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UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 is part of UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 below.
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UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Who is the guardian of fundamental right enumerated in Indian constitution?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

The correct answer is Supreme Court.
Explanation

  • The body which acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights is the Supreme Court. The court protects the Fundamental Rights of the citizens from being exploited.
  • The Supreme Court, as the Guardian of Fundamental Rights, can declare any law null and void if it violates fundamental rights.

Important Points

  • Article 32 of the Constitution (Right to Constitutional Remedies): It is a fundamental right, which states that individuals have the right to approach the Supreme Court (SC) seeking enforcement of other fundamental rights recognized by the Constitution.
  • Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, and quo warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose.
  • The Supreme Court stands at the apex of the judicial system of the country.
    • Article 124 provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme court.
    • Established as the Supreme court of India on 28th January 1950.
    • Also known as the 'guardian of our Constitution.
    • Also known as 'court of record'.
  • The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Indian Supreme Court are appointed by the President
  • The power to increase or decrease the number of judges of the supreme court rests with the Parliament.
  • After the appointment of the new four justices on 18 September 2019, the strength of the Supreme court increases from 30 to 34.
  • The chief justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
  • The appointment of judges other than the chief justice, and the chief justice of India shall always be consulted.

Other Related Points

  • The Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed only by the Parliament by the procedure established by Law.
    • A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehavior or incapacity.
    • A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
    • After the motion passed by both the houses by a special majority, it will be sent to the President.
    • Finally, the President gives his order of removal o the judge concerned.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Which light colour promotes the greatest amount of photosynthesis?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

The correct answer is Red.
Explanation

  • Red light colour promotes the greatest amount of photosynthesis
    • It is the process by which Green plants transform Light energy into Chemical energy.
    • During Photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.
    • Oxidation of water takes place forming Oxygen and the Reduction of Carbon Dioxide takes place forming Glucose.
    • Photosynthesis is maximum in the Red color of Light and Least in the Violet color of Light.
    • Photosynthesis range from 400 to 700 nm, It absorbs the Violet, Blue, and Red color of Light.

Other Related Points

  • Factors affecting Photosynthesis:
    • Carbon dioxide concentration: It is best in 0.03 to 0.04 % concentration and beyond this level can cause an increase in fixation rates and can become damaging over longer periods.
    • Water: Water stress causes the stomata to close hence reducing the CO2 availability.
    • Temperature: The temperature optimum for photosynthesis of different plants also depends on the habitat that they are adapted to.
    • Tropical plants have a higher temperature optimum than plants adapted to temperate climates.
    • Light: There is a linear relationship between the incident light and CO2 fixation rates at low light intensities. At higher light intensities, gradually the rate increases but does not show a further increase as other factors become limiting.

White light:

  • It is nothing but colorless daylight.
  • This contains all the wavelengths of the visible spectrum at equal intensity.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

From where did the Khilafat Movement start?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

The correct answer is Lucknow.
Explanation

  • The organisation was based in Lucknow, India at Hathe Shaukat Ali, the compound of Landlord Shaukat Ali Siddiqui.
  • They aimed to build political unity amongst Muslims and use their influence to protect the caliphate.

Other Related PointsKhilafat Movement:

  • The movement was started as an agitation by the Indian Muslims against the treatment accorded to the Ottoman Empire after World War I
  • The Khilafat Movement begins in 1919 under the leadership of the Ali brothers; Maulana Muhammad Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali.
  • By the mid-1920s, the Khilafat leaders joined hands with Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement.
  • The All India Khilafat Committee was formed at Lucknow in 1919 under the leadership of the Ali Brothers, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, Hasrat Mohani and other notable Muslim leaders.
  • The primary objective was to tap into the resentment of Indian Muslims and rally them into a pan-Indian agitation against the British Empire.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Which of the statement is correct about the impact of climate change?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

the correct answer is ​All of the above.Explanation

  • Climate Change can affect crop yield as well as the types of crops that can be grown in certain areas, by impacting agricultural inputs such as water for irrigation, amounts of solar radiation that affect plant growth, as well as the prevalence of pests.
  • The rise in temperatures caused by increasing greenhouse gases is likely to affect crops differently from region to region.
  • For example, moderate warming (an increase of 1 to 3°C in mean temperature) is expected to benefit crop yields in temperate regions, while in lower latitudes especially seasonally dry tropics, even moderate temperature increases (1 to 2°C ) are likely to have negative impacts for major cereal crops. Hence, option 1 and 2 are correct.
  • Warming of more than 3°C is expected to have a negative effect on production in all regions.Hence,
  • option 3 is correct.

