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JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 - JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) 2024 is part of JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 questions and answers have been prepared according to the JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) exam syllabus.The JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 MCQs are made for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 below.
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JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Shankaracharya?

1. Shankaracharya wrote the commentaries on the Upanishads and the Bhagavad Gita.

2. His philosophical views came to be known as Advaita Vedanta.

3. Shankaracharya expounded that ultimate reality is one, it being the Brahman.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 1
  • Shankaracharya wrote the commentaries on the Upanishads, Brahmasutras and the Bhagavad Gita.

  • Shankaracharya’s discourse or his philosophical views came to be known as Advaita Vedanta. Advaita literally means non-dualism or belief in one reality.

  • Shankaracharya expounded that ultimate reality is one, it being the Brahman.

  • According to the Vedanta philosophy, ‘Brahman is true, the world is false and self and Brahman is not different, Shankaracharya believed that the Brahman is existent,unchanging, the highest truth and the ultimate knowledge.

  • He also believed that there is no distinction between Brahman and self. The knowledge of Brahman is the essence of all things and the ultimate existence. Ramanuja was another well-known Advaita scholar.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

With reference to Sangam Age, consider the following statements:

1. First Sangam was held at Kapadapuram.

2. No literary work of this Second Sangam is available.

3. History of the Sangam age is reconstructed from literary works of the Third Sangam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 2
Recently, TamilNadu has sent soil samples for a project relating to the new Parliament building.

Statement 1 is not correct: According to Tamil legends, there were three Sangams held in ancient South India popularly called Muchchangam. The first Sangam is believed to be held at Madurai, attended by gods and legendary sages. No literary work of this Sangam is available.

Statement 2 is not correct: The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram, only Tolkappiyam survived this. Statement 3 is correct: The third Sangam was also held at Madurai. A few of these Tamil literary works have survived and are useful sources to reconstruct the history of the Sangam period

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JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

Which of the following sites are identified as a Neolithic Sites?

  1. Daojali Hading

  2. Paiyampalli

  3. Kurnool caves

  4. Inamgaon

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 3
Chalcolithic Site - Inamgaon

List of Neolithic Sites;

  • Koldihwa

  • Mahagara

  • Mehrgarh

  • Paiyampalli

  • Hallui

  • Burzahom

  • Chirand

  • Daojali Hading

Megalithic Sites;

  • Adichamallur

  • Brahmagiri

Paleolithic Sites;

  • Kurnool caves

  • Hunsgi

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

Which of the following sites are identified as a Neolithic Sites?

  1. Daojali Hading

  2. Paiyampalli

  3. Kurnool caves

  4. Inamgaon

Select the correct answer using the code given Below.

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 4
Chalcolithic Site - Inamgaon

List of Neolithic Sites;

  1. Koldihwa

  2. Mahagara

  3. Mehrgarh

  4. Paiyampalli

  5. Hallui

  6. Burzahom

  7. Chirand

  8. Daojali Hading

Megalithic Sites

  1. Adichamallur

  2. Brahmagiri

Paleolithic Sites

  1. Kurnool caves

  2. Hunsgi

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the duty of the Muqtis
1. The holders of iqta were called as Muqti.
2. The duty of the muqtis was to lead military campaigns.
3. The duty of the muqtis was to maintain law and order in their iqtas.
4. Muqtis collected the revenues of their assignments as salary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

All the above statements are correct.

