JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) MCQ

Greeks who came through the northwest about 2500 years ago and were familiar with the Indus, called it the Hindos or the Indos, and the land to the east of the river was called India. The name Bharata was used for a group of people who lived in the northwest, and who are mentioned in the Rigveda.

Statement 2 is incorrect. It has four beautifully decorated toranas depicting various events from the life of the Buddha and the Jatakas. About Sanchi Stupa: Narratives get more elaborated, however, the depiction of the dream episode remains very simple showing the reclining image of the queen and the elephant at the top. Carving techniques appear more advanced than Bharhut.

Symbols continue to be used representing the Buddha and the Manushi Buddhas or the past Buddhas (according to the textual tradition, there are twenty-four Buddhas but only the first one, Dipankar, and the last six are pictorially represented).

Statement 1 is correct. In the northern part of the country, the village headman was known as the grama bhojaka. The grama bhojaka was often the largest landowner. Generally, he had slaves and hired workers to cultivate the land. The post was hereditary as usually, men from the same family held the position for generations.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The use of iron began in the subcontinent around 3000 years ago. It was after the Indus Valley Civilization. In the prehistory of the Indian subcontinent, an "Iron Age" is recognized as succeeding the Late Harappan culture.

• Delhi first became the capital of a kingdom under the Tomara Rajputs, who were defeated in the middle of the twelfth century by the Chauhans (also referred to as Chahamanas) of Ajmer.
• It was under the Tomaras and Chauhans that Delhi became an important commercial centre.
• Coins minted here, called dehliwal, had a wide circulation.
• The transformation of Delhi into a capital that controlled vast areas of the subcontinent started with the foundation of the Delhi Sultanate in the beginning of the thirteenth century.

Hence, option (b) is correct.
 

• Peasants formed the overwhelming majority of the population in medieval India. It was, however, not a homogenous group. One end of the spectrum was represented by rich peasants (khuts & muqaddams during Delhi Sultanate and khudkasht during the Mughal period), having large holdings and cultivated their lands with the help of hired labour.
• Statement 1 is correct: Khudkashts were the rich/prosperous peasants who owned tracts of land and tools of agriculture.
• Statement 2 is not correct: They paid land revenue at customary rates. Some of them had many ploughs and bullocks which they let out to their poorer brethren, the tenants or muzarian who generally paid land revenue at a higher rate. These two groups were the largest section among the cultivators in the village.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The khudkasht who claimed to be the original settlers of the village often belonged to a single dominant caste or castes. These castes not only dominated the village society, they exploited the other or weaker sections. In turn, they were often exploited by the zamindars.
  • Muzarian belonged to the same village but did not have either land or implements and hence were dependent on the Khud-kasht for their supply.
     

• Sri Vallabhacharya (c. 1479 – 1531 CE) was a devotional philosopher who founded the Pushtimarg sect in India, following the philosophy of Shuddha Advaita (Pure Non-dualism). Shuddadvaita is the purely non-dual philosophy propounded by him. It was a Hindu Vaishnava tradition that focused on the worship of Krishna. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Dadu Dayal (c. 1544-1603 CE) was a significant representative of the Nirguna Saint tradition in North India (Gujarat & Rajasthan). Nirgun is a form of aniconic worship of the formless as opposed to the saguna tradition, which is the worship of religious icons and deities with form. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Dadu means brother, and Dayal means the compassionate one; later, his followers came to be known as the Dadupanthis, who set up ashrams known as Thambas.
• Surdas (c. 1483-1563 CE) was a disciple of the Vallabhacharya. He was a blind poet whose songs were centered around Krishna. His Sursagar recounts the exploits of Krishna during his childhood and youth with gentle affection and delightfulness. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Statement 1 is not correct: 'Latina' or the rekha-prasada type buildings have simple shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top. Another major type of architectural form in the nagara order is the phamsana. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than latina ones. Their roofs are composed of several slabs that gently rise to a single point over the centre of the building, unlike the latina ones which look like sharply rising tall towers.
• Statement 2 is correct: In many North Indian temples you will notice that the phamsana design is used for the mandapas while the main garbhagriha is housed in a latina building. Later on, the latina buildings grew complex, and instead of appearing like a single tall tower, the temple began to support many smaller towers, which were clustered together like rising mountain-peaks with the tallest one being in the centre, and this was the one which was always above the garbhagriha.
• Statement 3 is correct: These are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber. The edge of this vaulted chamber is rounded, like the bamboo or wooden wagons that would have been drawn by bullocks in ancient times. They are usually called ‘wagon- vaulted buildings’.