Important Points

  • Researchers from Columbia University in the US studied the effects of climate on five major crops in India: finger millet, maize, pearl millet, sorghum, and rice.
  • It can be noted that recently, the United Nations' State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World report 2018 said that climate change is already having a negative effect on global agriculture and is driving up the number of hungry people around the world.
  • The study, however, found that the yields from grains such as millet, sorghum, and maize are more resilient to extreme weather.
  • On the other hand, yields from rice experience larger declines during extreme weather conditions.
  • By relying more and more on rice, India’s food supply is potentially vulnerable to the effects of varying climate.
  • Therefore, expanding the area planted with alternative grains like finger millet, maize, pearl millet, sorghum can reduce variations in Indian grain production caused by extreme climate.
  • The study shows that diversifying the crops that a country grows can be an effective way to adapt its food-production systems to the growing influence of climate change.
  • It also offers benefits like improving nutrition, saving water, reducing energy demand and greenhouse gas emissions from agriculture.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.

2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 5
The correct answer is Option 1
ExplanationCarbon Fibres in Automobiles and Aircrafts:
  • Usage:
    • Carbon fibers are widely used in the manufacture of components for automobiles and aircraft due to their high strength-to-weight ratio, rigidity, and heat resistance.
  • Applications:
    • In the automotive industry, carbon fibers help in reducing vehicle weight, which in turn improves fuel efficiency and handling.
    • In the aerospace industry, they are used in the manufacturing of wings, fuselages, and structural parts, contributing to overall performance and fuel efficiency.
  • Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Recycling of Carbon Fibres:
    • Recyclability:
    • While recycling carbon fibers can be challenging due to their use in composite materials, techniques for recycling carbon fibers do exist.
    • These methods are constantly evolving to improve the process, making it inaccurate to say that carbon fibers cannot be recycled.
  • Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

निम्नलिखित में से किस लोकोक्ति का अर्थ "दुष्ट लोग भय से ही कार्य करते है" हैं?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

लकड़ी के बल बन्दर नाचे। लोकोक्ति का अर्थ "दुष्ट लोग भय से ही कार्य करते है" हैं

मुख्य बिंदु

  • 'लकड़ी के बल बन्दर नाचे' का अर्थ - दुष्ट लोग भय से ही कार्य करते है
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - संजू बहुत शरारती है, पर जब अध्यापक के हाथ में बेंत होता है, तो वह जैसा कहते हैं संजू वैसे करने लगता है। ठीक ही कहते हैं- "लकड़ी के बल बंदरी नाचे"।
  • लोकोक्ति - जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है, लोकोक्ति कहलाता है। इसी को कहावत कहते है।
    • जैसे - अन्धा क्या चाहे दो आँखें - मनचाही बात हो जाना।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - अभी मैं विद्यालय से अवकाश लेने की सोच ही रही थी कि मेघा ने मुझे बताया कि कल विद्यालय में अवकाश है। यह तो वही हुआ- "अन्धा क्या चाहे दो आँखें"।

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

शुद्ध स्थानापन्न शब्द नहीं है -

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

एक ही लेखक के ग्रन्थों का ( एक जिल्द में) प्रकाशन - आत्मकथा, शुद्ध स्थानापन्न शब्द नहीं है।
अत: विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है, अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।
व्याख्या

  • एक ही लेखक के ग्रन्थों का एक जिल्द में प्रकाशन "संग्रह" या "कृति संग्रह" कहलाता है।
  • "आत्मकथा" एक विशेष प्रकार का ग्रंथ होता है, जिसमें लेखक अपने जीवन की कहानी खुद लिखता है।

