Civil Engineering (CE) Exam  >  Civil Engineering (CE) Tests  >  UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025  >  UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 is part of UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 below.
Solutions of UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 questions in English are available as part of our UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 for Civil Engineering (CE) & UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 solutions in Hindi for UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for Civil Engineering (CE) Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 | 150 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for Civil Engineering (CE) preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 for Civil Engineering (CE) Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding Rashtrakutas

  1. The Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin and Kannada language was their mother tongue.
  2. Amoghavarsha I built the magnificent rock-cut monolithic Kailasa temple at Ellora.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

The correct answer is 1 only
Explanation

  • The Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin and the Kannada language was their mother tongue. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
  • Krishna I was also a great conqueror.
  • He defeated the Gangas and the Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi.
  • He built the magnificent rock-cut monolithic Kailasa temple at Ellora. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Other Related Points
Rashtrakutas (755 – 975 A.D.)

  • Rashtrakutas meaning ‘the chief of a Rashtra’, are considered as the feudatory of the Chalukyas.
  • Their capital city was Manyakheta or Malkhed near Solapur which is in present-day Maharashtra.
  • Rashtrakuta fought constantly against the eastern Chalukyas of Vengi and Pallavas of Kanchi and Pandya of Madurai.
  • They were tolerant in their religious views and patronized Shaivism, Vaishnavism, and Jainism.
  • Krishna III was the last great ruler of Rashtrakutas. In 972 CE, the Capital city was burnt to ashes. This marks the end of Rashtrakutas.
  • The system of administration in these empires was based upon the ideas and practices of the Gupta empire.
  • Amoghavarsha I (815- 880 A.D.) ruled for a long period of 64 years.
  • He had lost control over Malwa and Gangavadi.
  • Yet, his reign was popular for cultural development. He was a follower of Jainism.
  • He was also a patron of letters and he himself wrote the famous Kannada work, Kavirajamarga.
  • He had also built the Rashtrakuta capital, the city of Malkhed or Manyakheda.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

Which country was formally accepted as the 10th member state of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) in July 2024?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

The correct answer is Belarus

In News

  • Belarus was formally accepted as the 10th member state of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) on July 4, 2024.

Explanation

  • The accession was formalized at the 24th Meeting of the Council of Heads of State of the SCO.
  • Belarusian President Alexander Lukashenko expressed pride in joining the SCO and emphasized the country's commitment to the organization's principles of mutual respect, equality, and solidarity.
  • Belarus views the SCO as a key platform for expanding cooperation across the Eurasian continent, enhancing regional security and economic development.
  • Belarus maintains strong trade relations with Russia and China, both SCO members, and its membership is expected to boost trade volumes with other SCO countries.
  • The membership could also enhance Belarus' appeal as an investment destination, particularly through infrastructure investments associated with the Belt and Road Initiative.
  • The SCO has expanded from six members at its inception in 2001 to 10 full members, illustrating its growing appeal and significance in international relations.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Zero hour in political jagron referes to

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

The correct answer is question-answer session.

Explanation

  • The time following question hour in Parliament is known as Zero Hour. In political jargon, Zero hour refers to question-answer session.
  • The Zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day is taken up.
  • In other words, the time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as Zero hour.
  • Zero hour usually starts at 12 noon, whereby MPs can raise their question about issues of urgent public importance.
  • Zero hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure. It is an Indian innovation in the field of Parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962.

Other Related Points

  • Adjournment Motion
    • ​It is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance.
    • The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and 30 minutes (2.5 hours).
    • It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
    • As it interrupts the normal business of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary motion.
    • It involves an element of censure against the government means if passed the council ministers are bound to seek confidence in Lok Sabha otherwise they have to resign.
    • As the Council of ministers is not liable to Rajya Sabha for its actions, hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this motion.
  • Adjournment
    • ​An adjournment time means the suspension of the work in a sitting for a specified period of time.
    • It can be hours, days or weeks. Adjournment sine die means terminating the sitting for an indefinite period of time.
    • The power of the adjournment and adjournment sine die both lies with the Presiding officer of the House.
    • The presiding officer declares adjournment sine die when the working or business of the House is completed.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

Consider the following statements

1. All industrial projects require environmental clearance by an expert committee formed by Centre

2. An Environmental impact assessment (EIA) is mandated under the Environment Protection Act, 1986

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

The correct answer is 2 only.

