship and redefined the relations between the Sultan and nobility. He did not allow any noble to assume great power. So, Statement 4 is correct.

• Statement 1 is not correct: Balban stood forth as the champion of Turkish nobility. He refused to entertain for important government posts anyone who did not belong to a noble family. He excluded Indian Muslims from all positions of power and authority.
  • To emphasise that the nobles were not his equals, he insisted on the ceremony of sijada and paibos. These ceremonies were Iranian in origin and were considered un-Islamic.
• Statement 2 is correct: To keep himself well informed, Balban appointed spies in every department. He also organized a strong centralized army, both to deal with internal disturbances, and to repel the Mongols who had entrenched themselves in Punjab and posed a serious danger to the Delhi Sultanat.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Muhammad bin Tughlaq launched a scheme to extend and improve cultivation in the doab. He set up a separate department called diwan-i-amir-i-kohi. The area was divided into development blocs headed by an official whose job was to extend cultivation by giving loans to the cultivators and to induce them to cultivate superior crops—wheat in place of barley, sugarcane in place of wheat, grapes and dates in place of sugarcane,etc.
  • Balban organised a strong centralized army, both to deal with internal disturbances and to repel the Mongols. For this purpose, he reorganized the military department (diwan-i-arz) and pensioned off those soldiers who were no longer fit for service.

Jagannath Puri Temple:

• Devasnana Purnima – The annual bathing ritual, where the holy trinity is brought out from their sanctum seated in a raised platform and bathed with purified water drawn from a well within thetemple premises.

• Chariot Festival – This happens during the month of June/July. During the festival, the Lord comes out to the street to greet his devotees, people irrespective of caste, creed & colour can seek his blessings.

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy established the “Atmiya Sabha” a precursor organization in the socio-religious reforms in Bengal in the year 1814 in Kolkata.

• It was a philosophical discussion circle where debates and discussions were held leading to the ideas for social reforms.

Statement 3 is Correct. The 1853 Charter Act ended the Company’s patronage, enjoining recruitment to be through an open competition henceforth. But the examination was held in England in English language, based on classical learning of Greek and Latin. The maximum permissible age was gradually reduced from 23 (in 1859) to 22 (in 1860) to 21 (in 1866) and to 19 (1878).

• Treaty of Ryswick: In July 1697 the treaty brought to an end the Nine Years War, in which Louis XIV's France faced a grand coalition of England, the Dutch, and Spain. Louis agreed to return most of his territorial acquisitions or réunions made since Nijmegen, but retained the important fortress town of Strasbourg.

  • The Dutch were allowed to garrison barrier fortresses in the Spanish Netherlands. In India Pondicherry was restored to French by Dutch.

  • The treaty, negotiated with much difficulty, lasted only four years before the War of the Spanish Succession broke out.

• Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle: It was signed between British and French in 1748 after first Carnatic war. Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle 1748 was negotiated largely by Britain and France with the other powers following their lead, ending the War of the Austrian Succession (1740–48).

  • The treaty was marked by the mutual restitution of conquests, including the fortress of Louisburg on Cape Breton Island, Nova Scotia, to France; Madras in India, to England.

• Treaty of peace of Paris: The Treaty of Paris of 1763 ended the French and Indian War/Seven Years’ War between Great Britain and France, as well as their respective allies.

  • In the terms of the treaty, France gave up all its territories in mainland North America, effectively ending any foreign military threat to the British colonies there. In India Pondicherry, Karaikal and other French possessions were returned to the French on condition that they should not fortify them and it ended the third Carnatic war in 1763.

• In November 1927, the British Government appointed the Indian Statutory Commission, known popularly after the name of its Chairman as the Simon Commission, to go into the question of further constitutional reform. It was formed by the Conservative Government of Britain. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• All the members of the Commission were Englishmen. This announcement was greeted by a chorus of protest from all Indians. What angered them most was the exclusion of Indians from the Commission and the basic notion behind this exclusion that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India's fitness for Self government. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• At its Madras Session in 1927, presided over by Dr. Ansari, the National Congress decided to boycott the Commission 'at every stage and in every form.' The Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision.

• The action began as soon as Simon Commission landed at Bombay on 3 February 1928. That day, people were out on the streets participating in black-flag demonstrations. In Madras, T. Prakasam symbolized the defiant spirit of the occasion by baring his chest before the armed policemen. In Lucknow, Khaliquzzaman executed the brilliant idea of floating kites and balloons imprinted with the popular slogan ‘Go Back Simon’ over the reception organized in Kaiserbagh by the taluqdars for members of the Commission.