अन्य विकल्प-

  • जो वाणी अथवा मन से ग्रहण न किया जा सके- अवाड् मनसागोचर:
    • यहाँ "अवाड् मनसागोचर" का अर्थ है वह चीज़ जिसे मन या वाणी से ग्रहण न किया जा सके।
  • निद्रा को जीत लेने वाला - गुडाकेश:
    • ​"गुडाकेश" का अर्थ है निद्रा पर विजय पाने वाला, जो अर्जुन का एक उपनाम है,
    • क्योंकि उसने निद्रा पर जीत हासिल की थी।
  • पाँच वृक्षों का समाहार - पंचवटी:
    • "पंचवटी" का अर्थ है पाँच वृक्षों का समूह या समाहार
    • यह रामायण से जुड़ा एक महत्वपूर्ण स्थल है,
    • जहां राम, लक्ष्मण और सीता ने निवास किया था।

अन्य संबंधित बिंदुअन्य वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द-

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

निम्न विकल्पों में से संयुक्त वाक्य को पहचानिए।

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

दिए गए सभी विकल्पों में सही उत्तर 'राहुल विद्यालय जाता है और मन लगाकर पढ़ता है' है।व्याख्या

  • राहुल विद्यालय जाता है और मन लगाकर पढ़ता है - संयुक्त वाक्य है।
  • इस वाक्य में दो या उससे अधिक वाक्य मिले हैं इसलिए यह संयुक्त वाक्य हैं।
    अन्य विकल्प :-
  • क्या श्याम यहाँ से चला गया? - प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य हैं । इस वाक्य में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह का प्रयोग हुआ हैं।
  • आज बहुत ठण्ड है। - सरल वाक्य हैं । इस वाक्य में एक ही क्रिया हो रही हैं इसलिए यह वाक्य सरल वाक्य हैं
  • जो लड़का वहाँ बैठा है उसे मैं जानता हूँ। - मिश्र वाक्य हैं। इस वाक्य में एक से अधिक वाक्य मिले हों, किन्तु एक प्रधान उपवाक्य तथा शेष आश्रित उपवाक्य हैं।

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

'चूड़ी अच्छी थी' में 'थी' कौन-सी क्रिया है?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

'चूड़ी अच्छी थी' में 'थी' क्रिया है - योजक क्रिया

व्याख्या

  • 'चूड़ी अच्छी थी' में 'थी' "योजक क्रिया" है। दिए गए वाक्य में "थी" योजक क्रिया है।
  • क्योकि यहाँ "थी" संज्ञा चूड़ी व् विश्लेषण "अच्छी" के लिए योजक का कार्य कर रही है।
  • अतः जो क्रिया वाक्यांशों में जोड़ने का काम करे, उसे योजक क्रिया कहते है।

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु


अन्य संबंधित बिंदु

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

‘विरंचि’ शब्द किस का पर्यायवाची है ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

‘विरंचि’ शब्द ब्रह्मा का पर्यायवाची है, अन्य विकल्प अनुचित है। अत: विकल्प1 ब्रह्मा सही उत्तर है।

व्याख्या

  • विरंचि के अन्य पर्यायवाची - ब्रह्मा, आत्मभू, प्रजापति, प्रजाधिप, अज, चतुरानन, विरंच, लोकेश, सृष्टिकर्ता, स्रष्टा, स्वयंभू, जगद्योनि, धाता, पितामह, बिधना, विधाता, विधि, चतुर्मुख, परमेष्ठी, हंसवाहन, हिरण्यगर्भ, अब्जयोनि।

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 11
Why is Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) a major global health concern?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

The correct answer is Microorganisms stop responding to medicines, making infections difficult to treat.

Explanation

  • Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites evolve and stop responding to antimicrobial medicines like antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, and antiparasitics.
  • This resistance makes infections harder to treat, leading to prolonged illness, increased medical costs, and a higher risk of death.
  • AMR is a significant global health concern because it can affect anyone, of any age, in any country, and can lead to the spread of resistant infections.
  • The emergence of drug-resistant pathogens threatens to return us to a time when simple infections were often fatal.