  • The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is one of the cornerstones of ensuring that the ecological costs of infrastructure development are minimal.
  • Prospective projects above a certain size and with a potential to significantly alter the natural environment must be first approved by the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA) comprising State officers and independent experts. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • Projects that are even bigger or involve forest land — category A — must be cleared by an expert committee formed by the Centre.
  • SEIAA projects make up the bulk of projects for approval including building and construction, small mining, and small industrial projects, and are considered ‘less polluting’.

Applicability in India

  • EIA was first introduced in 1978 with regard to the various river valley projects all over the country and later expanded to include various other developmental procedures in its scope. EIA is now mandatory for over 30 classes of projects.
  • The Environmental Protection Rules, 1986 warrant for the imposition of certain restrictions on the construction/ expansion/ modernization of specific projects without prior approval from the Central, State, or Union Territory level Environmental Impact Assessment Authority (EIAA) constituted under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Categorisation of projects

  • The rules categorise the projects into two categories- A and B on the basis of the magnitude of their scale and impact on the natural and artificial resources.
  • The projects belonging to Category A require approval from the Ministry of Environment and Forests on behalf of the Central Government, on the advice of an Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC), constituted by the Central Government for this specific purpose; eg. Construction or Expansion of Ports, harbours, airports, nuclear power, and related projects, Primary metallurgical industries (iron, steel, copper, etc), individual projects, etc.
  • Projects and Activities falling under Category B require the approval of a State EIAA, based on the advice of a State Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC), constituted under the said notification.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Which one of the following options correctly matches column - I to that of column - II?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

The Correct answer is (i) - (B), (ii) - (D), (iii) - (C), (iv) - (A)
Explanation:

Xylem:

  • The xylem is a specialized tissue in plants responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the leaves and other aerial parts of the plant. It is a unidirectional flow, from the roots to the aerial parts, driven by transpiration (evaporation of water from the leaves) and capillary action.

Phloem:

  • The phloem is another specialized tissue in plants responsible for the translocation of food materials, such as sugars and other organic compounds, from the leaves (source) to other parts of the plant, like roots, stems, and developing fruits (sinks).

Root hair:

  • Root hairs are small, finger-like extensions of root epidermal cells. They significantly increase the surface area of the roots, facilitating the absorption of water and minerals from the soil. Root hairs play a crucial role in the absorption of water and nutrients needed for plant growth.

Stomata:

  • Stomata are tiny pores found primarily on the surface of leaves and sometimes on stems. They regulate the exchange of gases (such as carbon dioxide and oxygen) and water vapor between the plant and the atmosphere.
  • Stomata facilitate the entry of carbon dioxide for photosynthesis and the release of oxygen. During this process, water vapor is also lost through transpiration, contributing to the movement of water and minerals through the xylem.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

कौनसा शब्द ‘वायस’ का समानार्थी शब्द नहीं है?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

‘वायस’ का समानार्थी शब्द नहीं है - 'हारीत'

  • ‘वायस’ का समानार्थी शब्द है - पिशुन, करठ, काक, कौआ, काग, एकाक्ष
  • 'कबूतर' का समानार्थी शब्द है - हारीत, कपोत, हारीत, पारावत, परेवा, रक्तलोचन।

मुख्य बिंदु

  • जो शब्द समान अर्थ के कारण किसी दूसरे शब्द की जगह ले लेते हैं उन्हें समानार्थी शब्द या पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते है।