  • Khalji and Tughluq monarchs appointed military commanders as governors of territories of varying sizes.
  • These lands were called iqta and their holder was called iqtadar or muqti.
  • The duty of the muqtis was to lead military campaigns and maintain law and order in their iqtas.
  • In exchange for their military services, the muqtis collected the revenues of their assignments as salary.
  • They also paid their soldiers from these revenues.
  • Control over muqtis was most effective if their office was not inheritable and if they were assigned iqtas for a short period of time before being shifted.
  • These harsh conditions of service were rigorously imposed during the reigns of Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad Tughluq.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the sculptures of medieval India:
1. One of the common features of sculptures of both Pallava and Chola dynasties was an eternal struggle between the forces of good and evil, in which the good ultimately triumphed.
2. Gajsurasamaharamurti, a Chola masterpiece shows the great goddess Durga in a fierce battle demon.
3. Pallava sculptures show females in a submissive manner with thinner features as compared to their male counterparts. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 6
  • Statement 1 is correct: Aits from Pallava and Chola dynasties represent the eternal struggle between the forces of good and evil, in which the good ultimately triumphs.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: The mighty Cholas who succeeded the Pallavas and ruled over South India from the 9th to 13th centuries A.D. created the great temples at Thanjavur, Gangai Kondo Cholapuram, Darasurama, which are a veritable treasure house of their art. A good example of Chola craftsmanship
  • in the 11th century is the relief carving of Siva as Gajsurasamaharamurti. The irate god is engaged in a vigorous dance of fierce ecstasy after having killed the elephant demon, who has given so much trouble to the rishis and his devotees. The hide of the demon is spread aloft by the god, using it as a sort of cover. Devi stands at the lower right corner as the only awe-struck spectator of the divine act of retribution.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Pallava style concerns itself with a tall and slender physiognomical form. The thin and elongated limbs emphasize the tallness of the figure. The female figures are much lighter in appearance, with their slender waists, narrow chests, and shoulders, smaller breasts, sparse ornaments and garments, and generally submissive attitudes. The figure sculpture of the Pallavas is natural in pose and modelling. The front of the torso is almost flat, and the ornamentations are simple in high relief. Yet it is infused with a certain amount of vigor and fluid grace. A great masterpiece is the carving from Mahabalipuram showing the great goddess Durga engaged in a fierce battle with the buffalo-headed demon aided by their respective armies. Riding on her lion she is rushing at the powerful demon with great courage. He is moving away, yet watching for a moment to attack.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

With reference to Vijayanagara Empire,which one of the following is the correctchronological order of the ruling dynasties?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 7
  • The Vijayanagara Empire was based in the Deccan Plateau region of South India. It was established in 1336 by the brothers Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty. The Sangama dynasty ruled between 1336 – 1485 CE. The Sangama dynasty was founded by Harihara I and Bukka. Their father had been taken prisoner in 1327 by Muhammad bin Tughluq. They founded Vijayanagara in 1336.The Saluva dynasty ruled between 1485 – 1505 CE. The Saluva dynasty was created by the Saluvas, who by historical tradition were natives of the Kalyani region of northern Karnataka in modern India. The Tuluva dynasty ruled between 1491 – 1570 CE. Krishna Dev Raya was an important ruler of this dynasty. Tuluva is the name of the third ruling dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire. The dynasty traces its patrilineal ancestry to Tulu-speaking Nagavamshi Kshatriyas.The Aravidu dynasty ruled between 1542 – 1646 CE. Its founder was Tirumala Deva Raya, whose brother Rama Raya had been the masterful regent of the last ruler of the previous dynasty.
    • At Talikota in 1565, the ruler Rama Raya was killed. Though the Vijaynagar kingdom continued to exist for almost a hundred more years. Its size decreased and the Rayas no longer remained important in the politics of South India.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

With reference to Medieval texts, which of the following is/are not an autobiography ?
1. Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri
2. Ain-e Akbari
3. Qanun-i-Humayuni
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 8
  • Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri, (or) Jahangir-nama, the memoirs of Jahangir, tells about his great interest in arts and his efforts to achieve scientific correctness in rendering flora and fauna that interested the Emperor the most. It was written in the Persian language. Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri is an Autobiography of Jahangir. So, Option (1) is not correct.
  • The Ain-i-Akbari, or the "Administration of Akbar," is a 16th-century detailed document recording the administration of the Mughal Empire under Emperor Akbar, written by his court historian, Abul Fazl, in the Persian language. The main purpose of Ain-i-Akbari was to record information about the people and society during the Mughal regime and to give detailed accounts of the organisation of the court, administration and army. Abul Fazl wrote a three-volume history of Akbar’s reign, titled Akbar Nama.
    • The first volume dealt with Akbar’s ancestors,
    • The second volume recorded the events of Akbar’s reign and
    • The third volume is the Ain-i Akbari. It deals with Akbar’s administration, household, army, revenues and the geography of his empire. It also provides rich details about the traditions and culture of the people living in India. The most interesting aspect of the Ain-i Akbari is its rich statistical details about things as diverse as crops, yields, prices, wages and revenues. In the Ain-i Akbari, the Mughal Empire is presented as having a diverse population consisting of Hindus, Jains, Buddhists and Muslims and a composite culture. So, Option (2) is correct.
  • Qanun –i-Humayuni was composed in 1534 CE by Khvandamir, one of the officials under Humayun's patronage. It is about the Work on the Rules and Ordinances Established by the Emperor Humayun and on Some Buildings Erected by His Order. It is not an Autobiography. So, Option (3) is correct.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