Other Related Points

  • Prevention: Good hygiene, proper sanitation, vaccination, and rational use of antimicrobial medications are crucial in combating AMR.
  • Research and Development: There is a need for new antibiotics, vaccines, diagnostics, and other tools to combat AMR effectively.
  • Global Action: Coordinated efforts are required at local, national, and international levels to address AMR, including surveillance, stewardship programs, and public awareness campaigns.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 12
How many bits does an IP address consist of?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

The correct answer is 32.

  • An IP address consists of 32 bits.

Explanation

  • An Internet Protocol address (IP address) is a numerical label such as 192.0.2.1 associated with a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication. IP addresses perform two main functions: network interface identification and location addressing.
    • Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) defines an IP address as a 32-bit number. However, due to the development of the Internet and the lack of available IPv4 addresses, a new version of IP (IPv6) was standardized in 1998, using 128 bits for the IP address. IPv6 deployment has been around since the mid-2000s.
    • IP describes a set of standards and requirements for creating and transmitting the data packets or datagrams across networks.
    • The two main functions include interface identification and location addressing.
    • IP addresses are binary numbers but are typically expressed in decimal forms or Hexadecimal forms to make reading and using them easier for humans.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Consider the following statements.
1. In PLCs, the rules are executed sequentially through software and in a continuous loop.
2. Each relay rack is represented by a symbol on the ladder diagram.
3. PLC is a modular system.
Which of the following statements regarding PLCs are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Concept:

  • Ladder logic is basically a programming language that creates and represents a program with the help of ladder diagrams which primarily consists of virtual relay contacts and coils.
  • They are based on circuit diagrams and are mostly used in developing programs/software for programmable logic controllers (PLC), used in industrial applications.
  • The language evolved from originally being a method for documenting the design and construction of relay racks used in manufacturing and process control, where each relay rack is represented by a symbol on the ladder diagram that has connections to devices below them.
  • It looks like vertical rails and the relay symbols look like rungs in a ladder.
  • Ladder logic is described as a rule-based language rather than a procedural one. Each rung in the ladder represents a rule, so when it is implemented to relays and various electromechanical devices, these rules execute simultaneously and immediately.
  • But if the program is applied to PLCs, the rules are executed sequentially through software and in a continuous loop.

Programmable Logic Controller (PLC):

  • It is an industrial computer control system that continuously monitors the state of input devices and makes decisions based upon a custom program to control the state of output devices.
  • Almost any production line, machine function, or process can be greatly enhanced using this type of control system. However, the biggest benefit of using a PLC is the ability to change and replicate the operation or process while collecting and communicating vital information.
  • Another advantage of a PLC system is that it is modular. That is, you can mix and match the types of Input and Output devices to best suit your application.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 14
What was the primary objective of the Bletchley Declaration, adopted at the world’s first AI Safety Summit?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

The correct answer is Establishing global ethical standards for AI.

Explanation

  • The Bletchley Declaration was adopted at the world’s first AI Safety Summit.
  • Its primary objective was to establish global ethical standards for AI.
  • This ensures that the development and deployment of AI technologies are conducted in a manner that is ethically responsible and aligned with global best practices.
  • Such standards are crucial for mitigating risks associated with AI and ensuring that its benefits are widely and equitably distributed.

Other Related Points

  • Promoting AI in military applications: This option is incorrect as the Bletchley Declaration focused on ethical standards rather than military use.
  • Banning AI-based cybersecurity: This option is incorrect as the declaration did not seek to ban specific AI applications.
  • Removing AI from educational institutions: This option is incorrect as the focus was on ethical standards rather than removing AI from education.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Which of the following is extensive property?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Intensive Property: These are the properties of the system which are independent of mass under consideration. For e.g. Pressure, Temperature, density
Extensive Properties: The properties which depend on the mass of the system under consideration.For e.g Internal
Energy, Enthalpy, Volume, Entropy
Note: All specific properties are intensive properties. For e.g. specific volume, specific entropy etc.

External energy required to increase the temperature of a solid mass is known as the material’s heat capacity. It is defined as its ability to absorb heat energy.