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

  • हाथी - कुंजर, गज, द्विप, करी, हस्ती।
  • साँप - सर्प, नाग, विषधर, व्याल, भुजंग, उरग, अहि पन्नग।
  • तोता - सुग्गा, शुक, सुआ, कीर, रक्ततुण्ड, दाड़िमप्रिय।
  • गदहा - खर, गर्दभ, धूसर, रासभ, बेशर, चक्रीवान्, वैशाखनंदन
  • मेघ - घन, जलधर, वारिद, बादल, नीरद, वारिधर, पयोद, अंबुद, पयोधर।
  • पक्षी - विहंग, विहग, खग, पखेरू, परिंदा, चिड़िया, शकुंत, अंडज, पतंग, द्विज।
  • सिंह - शेर, वनराज, शार्दूल, मृगराज, व्याघ्र, पंचमुख, मृगेंद्र, केशरी, केहरी, केशी, महावीर।
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

निम्नलिखित में से 'निस्सीम' शब्द में कौन सा उपसर्ग है ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

'निस्सीम' शब्द में "निः" उपसर्ग है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

व्याख्या

  • निस्सीम- निः + सीम।
  • निस्सीम का अर्थ- सीमारहित, असीम।

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

‘अपरिणीत’ शब्द निम्नलिखित में से किस वाक्यांश के लिए प्रयुक्त होता है?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 8
  • जिसका विवाह न हुआ हो उसको अपरिणीत कहा जाता है। अत: सही विकल्प 2 'जिसका विवाह न हुआ हो' होगा।

व्याख्या

  • जिसका विवाह हो चुका हो:- विवाहित
  • जो देखने में प्रीतिकर न हो:- अप्रीतिकर

भ्रम के बिंदु

  • जिसका कोई निवारण अथवा हल नही होता इसका अर्थ है की उसे करना आवश्यक है। अत: उसके लिए एक शब्द 'अनिवार्य' होगा।
  • इसी प्रकार जिसका हल संभव न हो उसे 'असम्भव' कहा जा सकता है।
  • अत: प्रश्न के विकल्प के अनुसार "जिसका परिणाम न निकलता हो" उसे 'अनिर्णायक' कहा जा सकता है।
  • जैसे:- जिस युद्ध का कोई परिणाम अथवा निर्णय नही होता उसे हम :- अनिर्णायक युद्ध कहते है।​

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

निम्नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति "झूठे का मुँह काला, सच्चे का बोलवाला " का क्या अर्थ है?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

लोकोक्ति "झूठे का मुँह काला, सच्चे का बोलवाला" का अर्थ है- अंततः सत्य की ही जीत होती है।

व्याख्या

  • 'झूठे का मुँह काला, सच्चे का बोलवाला' का अर्थ - अंततः सत्य की ही जीत होती है।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग- किसी आदमी को झूठ नहीं बोलना चाहिए, क्योंकि- "झूठे का मुँह काला, सच्चे का बोलबाला" होता है।
  • लोकोक्ति - जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है, लोकोक्ति कहलाता है। इसी को कहावत कहते है।
    • जैसे - 'गागर में सागर भरना' का अर्थ - कम शब्दों में बहुत कुछ कहना,
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - बिहारी कवि अपने दोहों में "गागर में सागर भरने" के लिए प्रसिद्ध हैं।

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु


अन्य संबंधित बिंदु

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

'किंकिणी' में उपसर्ग है -

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

दिए गए विकल्पों में से "किं" 'किंकिणी' में उपसर्ग है।

  • किं + किणी ( किं" उपसर्ग व "किणी" शब्द है।)

व्याख्या
उपसर्ग-

उपसर्ग उन शब्दाशों को कहते है जो किसी शब्द के पूर्व में जुडकर उस शब्द के अर्थ में पूर्णत: परिवर्तन अथवा विशिष्टता ला देते है।

  • अ + सुंदर = असुंदर (मूल शब्द का अर्थ बदल दिया)
  • अति + सुंदर = अतिसुंदर (मूल शब्द के अर्थ में विशेषता ला दी)
  • आ + हार = आहार (नया शब्द बना दिया)

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु
उपसर्ग के प्रकार-

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

किस पुल्लिंग शब्द का लिंग परिवर्तन सही नहीं है ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