• In Lucknow, Jawaharlal and Govind Ballabh Pant were beaten up by the police. But the worst incident happened in Lahore where Lala Lajpat Rai, the hero of the Extremist days and the most revered leader of Punjab, was hit on the chest by lathis on 30 October and succumbed to the injuries on 17 November 1928. It was his death that Bhagat Singh and his comrades were seeking to avenge when they killed the white police official, Saunders, in December 1928.

• The Simon Commission report contained no mention of the Dominion Status and was in other ways also a regressive document. It disappointed national leaders including moderates.

Hence statement 3 is not correct.

In 1898, Annie Besant established a Central Hindu College near Town Hall, Varanasi, to impart religious, moral instructions and secular education. In 1910, she was supposed to set up a university and while this did not happen, in 1911, in collaboration with Madan Mohan Malviya and others, the Central Hindu College became the nucleus of Banares Hindu University. So, Pair 1 is correct.
The 'Bharat Mata Mandir, or Bharat Mata temple, is dedicated to Mother India and was constructed by Babu Shiv Prasad Gupta between 1918 and 1924. It is located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Mahatma Gandhi inaugurated the 'Bharat Mata Mandir temple on October 25, 1936. Hence, the temple is not located in Mathura. So, Pair 2 is not correct.
The Non - Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi was an expression of the growing resentment of all classes of the Indian people against oppressive British rule. Gandhi took up three specific points on which the movement was initiated:

• the Khilafat wrong,
• the Punjab wrong,
• Swaraj.

On February 04, 1922, The volunteers marched through the streets of Chauri Chaura village of Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces, shouting slogans of Gandhi and the Khilafat. As the crowd grew larger and fiercer, the cops retreated inside the police station. The protestors doused the building in kerosene and set it on fire. Twenty-three policemen were killed, and 228 people were brought to trial in the incident, out of which 19 were sentenced to death. This event marked the end of the non-cooperation movement. The Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli in February 1922 and resolved to stop all activity that led to breaking of the law and to get down to constructive work, instead, which was to include popularisation of khadi, national schools, and campaigning for temperance, for Hindu-Muslim unity and against untouchability. So, Pair 3 is correct.
The Hindustan Republic Association (HRA) was founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, and Sachin Sanyal to organize an armed revolution to overthrow the colonial  Government and establish in its place the Federal Republic of United States of India.
Under the leadership of Chandra Shekhar Azad, the name of the Hindustan Republic Association (HRA) was changed to the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), an Indian revolutionary organization.
Kakori Conspiracy, also called Kakori Conspiracy Case or Kakori Train Robbery, was a train robbery at Kakori, a village near Lucknow, in 1925. An armed robbery was organized by ten revolutionaries of the Hindustan Republic Association, an organization that aimed to achieve independence through revolution.
So, Pair 4 is correct.
 

• The Bombay Presidency Association was started by Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozshah Mehta and K.T. Telang in 1885. It was founded in response to Lytton's reactionary policies and the Ilbert Bill controversy. The association has always had cordial relations with the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha. The Bombay Presidency Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, the Madras Mahajana Sabha, and the Indian Association of Calcutta sent a joint deputation to England in September 1885 to present India's case to the British electorate. It championed Indian interests and also hosted the first meeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay at the end of 1885. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. 
• The Madras Mahajan Sabha was founded in 1884 by M. Viraraghavachari, B. Subramaniya Aiyer and P. Anandacharlu. The Mahajana Sabha held its first conference between 29 December 1884 and 2 January 1885. It demanded fundamental rights of Indians such as national freedom and other common social issues for the welfare of our fellowmen since 1884. In September 1885, the Sabha in collaboration with the Bombay Presidency Association and the Indian Association sent a delegation to England. On April 22, 1930, the Sabha organized the Salt Satyagraha movement in Madras' George Town, Esplanade, High Court, and Beach areas. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. 
• The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha was formed in 1836 by associates of Raja Rammohan Roy. Raja Ram Mohan Roy died in 1833. Prasanna Kr. Thakur, Kalinath Chowdhury, Dwarakanath Tagore, and others were the associates of Raja Rammohan Roy who founded the Bangabhasa Prakasika Sabha in 1836. The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha is regarded as the earliest political organisation in India. It sought to increase the association of Indians in the administration, the spread of education, pushing forward Indian demands to the British parliament. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