Heat capacity has units as J/K. Heat capacity is not an intrinsic property i.e. it changes with material volume/mass.
Specific heat, c, is heat capacity per unit mass (J/kg-K). It is an intensive property.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 16
Quality assurance is concerned with
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

Explanation:

  • Quality assurance is an ongoing systematic, comprehensive evaluation of health services and the impact of those services on client health to meet the standard criteria.
  • Purpose: To ensure the delivery of quality client care.
  • To evaluate the achievement of nursing care.
  • To meet the code of ethics & professional conduct for nurses in India.

Other Related Points

  • Component of Quality Improvement program:
  1. Establish responsibility & accountability
  2. Define the scope of service for the clinical area.
  3. Develop quality indicators to monitor outcomes & appropriateness of care delivered.
  4. Evaluation of quality indicators.
  5. Collect & analyze data from monitoring activity

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

ABC of first-aid is stands for

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

ABC of first aid

  • ABC stands for airway, breathing, and circulation.
  • Airway: Attention must first be brought to the airway to ensure it is clear. Obstruction (choking) is a life-threatening emergency.
  • Breathing: Breathing if stops, the victim may die soon. Hence means of providing support for breathing is an important next step. There are several methods practiced in first aid.
  • Circulation: Blood circulation is vital to keep a person alive. The first aiders now trained to go straight to chest compressions through CPR methods.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 18
Which of the following decision making style encourages creative thinking?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

The correct answer is Conceptual Style.

Important Points

  • Not all situations can be handled with the same style. Some situation demand to be viewed from an emotional approach and some situation demand to be viewed from a logical stance.
  • More often than not, many individuals like to take the same stance in every situation.
  • The decision-making style can be broadly classified into these styles-
    • Directive
    • Analytical
    • Behavioural
    • Conceptual
  • Directive style
    • The decision is made based on clear, undisputed facts and impersonal rules and procedures.
    • The individuals who follow this style trust their own senses and short, focused reports from others.
    • They typically react quickly and does not like to dwell on decisions.
  • Analytical style
    • These decision-makers examine much information before taking action.
    • Unlike directive decision-makers, an analytic decision-maker will seek information and advice from others to confirm or deny their own knowledge.
    • This style is a well-rounded approach to decision-making but can be time-consuming.
  • Behavioural style
    • The individuals under this style are a team-player.
    • They focus on the feelings and welfare of group members and other social aspects of work.
    • They evaluate information emotionally and intuitively.
  • Conceptual style
    • These decision-makers are creative, exploratory, interested in novelty and comfortable taking risks.
    • They deduce the situation with 'what ifs'.
    • They are conscious of how the decision will affect others.
    • They encourage creative thinking and collaboration and consider a broad array of perspectives.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 19
Which of the following is the basic building block of deep learning?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

The correct answer is Artificial Neural Network

Explanation

  • Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) form the basis of deep learning.
  • Inspired by the structure and function of the human brain, ANNs comprise connected nodes, or "neurons." Unlike the decision trees and random forests of traditional machine learning, ANNs can learn complex patterns and representations by processing the data through these interconnected neurons in multiple layers, hence making them the fundamental building blocks of deep learning.

Other Related Points

  • Unlike other machine learning algorithms, artificial neural networks try to simulate the human brain's functioning to make predictions or decisions.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 20
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the tangible and intangible vulnerable elements in disasters?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Explanation:

  • Option A is correct: Floods impact tangible elements such as buildings, crops, machinery, and infrastructure, while intangible elements include social cohesion, community structures, and cultural artifacts (as per the table).

  • Option C is correct: Strong winds affect lightweight buildings, fences, trees, fishing boats, and crops, while the intangible loss includes damage to community structures and social cohesion.

  • Option D is correct: Technological disasters cause tangible damage (to people, infrastructure, crops, etc.) and intangible damage such as environmental destruction and cultural loss.

  • Option B is incorrect: The table clearly shows that landslides affect social cohesion, community structures, and cultural artifacts, making the statement false.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B as it wrongly states that landslides do not affect social cohesion, which they actually do.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 21
Which of the following energy conversion devices is an example of Chemical Energy to Electrical Energy?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Explanation:

A Fuel Cell converts chemical energy from a fuel (such as hydrogen) into electrical energy through an electrochemical reaction.