पुल्लिंग शब्द का लिंग परिवर्तन सही नहीं है - संचालक - संचारिका
व्याख्या

  • 'संचालक' (पुल्लिंग) शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग रूप 'संचालिका' होता है।
  • स्त्रीलिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से व्यक्ति या वस्तु की स्त्री जाति का बोध होता है, उसे स्त्रीलिंग कहते हैं।
    • जैसे - माता, लड़की, भेड़, गाय, बंदरिया, मछली, बुढ़िया, शेरनी, नारी, रानी, राजकुमारी, बहन आदि।
  • पुल्लिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से पुरुष जाति का बोध होता है, उसे पुल्लिंग कहते हैं।
    • जैसे- बकरा, घोड़ा, लड़का, आदमी, शेर, हाथी, भेड़िया, बन्दर, बालक, शिशु, राजा, राजकुमार आदि।

अन्य विकल्प-


महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु


अन्य संबंधित बिंदु
लिंग दो प्रकार के होते हैं-

  1. पुल्लिंग
  2. स्त्रीलिंग
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

निम्नलिखित में से कौन - सा विकल्प सही नहीं है ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

माह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाला - माहिक, सही विकल्प नहीं है, अन्य सभी विकल्प सही है।

व्याख्या

  • माह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाला - मासिक होता है।
  • जैसे- मासिक पत्रिका, मासिक वेतन आदि।
  • 'माहिक' शब्द का प्रयोग गलत है, क्योंकि माह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाले पत्रिका के लिए सही शब्द 'मासिक' होता है।
  • अन्य विकल्प में सही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द दिए गए है।
  • 'वार्षिक' वर्ष में एक बार प्रकाशित होने को दर्शाता है, जो सही है।
  • 'साप्ताहिक' सप्ताह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने को दर्शाता है, यह भी सही है।
  • 'पाक्षिक' का अर्थ होता है पखवाड़े में एक बार (हर दो हफ्ते में एक बार), जो सही है।

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु
वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द के अन्य उदाहरण-

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Which one of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

The correct option is CO (Carbon Monoxide).
Explanation:
Greenhouse Effect:

  • Solar energy is trapped by the earth atmosphere and radiate slowly so to cover our earth with a warm blanket.
  • This is the natural process of the greenhouse effect on earth to maintain its temperature and makes the earth perfect for life.

Greenhouse gases are carbon dioxide, other greenhouse gases are methane, water vapour, nitrous oxide, CFCs and ozone.
Values of radiation absorbed by the greenhouse gases
are as follow:

From the above table, it is clear that carbon dioxide absorbs the maximum radiation in the earth’s atmosphere
Hence the correct option is Carbon Monoxide (CO) which is not a greenhouse gas.
The major greenhouse gases are

  • Water vapour - causes about 36% - 70% of the greenhouse effect
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2) causes 9 - 26%
  • Methane (CH4) causes 4 - 9%
  • Ozone (O3)
  • Nitrous Oxide
  • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

Important Points
Global warming:

  • If the number of greenhouse gases crosses by delicate proportion, the natural greenhouse balance may get disturbed and there is a continuous rise in the temperature of the earth by trapping the solar heat continuously.
  • This creates the overall effect of Global warming.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 14
What are the components of ICT?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

Communication is the process of information via a common system of symbols. Communication can be interactive, transactive, intentional or unintentional; it can also be verbal or nonverbal.

Information and Communication Technology (ICT)

  • Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is the use of technology in information processing and communication. It deals with the use of electronic computers and computer software to convert, store, protect, process, network, transmit and retrieve information.
  • Information Communication Technology (ICT) is defined as “skills around computing and communications devices, software that operates them, applications that run on them, and systems that are built with them”
  • ICT is all the uses of digital technology that already exist to help individuals, businesses and organizations by using information.

Important Points

  • ICT includes skills, software, applications, and systems. Knowledge of Computer Systems (hardware, networks, and software)

Computer hardware includes the physical parts of a computer, such as central processing unit (CPU), monitor, mouse, keyboard, computer data storage, graphics card, sound card, speakers, and motherboard.

On the other hand, Computer software is the set of instructions that can be stored and run by hardware, for example, System software, Operating system, applications etc.