• The Pitt’s India Act, 1784 also called the East India Company Act, 1784 was passed by the British Parliament to correct the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773.
• Provisions:
  • This act resulted in dual control of British possessions in India by the British government and the Company with the final authority resting with the government.
  • A Board of Control consisting of six members was constituted to take care of civil and military affairs, and would include one of the Secretary of State (Board President), the chancellor of the exchequer and four privy councillors. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Governor-General’s council’s strength was reduced to three from four members. One of the three would be the Commander-in-Chief of the British Crown’s army in India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The orders of the board became binding on the Court of Directors, which was required to send all its letters and dispatches to the board for its perusal. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The Congress met at Karachi in March, 1931, to endorse the Gandhi- Irwin or the Delhi Pact. The Karachi Session became memorable for its Resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Even though the Congress had, from its inception, fought for the economic interests, civil liberties and political rights of the people. This was the first time that the Congress defined what Swaraj would mean for the masses.

Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded by Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhiji‘s Harijan campaign included a programme of internal reform by the Harijans: promotion of education, cleanliness and hygiene, giving up the eating of carrion and beef, giving up liquor and the abolition of untouchability among themselves. After the Poona Pact, Gandhiji decided to commence an ̳Untouchability Prevention Movement‘

● The Communist Party of India (CPI) was formed in Tashkent (Current capital of Uzbekistan) by M.N. Roy in 1920.

● Hindustan Republican Association/Army was founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee and Sachin Sanyal.

● Chittagong Armoury Raid was conducted in April 1930 under the banner of Indian Republican Army- Chittagong Branch led by Surya Sen and 64 other activists.

● The Revolutionary leaders Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were hanged by Colonial Rulers on March 23, 1931.

• Statement 1 is correct. The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons. By the end of September, the southwest monsoon becomes weak as the low-pressure trough of the Ganga plain starts moving southward in response to the southward movement of the sun. By the beginning of October, the low pressure covers northern parts of the Bay of Bengal and by early November, it moves over Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. By the middle of December, the centre of low pressure is completely removed from the Peninsula. The retreating Southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the ‘October heat’. In the second half of October, the mercury begins to fall rapidly, particularly in northern India. The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in north India but it is associated with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula. Here, October and November are the rainiest months of the year. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

• Statement 3 is correct because during the winter monsoon or retreating monsoon, the ITCZ moves southward, and so the reversal of winds from Northeast to South and southwest, takes place.

  So, option B is correct.

Features of national water grid:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Inter-Linking of Rivers programme aims to connect various surplus rivers with deficient rivers.

• The idea is to divert excess water from surplus regions to deficient regions to help improve irrigation,

• Increase water for drinking and industrial use, and mitigate drought and floods to an extent.

• It is a large-scale engineering proposal for the management of water resources in India by the interlinking of the Indian rivers through networks of reservoir and canals.

• Redistribution of water

• Statement 2 is correct. Hydropower generation Irrigation Facilities

Statement 3 is incorrect. Groundwater recharge is not one of the explicitly stated objectives of the National water grid project.

• An eclipse is partial or total obstruction of light from a celestial body as it passes through the shadow of another celestial body. On the earth we are familiar with two types of eclipses i.e., solar eclipse and lunar eclipse.

• Solar Eclipse: When the moon comes exactly between the earth and the sun it obstructs a part or whole of the sun and a partial or total solar eclipse occurs. A solar eclipse will occur only if the sun and the moon are on one side of the earth. Usually we have partial solar eclipse but total or full solar eclipse also occurs, although at varying intervals of time depending on the position of the sun, the earth and the moon.

• Lunar Eclipse: Lunar eclipse occurs when the earth comes between the sun and the moon i.e. lunar eclipse will occur only if the sun and the moon are located on the opposite side of the earth. It usually occurs at full moon. Depending upon the position of the moon during its revolution around the earth, we can have partial or total lunar eclipse. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• One might wonder that why we don’t have a lunar eclipse every month as the moon orbits Earth. It’s true that the moon goes around Earth every month, but it doesn’t always get in Earth’s shadow. The moon’s path around Earth is tilted compared to Earth’s orbit around the sun. The moon can be behind Earth but still get hit by light from the sun. But if the Moon's orbit around the Earth is not tilted compared to the Earth's orbit, Lunar eclipse would occur every month. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Asia: China and India have large iron ore deposits. The continent produces more than half of the world’s tin. China, Malaysia, and Indonesia are among the world’s leading tin producers. China also leads in the production of lead, antimony, and tungsten. Asia also has deposits of manganese, bauxite, nickel, zinc, and copper.