• During the Vedic period, women were given equal opportunities as men for their spiritual and intellectual development. There were women poetesses like Apala, Viswavara, Ghosa and Lopamudra during the Rig Vedic period. Women could even attend the popular assemblies. There was no child marriage and the practice of sati was absent.

• However, with the transition to the later Vedic period, the position of women declined, as the society became more patriarchal. Women also lost their political rights of attending assemblies. Child marriages had become common. According the Aitreya Brahmana, a daughter has been described as a source of misery. However, the women in the royal household enjoyed certain privileges. The social divisions were not rigid during the Rig Vedic period, as it was in the later Vedic period. Larger kingdoms were formed during the later Vedic period.

• The four divisions of society (Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaisyas and Sudras) or the Varna system was thoroughly established during the Later Vedic period. The two higher classes - Brahmana and Kshatriya enjoyed privileges that were denied to the Vaisya and Sudra. Many sub- castes, on the basis of their occupation appeared in this period. The two outstanding Rig Vedic gods, Indra and Agni, lost their former importance. On the other hand, Prajapati, the creator, came to occupy the supreme position in the later Vedic period.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The village panchayat was an assembly of elders, usually important people of the village with hereditary rights over their property. In mixed-caste villages, the panchayat was usually a heterogeneous body. The panchayat being an oligarchy represented various castes and communities in the village, though the village menial-cum-agricultural worker was unlikely to be represented there. The decisions made by these panchayats were binding on the members.

Statement 2 is correct. A headman known as muqaddam or mandal headed the panchayat. According to some sources, the headman was chosen through the consensus of the village elders, and this choice had to be ratified by the zamindar. Headmen held office as long as they enjoyed the confidence of the village elders, failing which they could be dismissed by them. Statement 3 is correct. The chief function of the headman was to supervise the preparation of village accounts, assisted by the accountant or patwari of the panchayat.

Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Supreme Court, the English language replaced Persian. KB) Under Cornwallis, The District Faujdari Courts were abolished and, instead, circuit courts were established at Calcutta, Dacca, Murshidabad and Patna. These circuit courts had European judges and were to act as courts of appeal for both civil and criminal cases.

Before reforms by William Bentinck, Persian was the official language in courts. Now, the suitor had the option to use Persian or a vernacular language, while in the Supreme Court, English language replaced Persian

• Robert Clive concluded two important treaties at Allahabad in August 1765 - one with the Nawab of Awadh and the other with the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to surrender Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam II.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to pay Rs 50 lakh to the Company as war indemnity.

• Most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the latter in suppressing the Revolt. Moreover, the experience of the Revolt had convinced the British authorities that the princely states could serve as useful allies and supporters in case of popular opposition or revolt. The Revolt of 1857 led the British to reverse some aspects of their policy towards the Indian States.

• Some of the relaxation announced by the British to the princely states were:

  • Before 1857, the British availed every opportunity to annex princely states. This policy was now abandoned. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The right of princes to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation.

• On the other hand, some of the old policies were applied even after the revolt of 1857:

  • Princes were made to acknowledge Britain as the paramount power as the price of their continued existence. In 1876, Queen Victoria assumed the title of the Empress of India to emphasize British sovereignty over the entire Indian subcontinent. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • British claimed the right to supervise the internal government of the princely states.

  • They not only interfered in the day-to-day administration through the Residents but insisted on appointing and dismissing ministers and other high officials. Sometimes the rulers themselves were removed or deprived of their powers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Their perpetuation was only one aspect of the British policy towardé the princely state. Complete integration of princely states with British India was another aspect of the British policy towardé the princely states.

• Subhas Chandra Bose reorganized and revitalized the Indian National Army under Mohan Singh and Major-General Shah Nawaz Khan in Singapore in May 1943. So, Option (a) is not correct.
• On October 17, 1940, Mahatma Gandhi chose Acharya Vinoba Bhave as the first satyagrahi (proponent of satyagraha) to start personal satyagraha (a movement that meant holding to the truth) and Jawaharlal Nehru as the second. The British Colonial government had committed India to the Second World War without the consent of the Indian leaders. To oppose this decision by the foreign government, the Congress party launched individual satyagraha. So, Option (b) is correct.
• Chittaranjan Das formed the Congress-Khilafat-Swaraj Party within the Congress on 31 December 1922. He was aided by Motilal Nehru and Malaviya from UP, Lajpat Rai from Punjab, M. R. Jayakar and VithalbhaiPatel from Gujarat, the ‘Tilak group’ from Bombay and some leaders from south India. It became both a minority faction within the Congress and an independent organization ‘running candidates for legislatures  outside the purview of the Congress. The plan, program and constitution of the Swaraj Party (Swarajya Party) were drawn up at its first conference in Allahabad in 1924. Chittaranjan Das became the President of this new party, and Motilal Nehru was one of its secretaries. So, Option (c) is not correct.
• Cripps Mission was sent to India to discuss the British Government’s Draft Declaration on the Constitution of India with representative Indian leaders from all parties. Cripps arrived in Delhi on 22 March 1942, where they discussed the Draft Declaration with many Indian leaders. The Cripps Mission failed, and the issue of India’s constitution was postponed until the  end of the war.