Hence, it is clear from above that the components of ICT in the options are Hardware, Software, User, and Network.

Other Related Points There are four major categories of computer hardware:

  1. Input devices: used to enter data into the computer
  2. Processing devices: manipulate the data.
  3. Storage devices: store data and program.
  4. Output device: show results of the process.

ICT education consists of four components:

  • ICT/Digital Literacy;
  • ICT Infrastructure and Support Applied Technologists;
  • Specialized Business and Industry use of ICT; and
  • ICT Research and Development Scientists

Computer, Internet, LCD Projector lies in the large umbrella of ICT literacy.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 15
The basic ethical principle of ‘Beneficence’ states that
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

The principle or rule of beneficence refers to a normative statement of a moral obligation to act for the others’ benefit, helping them to further their important and legitimate interests, often by preventing or removing possible harms.

That means all our thoughts and actions must be directed to ensure that others benefit from these thoughts and actions.

Example: When apparel manufacturers are criticized for not having good labour practices in factories, the ultimate goal of the criticisms is usually to obtain better working conditions, wages, and other benefits for workers.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 16
The tendency to over - rate an employee's performance is known as
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

Concept:

  • Performance appraisal refers to the regular review of an employee's job performance and overall contribution to a company.
  • It is also known as an annual review, performance review or evaluation, or employee appraisal.
  • A performance appraisal evaluates an employee's skills, achievements, and growth, or weakness.
  • Performance appraisal should be done to identify the shortcomings of employees to overcome them through systematic guidance and training.

Explanation:

  • The tendency to over - rate an employee's performance is known as halo effect.
  • The "halo effect" is when one trait of a person or thing is used to make an overall judgment of that person or thing.
  • An example of the halo effect is when one assumes that a good-looking person in a photograph is also an overall good person.
  • This error in judgment reflects one's individual preferences and cause biasness in process of performance appraisal.

Other Related Points

  • The Hawthorne effect is the modification of behavior by study participants in response to their knowledge he is being observed for research purpose.
  • Biasness is a tendency to prefer one person or thing and to favor that person or thing that cause error in judgment process.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding a thermodynamic system?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

Explanation:
Thermodynamic system:

  • A thermodynamic system is a region of space containing a quantity of matter that is distinct from its surroundings and can be the subject of thermodynamic study.
  • The study of thermodynamic systems is a fundamental part of thermodynamics, which is a branch of physics that deals with the relationships and transformations of energy within a system.

Thermodynamic systems are classified into different types:
Open System:

  • In this type of system, both mass and energy, transfer takes place across the boundary of the system.
  • Examples include pumps, compressors, reactors, distillation columns, heat exchangers, car radiators, etc.

Closed System:

  • There is no mass transfer across the system boundary, but energy transfer takes place in or out of the system.
  • Examples: A gas confined within a piston-cylinder arrangement, A hot water tank in a residential heating system, The combustion process that occurs within a car engine, A sealed container filled with a gas, The refrigeration cycle in a household refrigerator or air conditioner, etc.
  • The contents of a pressure cooker on a stove with its lid tightly closed and the whistle in position is a closed system as no mass can enter or leave the pressure cooker, but heat can be transferred to it.
  • A bomb calorimeter only allows heat to be exchanged. Such a system is called closed.

Isolated system:

  • In an Isolated system, there is no mass and energy interaction across the system boundary i.e. Interaction between the system and the surroundings is absent.
  • Therefore, mass and the energy of the isolated system are fixed e.g. Universe, A well-insulated thermos flask, Liquid nitrogen stored in a sealed and insulated container, etc.

Surroundings:

  • The surroundings, also known as the environment, represent everything outside the system boundaries.
  • This includes the external conditions that can influence the system.
  • The surroundings are essential for defining the energy interactions of a system.
  • For example, if a gas is expanding in a cylinder, the surroundings include the walls of the cylinder and the external environment.