Consider the following pairs:

1. Dadu Dayal: Madhya Pradesh

2. Ravi Das: Punjab

3. Bhagat Pipa: Bihar

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 9
Bhagat Pipa was a Rajput prince born in Gagron, Jhalawar. He was a prince who renounced his throne in the search of spiritual solace and said that one should search within for God. He said that one's inner self has a relation with God. Bhagat Pipa shared same views as Guru Nanak. Bhagat Pipa’s hymns are included in the Guru Granth Sahib. He settled in near Kutch, Gujarat. Ravi Das was a mystic saint poet during the 15th and 16th century. He came from a shudra family which worked with dead animals’ skins to produce leather products and very much known in India as untouchables. He was one of the disciples of bhakti saint poet Ramananda. His devotional songs are included in Guru Granth Sahib. Panch Vani text of Dadupanthi tradition also includes numerous poems of Ravidas. He was born and died in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

Which of the following archaeological sites belong to the Palaeolithic age?

1. Kurnool caves

2. Bhimbetka caves

3. Deojali hading

4. Chirand

5. Hunsgi

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 10
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Archaeologists call the earliest period Palaeolithic. It comes from two Greek words, ‘paleo’ meaning old, and ‘lithos’, meaning stone. This period extends from 2 million years ago to about 12,000 years ago. This time period is divided into the lower, middle and the upper Palaeolithic.

This period covers 99% of human history. Some of the most important Palaeolithic sites are Bhimbetka, Hunsgi, Kurnool caves. The period between 12,000 years ago until about 10,000 years ago, is called a Mesolithic period. Stone tools found during this age are called microliths. The next age, from about 10,000 years ago, is called a Neolithic age. Daojali heading and Chirand are Neolithic sites. Some other Neolithic sites are Burzahom (Kashmir), Mehrgarh, Koldhihwa, Mahagara, Hallur, Paiyampalli.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

Which of the following are works of Rabindranath Tagore?

  1. Bhanusimha

  2. Manasi

  3. Geetanjali

  4. Kumarasambhava

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 11
Birth anniversary of India’s first Nobel Award winner Rabindranath Tagore was observed recently.

Rabindranath Tagore was born on 7 May 1861 to Debendranath Tagore and Sarada Devi in Kolkata (Calcutta).

  • He is popularly known as ‘Gurudev’.

  • He was primarily known as a writer, poet, playwright, philosopher and aesthetician, music composer, choreographer, and painter.

  • He was influenced by the classical poetry of Kalidasa and started writing his own classical poems.

  • He released his first collection of poems under the pen name ‘Bhanusimha’ at 16 years of age.

  • He published several books of poetry in the 1880s and completed Manasi (1890), a collection that marks the maturing of his genius.

  • He wrote the National Anthems of India and Bangladesh.

  • He wrote the song Banglar Mati Banglar Jol (Soil of Bengal, Water of Bengal) to unite the Bengali population after the Bengal partition in 1905.

  • He also wrote the famed ‘Amar Sonar Bangla' which helped ignite a feeling of nationalism amongst people.

  • In 1913, he became the first Indian to receive a Nobel Prize in Literature for his novel ‘Geetanjali.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

Which of the following sets of pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 12
Option (a) is the correct answer. Many newspapers emerged during the late 19th century under distinguished and fearless journalists. These included The Hindu and Swadesamitran under G. Subramaniya Aiyar, The Bengalee under Surendranath Banerjea, Voice of India under Dadabhai Naoroji, Amrita Bazar Patrika under Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh, Indian Mirror under N.N. Sen, Kesari (in Marathi) and Maharatta (in English) under Balgangadhar Tilak, Sudharak under Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Hindustan and Advocate under G.P. Verma. Other main newspapers included Tribune and Akbar-i-am in Punjab, Gujarati, Indu Prakash, Dhyan Prakash and Kal in Bombay.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Poligars revolt?