• Europe: Europe is the leading producer of iron-ore in the world. The countries with large deposits of iron ore are Russia, Ukraine, Sweden, and France. Minerals deposits of copper, lead, zinc, manganese, and nickel are found in eastern Europe and European Russia.

• North America: The mineral deposits in North America are located in three zones:

  • the Canadian region north of the Great Lakes,

  • the Appalachian region and

• the mountain ranges of the west.

• Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium, and copper are mined in the Canadian Shield Region, coal in the Appalachian region. Western Cordilleras have vast deposits of copper, lead, zinc, gold, and silver.

• South America: Brazil is the largest producer of high-grade iron ore in the world. Chile and Peru are leading producers of copper. Brazil and Bolivia are among the world’s largest producers of tin. South America also has large deposits of gold, silver, zinc, chromium, manganese, bauxite, mica, platinum, asbestos, and diamond. Mineral oil is found in Venezuela, Argentina, Chile, Peru, and Columbia.

• Africa: Africa is rich in mineral resources. It is the world’s largest producer of diamonds, gold, and platinum. South Africa, Zimbabwe, and Zaire produce a large portion of the world’s gold. The other minerals found in Africa are copper, iron ore, chromium, uranium, cobalt, and bauxite. Oil is found in Nigeria, Libya, and Angola. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Australia: Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world. It is a leading producer of gold, diamond, iron ore, tin, and nickel. It is also rich in copper, lead, zinc, and manganese. Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie areas of western Australia have the largest deposits of gold. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Antarctica: The geology of Antarctica is sufficiently well known to predict the existence of a variety of mineral deposits, some probably large. The significant size of deposits of coal in the Transantarctic Mountains and iron near the Prince Charles Mountains of East Antarctica is forecasted. Iron ore, gold, silver, and oil are also present in commercial quantities. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• Recent Context: The Driving Holistic Action for Urban Rivers (DHARA) Conference was organized recently by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) in Pune.
  • DHARA is the annual meeting of the members of the River Cities Alliance (RCA).
  • It provides a platform to co-learn and discuss solutions for managing local water resources.
  • One of the thrust areas of the Urban 20 (U20) Initiative is to promulgate urban water security and DHARA 2023 is in sync with U20 as healthy rivers are vital to enhancing overall water security.
• About River Cities Alliance (RCA)
  • It is a collaborative effort between the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and the National Institute for Urban Affairs (NIUA). Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • It is launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti along with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
  • River Cities Alliance started with 30 cities in 2021 and currently has 95 cities as members across India.
  • The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Alliance focuses on three broad themes Networking, Capacity Building, and Technical Support.
  • It is a dedicated platform for river cities in India to ideate, discuss and exchange information for sustainable management of Urban Rivers such as:
    • Minimizing their water footprint,
    • Reducing impacts on river and water bodies,
    • Capitalizing on natural, intangible, architectural heritage and associated services and
    • Develop self-sufficient, self-sustainable water resources through recycling, and reuse strategy.

• The mainland of India extends from Kashmir in the north to Kanyakumari in the south and Arunachal Pradesh in the east to Gujarat in the west.
• India’s territorial limit further extends towards the sea up to 12 nautical miles (about 21.9 km) from the coast.
• Guhar Moti is the westernmost point of India. It is a small village located in the Kutch district of Gujarat. The northernmost point of India is located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas, near Indira Col, Siachen Glacier. The easternmost point is Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh.
• Our southern boundary extends up to 6°45' N latitude in the Bay of Bengal. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is roughly about 30 degrees. Whereas the actual distance measured from north to south extremity is 3,214 km, and that from east to west is only 2,933 km. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the same everywhere.

• India, apart from many small islands, has two main archipelagos- Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal, and the Lakshadweep islands in Arabian sea. The Bay of Bengal island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These are situated roughly between 6°N-14°N and 92°E -94°E. The two principal groups of islets include the Ritchie’s archipelago and the Labyrinth island. The entire group of islands is divided into two broad categories – the Andaman in the north and the Nicobar in the South, separated by the Ten-degree channel. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains.The only volcano in India, Barren Island, is located in Andaman and Nicobar. It is an active volcano and had last erupted in 2017. It also has a mud volcano situated in Baratang island, these mud volcanoes have erupted sporadically, with recent eruptions in 2005 believed to have been associated with the 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake.