Boundary:

  • The boundary is the interface that separates the system from its surroundings.
  • It can be real or imaginary, and it can allow for the exchange of energy and/or matter.
  • The nature of the boundary defines whether the system is isolated, closed, or open
  • In thermodynamics, the system boundary can be classified as either movable or fixed, and this distinction is important in understanding how the system interacts with its surroundings.
  • Movable Boundary:
    • In a system with a movable boundary, the physical separation between the system and its surroundings can change. This allows for the expansion or contraction of the system, adjusting the volume it occupies. Movable boundaries are common in systems like pistons and cylinders, where the piston can move to change the volume of the gas inside.
  • Fixed Boundary:
    • In a system with a fixed boundary, the physical separation between the system and its surroundings remains constant. The volume of the system is fixed, and there is no movement of the boundary. Fixed boundaries are typical in systems like closed containers or rigid tanks.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 18
The first offence for infringement of copyright can be for a maximum of imprisonment for a term of
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

The correct answer is 3 years and a fine of Rs. 2,00,000

Explanation Copyright Act, 1957​:

  • In the year 1957 to protect intellectual property rights, this law was implemented across the country by making the Copyright Act.
  • Copyright is a type of intellectual property that protects original works of authorship once they are fixed in a tangible form of expression by the author.
  • Under this, books, painting, sculpture, cinema, music, computer programs, Advertising, maps and technical illustrations are included.

Important Points Section 6, Copyright Act 1957:

Section 63 of the Act provides that any person who knowingly infringes or abets the infringement of-

  • the copyright in a work, or
  • any other right conferred by this Act except the right conferred by section 53A

shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 6 months but which may extend to 3 years and with fine which shall not be less than Rs.50,000/- but which may extend to Rs. 2 lakhs.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 19
The method of setting formal guidelines before starting a work is know as
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Explanation:

  • Planning means deciding in advance what to do, how to do it, when to do it and who will do it.
  • It involves prediction of the future and consciously choosing the future action.
  • Planning is the function that determines in advance what should be done.
  • Before starting any work the method of setting formal guidelines for that work is known as planning.
  • Planning should be done to provide direction & reduce the risk.

Other Related Points

  • Steps of Planning process:
  • Step 1- Define the task
  • Step 2- Identify resources
  • Step 3- Check for possible alternatives
  • Step 4- Create or prepare plan
  • Step 5- Implement the plan
  • Step 6- Evaluate whether work is accomplished or not.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 20
Which of the following can improve the performance of AI agent?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

The correct answer is Learning

Explanation

  • Learning is a crucial aspect of AI, and it involves the ability of an AI agent to adapt and improve its performance over time by learning from previous states, experiences, and data.
  • By saving information from past interactions, an AI agent can make better-informed decisions when faced with similar situations in the future.
  • This capability allows the AI agent to continuously refine its understanding and enhance its performance over time, making it more effective in addressing various tasks or challenges.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Which Control chart shows fraction defective?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Explanation:
P-chart (Proportion or Fraction Defective Chart):

  • It is used to monitor and control the fraction produced in a process that is defective or non-conforming.
  • It follows a binomial distribution.
  • This chart is best suited in cases where inspection is carried out to classify articles as either excepted or rejected.

Fraction defective = (Number of defective articles)/(Size of sample) ⇒ P = ∑d/N
Working rule

  • Calculate the average fraction defective.
  • Compute σ the standard error of fraction defective.
  • Standard error of  (σp) =   
  • Now calculate both the limits.

Additional InformationControl charts:

  • A control chart is a graphical representation of the collected information.
  • It indicates whether a process is in control or out of control.
  • It determines process variability and detects unusual variations taking place in a process.
  • It ensures the product quality level.
  • It provides information about the selection and setting of tolerance limits.

Types of Control Charts:
Variable charts
are meant for the variable type of data. X bar and R Chart, X bar and sigma chart, the chart for the individual units
Attribute charts are meant for attribute type of data. p chart, np chart, c chart, u chart, U chart.

Control charts for the variable type of data (X bar and R charts)

  • In the x bar chart, the sample means are plotted in order to control the mean value of a variable.
  • In the R chart, the sample ranges are plotted in order to control the variability of a variable.
    • R charts are used to monitor the variation of a process based on samples taken from the process at given times (hours, shifts, days, weeks, months, etc.).
    • The measurements of the samples at a given time constitute a subgroup.