Thus, Viceroy Linlithgow announced the Cripps Mission to offer dominion status to India on behalf of British
Parliament in 1942. So, Option (d) is not correct.
 

• Before the Indian nationalist intelligentsia began to associate itself with working-class agitations, there were also some early attempts at organized efforts to improve the condition of the workers. These efforts were made as early as the 1870s by philanthropists. 
• In 1878, Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee tried unsuccessfully to introduce a Bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• In Bengal, Sasipada Banerjea, a Brahmo Social reformer, set up a Workingmen’s Club in 1870 and published a monthly journal called Bharat Sramjeebi (Indian Labour), with the primary idea of educating the workers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• In Bombay, Narayan Meghajee Lokhanday brought out an Anglo-Marathi weekly called Dina Bandhu (Friend of the Poor) in 1880, and started the Bombay Mill and Millhands’ Association in 1890. Lokhanday held meetings of workers and in one instance sent a memorial signed by 5,500 mill workers, to the Bombay Factory Commission, putting forward some minimum workers’ demands. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• Tribal movements under British rule were the most frequent, militant, and violent of all movements. The land settlements of the British affected the joint ownership tradition among the tribals and disrupted their social fabric.
• The cause of the tribal violence was directed towards the money-lenders and traders who were seen as extensions of the colonial government. As agriculture was extended in a settled form by the Company government, the tribals lost their land, and there was an influx of non-tribals to these areas due to colonial revenue policies. The money lenders introduced in the tribal areas led to severe exploitation of the local tribals. They became bonded labourers under the new economic system. The tribal societies had a system of joint ownership of land which was replaced by the notion of private property. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Another common cause was the resentment against the imposition of laws by the ‘foreign government’ that was seen as an effort at destroying the tribal's traditional socio-economic framework. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British colonialism's claim over forests in India. o Its main aim was an assertion of the monopoly of the British over the Indian forest land, and it gave the government undisputable power to regulate the forest and pastures. It enabled the Revenue and Forest Department to control the entire forest and grazing land. Some forests were classified as Reserved Forests for they produced timber that the British wanted. In these forests, people were not allowed to move freely, practice jhum cultivation, collect fruits, or hunt animals. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Begar system of forced labour was introduced in tribal areas as well that had altered labour relations. An influx of Christian Missionaries was supported by the British. The reason behind intense tribal rebellion is that zamindars, the Police, the revenue, and the court alas have exercised a combined system of extortions, oppressive exactions, forcible dispossession of property, abuse, and personal violence, and a variety of petty tyrannies upon the tribals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Under British rule, the functions and powers of the tribal chiefs changed considerably. They were allowed to keep their land titles over a cluster of villages and rent out lands as zamindars but they lost much of their administrative power and were forced to follow laws made by British officials in India.
  • They also had to pay tribute to the British, and discipline the tribal groups on behalf of the British. They lost the authority they had earlier enjoyed amongst their people and were unable to fulfill their traditional functions.
• All these reasons compelled tribals to rise against the British rulers.

The British policy of ̳Divide and Rule‘ found another expression in the announcement of the Communal Award in August, 1932. The Award allotted to each minority a number of seats in the legislatures, to be elected on the basis of a separate electorate, that is the Muslims would be elected only by the Muslims and the Sikhs only by the Sikhs, and so on. Muslims, Sikhs and Christians had already been treated as minorities. The Award declared the Depressed Classes (The Scheduled Castes of today) also to be a minority community entitled to separate electorate and, thus, separated them from the rest of the Hindus. The Congress took the position that though it was opposed to separate electorates, it was not in favour of changing the Award without the consent of the minorities. Consequently, though strongly disagreeing with the Communal Award, it decided neither to accept it nor to reject it

 In 1928, Jawaharlal joined hands with Subhas Chandra Bose to organize the Independence for India League. Nehru developed a complex relationship with Gandhiji during this period. He criticized Gandhiji for refusing to recognize the conflict of the classes, for preaching harmony among the exploiters and the exploited, and for putting forward the theories of trusteeship by, and conversion of, the capitalists and the landlords. He headed the Lahore Session of the Congress in 1930. The Karachi Session of the Congress was held in March 31, 1931, under the presidentship of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

In its 1913 Resolution on Education Policy, the government refused to take up the responsibility of compulsory education, but accepted the policy of removal of illiteracy and urged provincial governments to take early steps to provide free elementary education to the poorer and more backward sections. Private efforts were to be encouraged for this and the quality of secondary schools was to be improved. A university, it was decided, was to be established in each province and teaching activities of universities were to be encouraged.