• Statement 2 is correct. Islands of Lakshadweep in the Arabian sea are located off the coast of Kerala. The main archipelago is separated from Minicoy by the 9-degree channel. Minicoy in turn is separated from Maldives by the 8-degree channel. Lakshadweep islands are made of coral deposits and there are many atolls. Statement 3 and 4 are correct.

• Statement 1 is correct. Bleaching refers to the paling of coral colour. It occurs when the density of zooxanthellae residing inside the reefs declines as the colour is given by the zooxanthellae.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. When the bleaching of corals occurs, they usually lose around 60-90 percent of their zooxanthellae, and each zooxanthellae may lose around 50-80 percent of its photosynthetic pigments.

• If the stress-causing bleaching is not too severe and if it decreases with time, the affected corals usually regain their symbiotic algae within several weeks or a few months.

• If the loss of zooxanthellae is prolonged i.e., if the stress continues and depleted zooxanthellae populations do not recover, the coral host eventually dies.

• Statement 3 is correct. Corals come under stress due to sudden change in temperature, water salinity or excess nutrients. Thus, very high temperature can cause coral bleaching.

• India and US both reiterated commitment to step efforts to implement the G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatment in a predictable, timely, orderly and coordinated manner. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• India and US Both countries shared the re-energized global efforts to increase climate ambition as well as respective domestic efforts to meet publicly expressed climate goals. Both sides affirmed their commitment to debt sustainability, transparency in bilateral lending, and coordinating closely on extending fair and equal debt treatment to countries facing debt distress.

• The two sides will continue to engage in discussions relating to the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) for sharing of financial account information. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Mediterranean Agriculture: The term ‘Mediterranean agriculture’ applies to the agriculture done in those regions which are having the Mediterranean type of climate. Mediterranean agriculture is unique because it is a mixture of diverse bio-cultural activities (both animal husbandry and crop farming) that has developed in five major world regions. This type of agriculture is determined by climatic conditions, which exert such an influence that both traditional and commercial agriculture flourish with a dominance of the agriculture of citrus fruits along with horticulture and floriculture.

  • Characteristics:

    • The natural setting that lends itself to Mediterranean agriculture is distinguished by erratic rainfall, mild temperatures, irregular topography, and nearness to large water bodies.

    • In this type, farming is intensive, highly specialized, and varied in the kinds of crops raised. Subsistence agriculture occurs side by side with commercial farming. Many crops such as wheat, barley, and vegetables are raised for domestic consumption, while others like citrus fruits, olives, and grapes are mainly for export. The Mediterranean lands are also known as ‘orchard lands of the world’.

    • The land use in these areas is dependent on such factors as the total annual amount of rainfall, length of summer drought, availability of melting snow, local soil conditions, and price fluctuations in local and world markets.

  • The main aspects of Mediterranean agriculture are:

    • Orchard fanning: It represents a highly specialized commercial agriculture here. The world supply of citrus fruits, olives, and figs comes almost exclusively from Mediterranean lands. Fruit culture has long been a traditional Mediterranean occupation because of the very special climatic features in Mediterranean areas. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Viticulture: Viticulture or grape cultivation is a specialty of the Mediterranean region. It represents a very intensive form of farming requiring not only good conditions of moisture, temperature, and soil but also much personal care if the grapes are to be of high quality. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Cereal and vegetable cultivation:

    • In acreage, cereal crops are the most important in Mediterranean agriculture. Wheat, especially hard winter wheat, is the principal food grain, and barley is grown in the poorer areas. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    • In most Mediterranean countries cereals often occupy about half the total cultivated acreage and provide enough grain for home consumption. The warm and sunny Mediterranean climate also allows a wide range of other food crops and green vegetables to be harvested.

  • Limited animal husbandry:

    • Mediterranean agriculture is also characterised by limited animal husbandry, which survives on grasslands available here. In areas like Lombardy plain, Ebro basin, San Joaquin valley of California, dairy farming is important. In mountain areas, the practice of ‘transhumance’, moving the cattle up to mountain pastures in the summer and returning them to the valleys in winter, is very common.