Other Related Points

  • Dynamo converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, making it incorrect.

  • Heat Exchanger is used for thermal energy transfer rather than electrical conversion.

  • Solar Cell converts electromagnetic radiation (solar energy) into electrical energy, not chemical.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Based on the concept of Energy Conversion Efficiency, which of the following statements is correct?
Statement 1: The efficiency (η) of an energy device is the ratio of useful work done to the total energy used.
Statement 2: The energy wasted in a device is given by the equation (1 - η) E.
Statement 3: The efficiency of lighting devices is measured in terms of efficacy, which is the ratio of the amount of light produced to power consumed.
Statement 4: In an ideal energy device, η = 0, meaning no energy is converted into useful work.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: According to the given image, energy efficiency (η) is defined as the ratio of work done to energy used:
η = Work done/Energy used
Thus, it correctly describes efficiency.
Statement 2 is correct: The image states that energy wasted in the process is given by the equation (1 - η) E, where (1 - η) represents the fraction of energy that is lost as heat or inefficiency.
Statement 3 is correct: The image defines efficacy for lighting devices as the ratio of light output (in lumens) to power consumed (in watts). This means efficacy is an efficiency measurement for lighting devices.
Statement 4 is incorrect: If η = 0, it means no useful work is produced and all energy is wasted, which is the case for a completely inefficient system, not an ideal energy device. An ideal device would have η = 1 (100% efficiency), meaning all energy is converted into useful work.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

If two Carnot engine CE1 and CE2 are connected in a series such that the heat rejected by CE1 is used as the input for the CE2 cycle with the intermediate temperature being the geometric mean of the extreme temperatures. Which of the following statement is TRUE for this efficiency of the Carnot engine?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Explanation:

T2 = √T1T3

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Given diagram is a symbol of________.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Occupational hazards can be termed as a source or situation with a potential for harm in terms of injury or ill health, damage to property, damage to the workplace environment, or a combination of these.
Types of occupational health hazards

  • Chemical hazards
  • Ergonomic hazards
  • Physical hazards
  • Psychosocial hazards
  • Biological hazards

Biological hazards come for working with people, animals or infectious plant material. Examples include; blood or other bodily fluids, bacteria and viruses, insect bites, animal and bird droppings. Biological hazards are due to the agent like bacteria, virus, fungi, blood-borne pathogens etc., are main agents to cause various illness.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Which of the following is the variable control chart?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Explanation:
Control charts:
Control charts are used to monitor the output of a process. The charts are designed to signal when the process has been disturbed so that it is out of control.
Control charts rely on samples taken over regular intervals. Sample statistics (for example, mean, standard deviation, range) are calculated for each sample.
A control chart is a scatterplot of a sample statistic (the quality characteristic) versus the sample number.
Types of control charts:
The two major divisions in control charts result from the fact that there are two types of data:-

  1. Variable data
  2. Attribute data

Variable chart:
Whenever a record is made of an actually measured quality characteristic, such as a dimension expressed in thousandths of an inch, the quality is said to be expressed by variables. Variables are measurable characteristics such as dimension, weight, purity, temperature, yield, tensile strength, flow rate, angularity, etc.
X̅ - R = Average and Range
X̅ - R = Median and Range
X̅ - S = Average and Standard Deviation
X̅ - Rm = Individual and Moving Range

Attribute chart:

If a record shows only the number of articles conforming and failing to conform to specified requirements, the quality is said to be a record by attributes. Attributes are countable characteristics.
For example, most visual examinations concern attributes. A shaft is either cracked or not; a bearing surface has an acceptable finish or it doesn't; a pump seal fails or it does not; scratches are present or not.
p-chart - Fraction Nonconforming
np-chart - Number of Nonconforming Units
C-chart - Number of Nonconformities
U-chart - Number of Nonconformities per unit

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

The angle made by the tool face with a plane parallel to cutting tool base is known as

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Explanation:
Single point cutting tool

Face:

  • Face is the surface of the tool on which chip impinges when separated from work-piece

Side Cutting Edge Angle:

  • The angle between side cutting edge and side of the tool shank is called side cutting edge angle.
  • It is also called lead angle or principle cutting angle.