Control charts for Attribute type data (p, c, u charts)

  • p-charts calculates the percentage defective in the sample; p-charts are used when observations can be placed in two categories such as yes or no, good or bad, pass or fail etc.
  • c-charts counts the number of defects in an item; c-charts are used only when the number of occurrences per unit of measure can be counted such as the number of scratches, cracks etc.
  • u-chart counts the number of defects per sample; The u chart is used when it is not possible to have a sample size of a fixed size.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Consider the following statements:

1. Low hardness is a characteristic property of ceramic material

2. During sintering densification is not due to surface diffusion.

3. The word ‘ceramic’ meant for hard material.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Ceramic:

  • A ceramic is any of the various brittle, heat-resistant, and corrosion-resistant materials made by shaping and then firing a nonmetallic mineral, such as clay, at a high temperature. Common examples are earthenware, porcelain.
  • The word ‘ceramic’ meant for burnt material
  • Low hardness is a characteristic property of ceramic material
  • With sintering, the grain boundary and bulk atomic diffusion contribute to densification, surface diffusion, and evaporation condensation can cause grain growth but does not cause densification. After pressing, ceramic particles touch one another.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 23
Which of the following types of maintenance is done on a daily basis?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Explanation:

  • Maintenance of machinery means its upkeep and repair in the event of the breakdown.
  • It also includes the renewal and replacement of damaged parts.

Routine maintenance

  • Routine maintenance are maintenance activities such as regular inspections or machine servicing.
  • Routine maintenance is done on a regular basis, whether that be daily, weekly, monthly, or yearly.
  • Routine maintenance is an important part of keeping systems up to date and functional.
  • Simple, small-scale activities associated with regular (daily, weekly, monthly, etc.) and general upkeep of equipment, machine, plant, or system against normal wear and tear.

Breakdown maintenance

  • It is a type of maintenance used for equipment after equipment break down or malfunction is often the most expensive
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Identify the odd one out of the following processes.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Explanation:

Welding process:

  • Welding is a fabrication process whereby two or more parts are fused together by means of heat, pressure or both forming a join as the parts cool. Welding is usually used on metals and thermoplastics but can also be used on wood. The completed welded joint may be referred to as a weldment.

Classification of welding process:

Manual Metal arc welding (MMAW, Metal stick & SMAW):

  • Manual metal arc welding (MMA or MMAW), also known as shielded metal arc welding (SMAW), flux shielded arc welding or stick welding, is a process where the arc is struck between an electrode flux coated metal rod and the workpiece. Both the rod and the surface of the workpiece melt to create a weld.

Submerged arc welding:

  • Submerged Arc Welding creates the electric arc beneath a bed of flux powder, which provides shielding gases and slag as well as alloying elements for the molten pool.
  • The flux layer drastically reduces heat loss and works as an automated or semi-automated process. A hopper recycles the excess flux and slag layers are removed after welding.

Out of the given four options, Submerged Arc Welding is the odd one out.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 25
Which type of fire extinguisher is used in a welding shop?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

In a welding shop, if the cylinder catch fire externally due to the leakage of gas at the connection:

  • Close the cylinder valve immediately(wearing asbestos gloves as a safety measure)
  • Use carbon dioxide fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire
  • Rectify the leakage thoroughly before putting into further use
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

When a line is parallel to a plane, the Orthographic projection of the line on to that plane will be its ______.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

Explanation:

  • When a line is parallel to one plane and inclined to the other, the projection of the line on the plane to which it is parallel will show its true length.
  • The projected length on the plane to which it is inclined will always be shorter than the true length.

Additional Information

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

Cavity type tube well is suitable for:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

Explanation:
Wells can be classified as:
1) Strainer type tube well:

  • It is the most commonly used type of tube well in our country.
  • It is so common that whenever we talk of a tube well, it is automatically understood to refer to a strainer-type tube well.
  • This tube well consists of blind pipes and strainer pipes or screen pipes.
  • This tube well is generally unsuitable for very fine sandy strata, because in that case, screen openings are likely to get choked easily.