  1. Poligars or Palayakkars were the class of viceroys forming the second tier in the administrative system created by the Vijayanagar empire.

  2. While the Northern Poligars fell under the kingdom of Mysore, those in southern Tamil Nadu had to deal with the revenue demands of the British east India company.

  3. The poligars of North Arcot rose in rebellion against the company as they were deprived of their right to collect the ‘kawal’ fees.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 13
Option b is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The roots of the poligars or Palayakkars date back to 14th century to the beginning of Vijayanagar empire in south India who established a unique three tier administrative system thereby creating an administrative class called the ‘ Palayakkars’.

  • This three-tier set up consisted of the emperor at Vijayanagar at the top of pyramid; the Nayakas or viceroys forming the second tier and the Palayakkars or polygars comprising the grassroot leaders in the hierarchy. This system allowed for an efficient revenue administration as well as created a mechanism to help raise an army, besides keeping generals, warriors, courtiers etc.

  • Statement 2 and 3 are correct: By the 18th century While the Northern Polygars fell under the kingdom of Mysore, those in southern Tamil Nadu had to deal with the revenue demands of the British East India company. Between 1803 and 1805, the poligars of North Arcot rose in rebellion against the company as they were deprived of their right to collect the kawal fees(Kawal or ‘watch’ was an ancient institution of Tamil Nadu. It was a hereditary village police office with specified rights and responsibilities.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

Consider the following statements with respect to the Swaraj Party:

  1. It was formed after the Gaya session of the Indian National Congress.

  2. It was to function as a group within the Congress.

  3. The Party won more than fifty percent of the elected seats in the Central Legislative Assembly in the 1923 elections.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 14
  • After the withdrawal of the Non-cooperation movement, disintegration set in Congress. A group of leaders led by Chittaranjan Das (C.R. Das) and Motilal Nehru advocated the end of the boycott of Legislative Councils. Sardar Patel, Dr. Ansari, Rajendra Prasad, and others are known as 'no changers opposed Council entry.

  • In 1922, in the Gaya session of the Congress, C R Das (who was presiding over the session) moved a proposal to enter the legislatures but it was defeated. Das and other leaders broke away from Congress and formed the Swaraj Party on 1 January 1923. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Congress Khilafat Swaraj Party with Das as president and Motilal Nehru as one of the secretaries. The new party was to function as a group within the Congress. It accepted the Congress programme except in one respect - it would take part in Council elections. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.

  • The Swarajists and the no-changers engaged in fierce political controversy. On Gandhiji's advice, the two groups agreed to remain in the Congress though they would work in separate ways.

  • Swarajists won 42 seats out of the 101 elected seats in the Central Legislative Assembly. With the cooperation of other Indian groups, they repeatedly outvoted the Government in the Central Assembly. In March 1925, they succeeded in electing Vithalbhai J. Patel, a leading nationalist leader, as the speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the Pirpur Committee of 1938?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 15
  • The All India Muslim League, annoyed with the Congress for not sharing power with them,  established the Pirpur Committee in 1938 to prepare a detailed report on the atrocities supposedly committed by the Congress ministries.
  • In the report, the committee charged the Congress with interference in the religious rites, suppression of Urdu in favor of Hindi, denial of proper representation, and oppression of Muslims in the economic sphere. So, Option (a) is correct.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

He laid the foundation of a new monastic order at Baranagar. He believed that the real cause of India's downfall  as neglect of masses and poverty. He emphasised on two kinds of knowledge: Secular knowledge to improve their economic condition and Spiritual knowledge to infuse in them faith in themselves. Who is he?
 