End Cutting Edge Angle:

  • The angle between the end cutting edge and a line perpendicular to the shank of the tool is called end cutting edge angle.

Side Relief Angle:

  • The angle between the portion of the side flank immediately below the side cutting edge and the line perpendicular to the base of the tool measured at right angles to the side flank is known as side relief angle.
  • It is the angle that prevents interference, as the tool enters the work material.

End Relief Angle:

  • End relief angle is the angle between the portion of the end flank immediately below the end cutting edge and the line perpendicular to the base of the tool, measured at right angles to end flank.
  • It is the angle that allows the tool to cut without rubbing on the work-piece.

Back Rake Angle:

  • The angle between the face of the tool and a line parallel with the base of the tool, measured in a perpendicular plane through the side cutting edge is called back rake angle.
  • It is the angle that measures the slope of the face of the tool from the nose toward the rear.
  • If the slope is downward toward the nose, it is a negative back rake angle. And if the slope is downward from the nose, it is a positive back rake angle. If there is not any slope, the back rake angle is zero.

Side Rake Angle:

  • The angle between the face of the tool and a line parallel with the base of the tool, measured in a plane perpendicular to the base and side cutting edge is called the side rake angle.
  • It is the angle that measures the slope of the tool face from cutting edge. If the slope is towards the cutting edge, it is a negative side rake angle.
  • If the slope is away from the cutting edge, it is a positive side rake angle.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

What is the force required in extruding steel billet if the diameter is 220 mm, extrusion constant 400 MPa and extrusion ratio is 18?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Concept:
Force required in extrusion,
F = k π/4 d² ln ϵ
ϵ = Extrusion ratio, d = diameter, k = extrusion constant.
Calculation:
F = 400 × π /4 × (220)² × ln 18
F = 43.94 MN

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 28
Under TRIPS protection for copyrights is for
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

The correct answer is 'option 4'

  • Article 7(1) of the Berne Convention (Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works on September 9, 1886) as incorporated into the TRIPS Agreement, the term of protection shall be the life of the author and 50 years after his death.

Therefore, the correct answer is '50 years after the death of the author'

Other Related Points

  • Paragraphs 2 through 4 of Article 7 specifically allow shorter terms in certain cases.
  • These provisions are supplemented by Article 12 of the TRIPS Agreement, which provides that whenever the term of protection of a work, other than a photographic work or a work of applied art, is calculated on a basis other than the life of a natural person, such term shall be no less than 50 years from the end of the calendar year of authorized publication, or, failing such authorized publication within 50 years from the making of the work, 50 years from the end of the calendar year of making.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Which of the following statement is/are true?

1. Ceramic materials are strong in shearing and tension.

2. Glass is a non-crystalline ceramic.

3. The atomic bonding in ceramic is totally ionic.

4. Some ceramics exhibit superconductivity under extremely high temperatures.
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

The properties of ceramic material are as follows:

1. brittle

2. Hard

3. Strong in compression

4. Weak in shearing and tension (Statement 1 is incorrect)

  • Glass exhibits an amorphous character.
  • The mechanical properties of glass are similar to ceramic materials.
  • Moreover, glassmaking involves several steps of the ceramic process.
  • Glass is a non-crystalline ceramic (Statement 2 is correct.)
  • Crystal structures in ceramic are generally more complex than those for metals.
  • The atomic bonding in these materials ranges from purely ionic to totally covalent.
  • Many ceramics exhibit a combination of these two bonding types (Statement 3 is incorrect)
  • Under extremely low temperatures, some ceramics exhibit high-temperature superconductivity.(Statement 4 is incorrect)
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Which one of the fire extinguishers is not suitable for petrol fire accident?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Explanation
Water extinguishers are not suitable for petrol fire accidents because water can cause the petrol to spread, making the fire worse. Petrol fires are classified as Class B fires, and the suitable extinguishers for them are foam, CO₂, or dry powder extinguishers.

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