• According to India’s State of Forest Report 2011, the actual forest cover in India is only 21.05 per cent. Of the forest cover, the share of dense and open forests is 12.29 and 8.75 per cent respectively. Both forest area and forest cover varies from state to state. Lakshadweep has zero percent forest area; Andaman and Nicobar Islands have 86.93 per cent. Most of the states with less than 10 percent of the forest area lie in the north and northwestern part of the country.

• These are Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Delhi. Most of the forests in Punjab and Haryana have been cleared for cultivation. States with 10-20 per cent forest area are Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.

• In Peninsular India, excluding Tamil Nadu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Goa, the area under forest cover is 20-30 per cent. The northeastern states have more than 30 percent of the land under forest. Hilly topography and heavy rainfall are good for forest growth.

Weathering and erosion are processes by which rocks are broken down and moved form their original location. They differ based on whether a rock's location is changed: weathering degrades a rock without moving it, whileerosion carries rocks and soil away from their original locations. Weathering often leads to erosion by causingrocks to break down into smaller pieces, which erosive forces can then move away.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Frost is an agent of weathering and not erosion because frost does not move away or cut through the underlying surface and do not move rocks or matter from one location to another.

Statement 2 is correct. Wind is an agent of both weathering and erosion. Both air and water contain some amount of chemical which when exposed to surface of rocks starts chemical weathering.

While wind blows it also carries the lighter weathered materials with it. A strong wind can also erode the surface and transport it somewhere else.

Knowledge Base: Denudation is the general lowering and levelling of the earth’s surface.

The denudation process occurs in four phases namely weathering, erosion, transportation and deposition. Rain, frost and wind are the agents of weathering. Rivers, ice, wind and waves are agents of erosion.

• Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause the sea-floor to move abruptly resulting in sudden displacement of ocean water in the form of high vertical waves are called tsunamis. Earthquakes cause tsunami by causing a disturbance of the seafloor. Thus, earthquakes that occur along coastlines or anywhere beneath the oceans can generate tsunami. But the sense of displacement is also important. Tsunami are generally formed when an earthquake causes vertical displacement of the seafloor. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon the depth of water. It is more in the shallow water than in the ocean deep. As a result of this, the impact of tsunami is less over the ocean and more near the coast where they cause large-scale devastations. Therefore, a ship at sea is not much affected by tsunami and it is difficult to detect a tsunami in the deeper parts of sea. It is so because over deep water the tsunami has very long wave-length and limited wave-height. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• When a tsunami enters shallow water, its wave-length gets reduced and the period remains unchanged, which increases the wave- height. Sometimes, this height can be up to 15m or more, which causes large-scale destructions along the shores.

• After reaching the coast, the tsunami waves release enormous energy stored in them and water flows turbulently onto the land destroying port-cities and towns, structures, buildings and other settlements.

• The current population of the world is nearing 8 billion. It has grown to this size over centuries. In the early periods' population of the world grew very slowly. It is only during the last few hundred years that the world population has increased at an alarming rate.

• After the evolution and introduction of agriculture, the population began to grow slowly but steadily. Around 1750, at the dawn of the Industrial Revolution, the world population was 550 million.

• The world population exploded in the eighteenth century after the Industrial Revolution. Technological advancement achieved so far helped in the reduction of the birth rate and provided a stage for accelerated population growth.

• As a consequence, the world population reached 1 billion in the early 19th century. Thus, it took millions of years for the human population to reach the 1 billion mark. In contrast, it took only 12 years for the world population to reach 7 billion from 6 billion. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The growth rates of the continents of the world are:

  • Africa - 2.49 %

  • Oceania - 1.31% (Australia, New Zealand, and other island nations)