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

Swami Viveknanda – 

  • Born in Kolkata in 1863, he was known as Narendra Nath Datta in his pre-monastic life. He was a disciple of Sri Ramakrishna Parmahansa and a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India. He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains as the one that he gave in Chicago in 1893 (Parliament of the World Religions). 
  • He established a new monastic order in Baranagar in Kolkata and went to explore India. During his travels, he was deeply moved by appalling poverty and backwardness of the masses. He was the first religious leader who highlighted that real cause of India’s downfall was the neglect of masses and highlighted the immediate need to provide food and other necessities. He emphasised on improved methods of agriculture, village industries etc. 
  • According to him, the crux of problem of poverty in India was because of centuries of oppression, downtrodden masses had lost faith in their capacity to improve their lot. Therefore, it was necessary to infuse faith in their own capacities. 
  • Vivekanand believed that principle of Atman i.e. doctrine of potential divinity of soul, taught in Vedanta could ameliorate the condition of the poor people. Thus, the masses needed two kinds of knowledge: secular knowledge to improve their economic condition and spiritual knowledge to infuse in them faith in themselves. He formed the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 “to set in motion a machinery which will bring noblest ideas to the doorstep of even the poorest and the meanest.” 
  • In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode. He also wrote books like Karma yoga, Jnana yoga, Raja Yoga etc.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Subsidiary Alliance System?
1. It was introduced by the British for the first time in India.
2. The Subsidiary Treaty Negotiation provided for non-interference by the East India Company in the internal
affairs of the Subsidiary State.
3. Europeans could be employed by a Subsidiary State only after consultation with the Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 17
  • Wellesley did not invent the Subsidiary System. The System existed long before him and was of an evolutionary growth. Dupleix (French) was perhaps the first who had lent European troops to the Indian princes at the expense of the latter. The English also adopted this System. Ever since the governorship of Clive, the System had been applied with more or less insight by almost every Governor and Governor-General of India.
  • Wellesley's special contribution was that he greatly developed and elaborated the System and applied it in the case of almost every Indian state A typical Subsidiary Treaty was negotiated on the following terms and conditions: The Indian state was to surrender its external relations to the care of the Company and was to make no wars. It was to conduct negotiations with other states through the Company.
  • A bigger state was to maintain an army within its territories commanded by the British officers for the 'preservation of public peace' and the ruler was to cede territory in full sovereignty for the upkeep of that force; a smaller state was required to pay tribute in cash to the Company. The state was to accept a British Resident at its head-quarters. The state was not to employ Europeans in its service without the consultation of the Company. The Company was not to interfere in the internal affairs of the state. The Company was to protect the Indian state against foreign enemies of 'every sort or kind'.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Congress Socialist Party (CSP)?
1. The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was founded under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Minoo Masani.
2. The CSP, as a whole, accepted a basic identification of socialism with Marxism.
3. Acharya Narendra Dev wrote the book “Why Socialism?”
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 18
  • The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was founded under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Minoo Masani at Bombay in October, 1934.
  • Despite the ideological diversity among the leaders, the CSP, as a whole, accepted a basic identification of socialism with Marxism.
  • Jayaprakash Narayan wrote the book “Why Socialism?”
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:
1. The All India Students Federation (AISF) is the first student organization of India.
2. The Progressive Writers‟ Association was established in London by the Indian writers and intellectuals.
3. The first session of the All India States Peoples' Conference was held in Bombay under the leadership of Nehru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 19
  • The All India Students Federation (AISF) is the first student organization of India. It was founded by the students in 1936.
  • The Progressive Writers‘ Association was established in London in 1935 by the Indian writers and intellectuals, with the encouragement and support of some British literary figures. It was in the central London that a group of writers, including Mulk Raj Anand, Sajjad Zaheer and Jyotirmaya Ghosh drafted a manifesto which stated their aims and objectives.
  • The All India States Peoples' Conference (AISPC) was a conglomeration of the political movements in the princely states of the British Indian Empire. In Bombay, in December 1927, the first session of the organization was held. (Nehru became its President in 1939).
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island, which was seen in the news recently, is located in which state/UT?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 20
The Andaman and Nicobar Command handed over the Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island to the Andaman and Nicobar Administration for development of tourism and infrastructure growth. The island, erstwhile known as Ross Island, is situated three kilometres away from Port Blair. It also houses India’s first solar lighthouse. NITI Ayog and Island Development Agency has taken several initiatives to develop these Islands under Act East Policy.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

1. In most of the tribal areas of the north-east India, minerals are owned by individuals or communities

2. Mining of coal in Meghalaya is done by digging long narrow tunnels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 21
Recently workers were trapped in a Rat hole mine in Meghalaya for 18 days.
  • Statement 1 is correct. Most of the minerals in India are nationalised and their extraction is possible only after obtaining due permission from the government. But in most of the tribal areas of the north-east India, minerals are owned by individuals or communities.