​2) Cavity type tube well:

  • A cavity-type tube well consists of a pipe sunk into the ground and resting on the bottom of a strong clay layer. It does not utilize stainers and hence it draws its supply from the bottom and not from the sides.
  • In the initial stages of pumping fine sand comes out with water and consequently, a cavity is formed at the bottom.
  • The water from the aquifer enters the pipe through the cavity and as the pumping continues, the spherical area of the cavity increases outwards with result that the velocity flow being reduced and consequently sand stop entering the well pipe.
  • Hence, in the beginning, sandy water is obtained, which clears out with time.

3) Gravel pack type tube well:

  • A Gravel pack type tube well (slotted type tube well) consists of a pipe which is slotted for part of its length at one end and for the rest of the length it is plain pipe
  • In order to prevent the fine sand particles entering the well pipe, it is surrounded by a mixture of gravel and coarse sand (bajri). The mixture of gravel and coarse sand placed around the well pipe is called shrouding, and it is poured from the top into the annular space between the well pipe and the casing pipe before withdrawing the casing pipe.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 28
Which of the following is/are the skills of Project Manager.
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

Explanation:

Attributes or Skills of a good Project Manager:
An effective project manager is one who should have the following skills/capacities.

  1. Planning and organizational skills
  2. Personnel management skills
  3. Communication skills
  4. Ability to solve problems in their totality
  5. Ambition for achievement
  6. Ability to take suggestion
  7. Understanding the views of project team members and having a sympathetic attitude towards them
  8. Ability to develop alternative actions quickly
  9. Ability to make self-evaluation
  10. Effective time management
  11. Initiative and risk taking ability
  12. Conflict resolving capacity
  13. Team building skills
  14. Resource allocation skills
  15. Entrepreneurial skills
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 29
________ is the small area network that covers small geographical area.
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

The correct answer is LAN.

Explanation

  • Local Area Network (LAN)
    • Local Area Network (LAN) covers a smaller geographical area (Size is limited to a few kilometres) and is privately owned.
    • It can be can used for an office building, home, hospital, schools, etc.
    • LAN is easy to design and maintain.
    • It covers a short distance, and so the error and noise are minimized.
    • It connects network devices in such a way that personal computers and workstations can share data, tools, and programs.
    • The group of computers and devices are connected by a switch, or stack of switches, using a private addressing scheme as defined by the TCP/IP protocol.
    • Routers are found at the boundary of a LAN, connecting them to the larger WAN.

Other Related Points

  • Wide Area Network (WAN)
    • It is a computer network that extends over a large geographical area, although it might be confined within the bounds of a state or country.
    • A WAN could be a connection of LAN connecting to other LANs via telephone lines.
  • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
    • It covers a larger area than that of a LAN and a smaller area as compared to WAN.
    • It connects two or more computers that are apart but resides in the same or different cities.
    • It’s hard to design and maintain a Metropolitan Area Network.
    • The fault tolerance of a MAN is less and also there is more congestion in the network.
  • Personal Area Network:
    • It is a computer network that enables communication between computer devices near a person.
    • PANs can be wired, such as USB or FireWire, or they can be wireless, such as infrared, ZigBee, Bluetooth and ultrawideband, or UWB.
    • The range of a PAN typically is a few meters.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 30
Which of the following statements about damage assessment is incorrect?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

Explanation:

  • Rapid Damage Assessment is conducted immediately after a disaster to assess the damage quickly and determine the amount of relief material and food stock required for emergency response (Statement A is correct).

  • Detailed Damage Assessment is conducted for long-term restoration and rehabilitation, analyzing the mechanisms of failure during the disaster (Statement B and D are correct).

  • However, Rapid Damage Assessment is NOT conducted after rehabilitation efforts; it is performed before rehabilitation begins to provide quick emergency relief (Statement C is incorrect).

Thus, the correct answer is Option C as it incorrectly states that Rapid Damage Assessment happens after rehabilitation.

View more questions
6 tests
Information about UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 1, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice
Download as PDF