  • Asia - 0.86%

  • South America - 0.83%

  • North America - 0.77%

  • Europe - 0.06%

• At 2.49 per cent, Africa has the highest growth rate of population among all the continents. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. The Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• The extension of the Peninsular plateau can be seen as far as Jaisalmer in the West, where it has been covered by longitudinal sand ridges and crescent-shaped sand dunes called barchans. To the northwest of the Aravali hills lies the Great Indian desert. It is a land of undulating topography dotted with longitudinal dunes and barchans. This region receives low rainfall below 150 mm per year; hence, it has an arid climate with low vegetation cover. It is because of these characteristic features that this is also known as Marusthali. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Dehradun is the largest of all the duns with an approximate length of 35-45 km and a width of 22-25 km. In the Great Himalayan range, the valleys are mostly inhabited by the Bhotias. These are nomadic groups who migrate to ‘Bugyals’ (the summer grasslands in the higher reaches) during the summer months and return to the valleys during winter. The famous ‘Valley of flowers’ is also situated in this Region. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

• Atlas Mountains
  • Mountain range across the north-western stretch of Africa extending about 2,500 km (1,600 mi) through Algeria, Morocco and Tunisia. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • The highest peak is Toubkal (4,165 metres) in southwestern Morocco.These mountains were formed when Africa and Europe collided.
• Alps:
  • The mountains were formed as the African and Eurasian tectonic plates collided. Extreme folding caused by the event resulted in marine sedimentary rocks rising by thrusting and folding into high mountain peaks such as Mont Blanc (4,810 m) (French–Italian border). Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • NOTE: Mount Elbrus is the highest mountain in Europe. Its summit is 18,510 feet (5642 meters) above sea level and it is located in Russia.
• Andes:
  • The Andes is the longest continental mountain range in the world. The Andes is the world’s highest mountain range outside of Asia with an average height of 4000 m. The highest peak is Mount Aconcagua
  • NOTE: World’s highest volcanoes are in the Andes. Ojos del Salado (6,893 m) (active volcano) on the Chile-Argentina border is the highest volcano on earth. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

This is the most widely spread and important soil. The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. As we move inland towards the river valleys, soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai. Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile. Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated. Soils in the drier areas are more alkaline and can be productive after proper treatment and irrigation.

Statement 1 is correct. Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri rivers.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Soils are also described on the basis of their age. According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar). Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bangar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules than the Khadar whereas Khadar has more fine particles and is more fertile than the Bangar.

Recently, the the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India tabled a report in

Parliament on whether steps taken by the Union Environment Ministry to conserve India’s

coastal ecosystems have been successful.

• Statement 1 is correct: Coastal regions of India provide home to 13.36% of the people of the country and thus place tremendous pressure on the resources along the coast. There are nine coastal states in the country, namely, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal.

• Statement 2 is correct: The nodal institutions at the national level, Ministry of

Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), and Ministry of Earth Sciences along with various stakeholder ministries and other key scientific and research

• The laterite soils are commonly found in the area of high altitude and heavy rainfall in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Orissa, Assam and Meghalaya extending over 13 million hectares. They generally form under hot and humid climatic conditions. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The lateritic soils are particularly found on high flat erosion surfaces in areas of high and seasonal rainfall. Loss of nutrients by accelerated leaching is the most common feature which renders the soil infertile. The pebbly crust is the important feature of laterites which is formed due to alteration of wet and dry periods. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• As a result of weathering, laterite becomes extremely hard. Thus, their characteristics include complete chemical decomposition of the parent rock, complete leaching of silica, a reddish-brown colour given by the oxides of aluminium and iron and lack of humus. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• The crops which are generally grown are rice, millets, sugarcane on lowland and tropical plantation such as rubber, coffee and tea on uplands.

• The number of women and men in a country is an important demographic characteristic. The ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called the Sex Ratio.

• It is calculated as the number of males per thousand females in many countries. In India, it is calculated as number of females per thousand males.

• As per the UN (World Population Prospects 2019) the sex ratio of the world is approximately 1016 males per 1000 females. Hence, the world's sex ratio is not favourable to females. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Around 125 countries have more females per thousand males. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Qatar has the world's worst sex ratio while Nepal has the world's best sex ratio. In 2020, male to female ratio for Nepal was 84.55 males per 100 females. Sex ratio at birth (male births per female births) in Qatar was reported at 1.045 in 2019.

• Temperate continental climates (Steppe) are located in the heart of continents meaning they have little maritime influence. Their climate is thus continental with extremes of temperature - summers are very warm and winters are very cold. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The presence of deciduous trees is a feature of Tropical grasslands (short trees and tall grasses), whereas, in the steppes, trees are very scarce, because of the scanty rainfall, long droughts, and severe winters. Tall, fresh, and nutritious prairie grass are found, thus, they are often referred to as 'Granaries of the world'. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Fohn (Switzerland) and Chinook (Canadian praries) are names of local winds that play an influential role in the pastures of temperate grasslands. Hence, statement 3 is correct.