  • Statement 2 is correct. In Meghalaya, there are large deposits of coal, iron ore, limestone and dolomite etc. Coal mining in Jowai and Cherapunjee is done by family members in the form of a long narrow tunnel, known as ‘Rat hole’ mining. It is a primitive and hazardous method of mining for coal, with tunnels that are only 3-4 feet in diameter (hence, rat-hole), leading to pits ranging from 5-100 sq. mt deep. There are two types of rat-holes: when dug into the ground these are vertical shafts leading to the mines where horizontal tunnels are dug; the second type is where horizontal holes are dug directly in the hillsides to reach coal seams (bed of coal). The coal is taken out manually, loaded into a bucket or a wheelbarrow and dumped on a nearby un-mined area. From here, it is carried to larger coal dumps near highways for trade and transportation The National Green Tribunal has declared such activities illegal and recommended that these should be stopped forthwith. The National Green Tribunal banned rat-hole mining in Meghalaya in 2014 on a petition that said acidic discharge from the mines was polluting the Kopili river. But the practice continues unabated.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Himalayan province is generally deficient in underground water resource.

  2. The sedimentary province of Kerala, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu are rich in underground water resource.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 22
Option (c) is the correct answer.

India is rich in underground water resources. Its spatial distribution is however uneven. The underground water resource is a function of geological structure, topography, slope, precipitation, runoff, soils and hydrological conditions of a region. India is divided into 8 underground water provinces:

  • The Pre-Cambrian Crystalline Province

  • The Pre-Cambrian Sedimentary Rocks Province

  • The Gondwana Sedimentary Province

  • The Deccan Trap Province

  • The Cenozoic Sedimentary Province

  • The Ganga Brahmaputra Alluvial Province

  • The Himalayan Province

  • The Cenozoic Fault Basin

Statement 1 is correct. The Himalayan province is structurally complex. In general, it is deficient in underground water except the intermontane valleys like the Dun, Kashmir, Kangra, Kullu and Manali valleys. This region has numerous springs.

Statement 2 is correct. The Cenozoic Sedimentary Province includes the coastal areas of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Gujarat.The sandstones of the tertiary period in these regions are rich in underground water resources.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Consider the following:

  1. Drastic Change in water level in wells

  2. Large scale fluctuation of oil flow from oil wells

  3. Discharging of Radon gas

The above phenomena are associated with which of the following natural hazards?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 23
  • An earthquake is the movement or trembling of the ground produced by the sudden displacement of rock in the Earth's crust. Earthquakes result from crustal strain, volcanism, landslides, and the collapse of caverns. Stress accumulates in response to tectonic forces until it exceeds the strength of the rock. The rock then breaks along a pre-existing or new fracture called a fault. The rupture extends outward in all directions along the fault plane from its point of origin (focus).

  • Earthquake prediction is usually defined as the specification of the time, location, and magnitude of a future earthquake within stated limits.

  • Some evidence of upcoming Earthquake are the following:

    • A drastic decrease in water level in wells

    • Large scale of fluctuation of oil flow from oil wells

    • Foreshocks or minor shocks before major earthquake

    • Discharge of Radon gas

    • Uplifting of earth surface

    • Change in seismic wave velocity

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Manganese’ in India:

  1. It is an important raw material for manufacturing Ferroalloys.

  2. Manganese deposits are mainly associated with Dharwar geological rock system.

  3. Odisha produces the most manganese in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 24
  • Manganese is not found as a free element in nature. It is often found in combination with iron. It is an important raw material for smelting iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferroalloys. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • India possesses the second-largest reserves in the world after Zimbabwe and is the fifth-largest producer.

  • Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with Dharwar system. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Major mines in Odisha are located in the central part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi, and Bolangir.

  • Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg, a and Tumakuru.

  • Maharashtra is also an important producer of manganese, which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara, and Ratnagiri districts.

  • Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

Consider the following mountain ranges in India:

1. Satpura Range

2. Shiwalik Range

3. Vindhya Range

What is the order of the above ranges from North to South direction?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 25
  • Siwalik Range, also called Siwalik Hills or Outer Himalayas, Siwalik also spelled Shiwalik, is the sub- Himalayan range of the northern Indian subcontinent. It extends west-northwestward for more than 1,000 miles (1,600 km) from the Tista River in Sikkim state, northeastern India, through Nepal, across northwestern India, and into northern Pakistan. Though only 10 miles (16 km) wide in places, the range has an average elevation of 3,000 to 4,000 feet (900 to 1,200 meters). It rises abruptly from the plain of the Indus and Ganges (Ganga) rivers (south) and parallels the main range of the Himalayas (north), from which it is separated by valleys. The Siwaliks are sometimes considered to include the southern foothills of the Assam Himalayas, which extend eastward for 400 miles (640 km) across southern Bhutan to the bend of the Brahmaputra River. The range proper, to which the name Siwalik (from Sanskrit, meaning “Belonging to [the God] Shiva”) was formerly restricted, is the 200 miles (320 km) of foothills in India extending from the Ganges River at Haridwar, Uttarakhand state, northwestward to the Beas River.
  • Vindhya Range is a broken range of hills forming the southern escarpment of the central upland of India. From Gujarat state on the west, it extends about 675 miles (1,086 km) across Madhya Pradesh state to abut on the Ganges (Ganga) River valley near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. The mountains form the southern edge of the Malwa Plateau and then divide into two branches: the Kaimur Range, running north of the Son River into western Bihar state, and the southern branch, running between the upper reaches of the Son and Narmada rivers to meet the Satpura Range in the Maikala Range (or Amarkantak Plateau).
  • The Satpura Range is formed by a series of scarped plateaus on the south, generally at an elevation varying between 600-900 m above the mean sea level. This forms the northernmost boundary of the Deccan plateau. It is a classic example of the relict mountains which are highly denuded and form discontinuous ranges. • Hence option (a) is the correct answer. 
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

Which of the following is/are the characteristics of Tropical Evergreen forests ?

1. Found in areas in which Annual rainfall ranges between 200–250 cm

2. Presence of a thick canopy

3. Trees of these forests are restricted to 25 to 60 m in height

Choose the correct Answer :

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

Trees in these forests remain green all year round as the region's climate is warm and wet throughout the year. The leaves of these trees do not fall in any particular season. Hence, they are evergreen. These forests are found in areas with more than 200 cm of rainfall and a short dry season. The trees reach a height of up to 60 meters or even more. The dominant plants in these forests are tall, 25-30 meters high, slender trunks that branch only near the tops, forming a dense canopy of leathery evergreen leaves. It has a dense and mixed vegetation of all kinds, including trees, shrubs, climbers, creepers, epiphytes and ferns, giving it a multilayered structure. Therefore, Tropical Evergreen forests Trees are not restricted to 25 to 60 m in height. So, Option (b) is correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

As one travels by road from Jammu and Kashmir to Odisha, taking the shortest possible route, which of these geographical features are they most likely to encounter, including those in the origin and destination state ?

1. Karewas

2. Kayals

3. Patland plateaus

4. Mangroves

5. Badlands/Ravines

6. Estuaries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 27
  • Karewas: During the formation of Pir Panjal range large lakes were formed as rivers were impounded. These lakes continued to receive sediments from rivers. With time water drained away and thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines were left behind. This resulted in formation of lacustrine plains known as Karewas. These are useful for cultivation of Zafran and are of great economic significance to the Kashmir Valley. Option 1 is correct.

  • Kayals: These are backwaters or lagoons formed at the Malabar coast. They are used for fishing, inland navigation, boat racing events, and tourism. Option 2 is incorrect. Patland plateaus: These are lava capped plateaus which have been formed by continuous denudation of high plateaus. They have been reduced from high and extensive plateaus to isolated hills with flat tops with steep slopes. The Peninsular India is made up of series of such plateaus- Hazaribagh plateau, Palamu plateau, Ranchi plateau etc. Option 3 is correct.

  • Mangroves: These are tropical coastal vegetation that grow along the coast in salt marshes, tidal creeks, mud flats and estuaries. These are halophytes, or salt tolerant and have adapted to harsh coastal conditions through salt filtration system, low oxygen requirement and viviparous seeds. In India they are found in Andaman and Nicobar, Suderbans of West Bengal, Mahanadi, Godavari, and Krishna deltas. Option 4 is correct.

  • Badlands/Ravines: These are a type of fluvial erosion. They are formed as a result of constant vertical erosion by streams and rivers flowing over semi-arid and arid regions. The area through which Chambal flows does not receive enough rainfall and has created ravines 60–80m in depth. Option 5 is correct.

  • Estuaries: These are the transition zones between river and marine environment. They have brackish water. They are different from deltas, as deltas are a depositional landmass, while estuaries are water bodies. In India they are usually formed on the Western coast. Option 6 is incorrect.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

Arrange the following hills from North to South:

  1. Mishmi hills

  2. Patkai Bum

  3. Lushai Hills

  4. Naga Hills

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 28
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Eastern Hills or The Purvanchal are the southward extension of Himalayas running along the north-eastern edge of India.

  • At the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas take a sudden southward bend and form a series of comparatively low hills which are collectively called as the Purvanchal.

  • Purvanchal hills are convex to the west.

  • They run along the India-Myanmar Border extending from Arunachal Pradesh in the north to Mizoram in the south.

  • Patkai Bum hills are made up of strong sandstone; elevation varying from 2,000 m to 3,000 m; merges into Naga Hills where Saramati (3,826 m) is the highest peak.

  • Patkai Bum and Naga Hills form the watershed between India and Myanmar.

  • South of Naga Hills are the Manipur hills which are generally less than 2,500 metres in elevation.

  • The Barail range separates Naga Hills from Manipur Hills.

  • Further south the Barail Range swings to west into Jaintia, Khasi and Garo hills which are an eastward continuation of the Indian peninsular block. They are separated from the main block by Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.

  • South of the Manipur Hills are the Mizo Hills (previously known as the Lushai hills) which have an elevation of less than 1,500 metres. The highest point is the Blue Mountain (2,157 m) in the south.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

With respect to Madden Julian Oscillation, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an eastward-moving fluctuation of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator.

  2. It brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent when it is over the Indian Ocean during Monsoon season.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

Madden Julian Oscillation (MJO):

  • The Madden Julian Oscillation (MJO) is one of the most important atmosphere-ocean coupled phenomena in the tropics, which has profound influence on the Indian Summer Monsoon.

  • The MJO can be defined as an eastward moving 'pulse' of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The MJO is the leading mode of tropical intra-seasonal climate variability and is characterized by organization on a global spatial scale with a period typically ranging between 30-60 days.

  • When Madden Julian Oscillation is over Indian Ocean during Monsoon season, it brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • On the other hand, when it witnesses a longer cycle and stays over the Pacific Ocean, MJO brings bad news for the Indian Monsoon. It is linked with enhanced and suppressed rainfall activity in the tropics and is very important for the Indian monsoonal rainfall.

It has the following characteristics:

  • MJO is a massive weather event consisting of deep convection coupled with atmospheric circulation, moving slowly eastward over the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

  • MJO is an equatorial traveling pattern of anomalous rainfall that is planetary in scale.

  • Each cycle lasts approximately 30–60 days. Also known as the 30-60 day oscillation, 30-60 day wave, or intra-seasonal oscillation (ISO).

  • The MJO involves variations in wind, sea surface temperature (SST), cloudiness, and rainfall. Based on the place of convective activity the period of MJO is divided into 1-8 phases with each phase roughly last for 7 to 8 days.

  • Since the MJO is the most important mode of tropical intra-seasonal variability with potentially important influences on monsoon activity in the Asian regions on extended range time scale (beyond 7 days to one month), the capability of statistical or numerical models in capturing MJO signal is very crucial in capturing the active/break cycle of monsoon.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

  1. Tertiary activities are directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials and the production of tangible goods.

  2. The highest level of decision-makers or policymakers perform quaternary activities.

  3. Workers of Quinary activities are often referred to as ‘gold collar’ professions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 30
  • Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. The production involves the ‘provision’ of services that are ‘consumed’. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries. The exchange involves trade, transport, and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance.

  • Tertiary activities, therefore, involve the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible goods. They are not directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • The main difference between secondary activities and tertiary activities is that the expertise provided by services relies more heavily on specialized skills, experience, and knowledge of the workers rather than on the production techniques, machinery, and factory processes.

  • Quaternary activities involve some of the following: the collection, production, and dissemination of information or even the production of information. Quaternary activities center around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialized knowledge and technical skills.

  • Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation, and the use and evaluation of new technologies. The highest level of decision-makers or policymakers performs quinary activities. Often referred to as ‘gold collar’ professions, they represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector representing special and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government officials, research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

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