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MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 is part of Civil Engineering (CE) preparation. The MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 below.
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MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Charurhaiba movement is related to which place in Madhya Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

The correct answer is Sidhi.

  • Charurhaiba movement was happed in the Sidhi district of Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation

  • Charurhaiba movement was related to the rice recovery of the British Government.
    • This incident happened in the Sidhi district.

Other Related Points

  • Revolt of 1857 in Madhya Pradesh was started at Gadhi Ambapani of Bhopal.
    • Fajil Mohammad Khan and Aadil Mohammad Khan was Decendent of Feudalist of Gadhi Bambapali.
    • They were behind the initiation of the revolt of 1857 in Madhya Pradesh.
  • Narsingh Garh, Sehore was the state of Prince Chainsingh.
    • He was martyred in 1824 at Dushehra Bag of Sehore district.
  • Jungle Satyagrih started in Madhya Pradesh at Ghoda Dongri (Betul).
    • In Ghoda - Dongri Jungle Satyagrih was led by Ganjan Singh Korku along with Banjari Singh Korku Ghoda- Dongri.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

In which of the following places an amount of Rs.25.00 Crore has been released to Madhya Pradesh for the establishment of National Kamdhenu Breeding Centre?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

The correct answer is Itarsi.
Explanation

  • National Kamdhenu Animal Breeding Centre:
  • In Madhya Pradesh National Kamdhenu Animal Breeding Centre was established.
  • There are a total of 2 National Kamdhenu Animal Breeding Centres being established.
  • An amount of Rs.25.00 Crore has been released to Madhya Pradesh for the establishment of the National Kamdhenu Breeding Centre in Itarsi, MP. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • Rs 25 crore has been released to Andhra Pradesh for the establishment of the National Kamdhenu Breeding Centre in Chintaladevi, Nellore in the Southern region of India.

Other Related Points

  • Under Rashtriya Gokul Mission, all the bull mother farms available with State Governments and State Implementing Agencies/ State Livestock Development Boards are covered for modernization and strengthening of existing infrastructure.
  • The objective of this center is to conserve and promote Indian bovine breeds, increase production and productivity, upgrade genetic quality, supply certified germplasm and save indigenous breeds from extinction.
  • It is noteworthy that the Government of India has approved the establishment of two National Kamdhenu Breeding Centers (NKBC) in the country. NKBC is being established in Kiratpur district of Madhya Pradesh in North India and Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh in South India.
  • In the first phase, 13 breeds of cows – Sahiwal, Gir, Kankrej, Red Sindhi, Rathi, Tharparkar, Malvi, Nimadi, Kenkatha, Khilari, Haryanvi, Gangatiri, and Gavlao and four breeds of buffalo – Nili Rabi, Jafrabadi, Bhadavari, and Murra have to maintain.
  • At present, 195 of the Gir, Sahiwal, Tharparkar, Nimari, Malvi, Kankrej, Red Sindhi, Rathi and Khilari breeds of cows and 107 of the buffaloes of Murra, Nili Rabi, Bhadavari and Jafrabadi breeds Haryana, Rathi, Kankrej, Nimadi are at Kiratpur centre at present. 9 bulls of Malvi, Kenkatha, and Jafrabadi breeds are available.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Which sector is likely to be most affected by the U.S. tariffs imposed on Indian imports?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

The Textiles and Apparel sector is likely to be most affected by the U.S. tariffs. This sector operates on thin margins, making it particularly vulnerable to price increases resulting from tariffs. The impact could lead to higher costs for consumers and reduced competitiveness in the U.S. market.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Madhya Pradesh CM Shivraj Singh Chouhan has announced that Tribal Pride Day will be celebrated in the state every year on whose birth anniversary?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

The correct answer is Birsa Munda.

  • Madhya Pradesh CM Shivraj Singh Chouhan has announced that Tribal Pride Day will be celebrated in the state every year on freedom fighter Birsa Munda's birth anniversary on November 15.
  • He announced this while addressing the Tribal Pride Award ceremony in the Umaria district.
  • The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved to declare of 15th November as Tribal Pride Day.
  • He also distributed forest rights certificates to 800 beneficiaries of the district under the Forest Rights Act in the program.
  • Madhya Pradesh:
    • Chief Minister - Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
    • Governor - Mangubhai C. Patel
    • Number of Districts - 52.
    • Lok Sabha seats - 29.
    • Rajya Sabha seats - 11.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Which of the following is a key reason for India's increased oil imports from Russia in recent years?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

The content highlights that India’s oil imports from Russia surged due to steep price discounts, with imports rising from $2.1 billion in 2020-21 to $56.9 billion in FY 2024-25. Russian crude is available at prices significantly below global benchmarks, making it an economically attractive option for India. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the provided information.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

According to census 2011, the district of Madhya Pradesh with highest female-male ratio is

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

The correct answer is Balaghat.
Explanation

  • Madhya Pradesh Census 2011:
    • Balaghat is the maximum sex ratio district of the state where 1021 women over per thousand men while Bhind is the minimum sex ratio district in which only 837 women over per thousand men.
    • According to the census, 2011 number of women over per thousand men is 931 that means the sex ratio of M.P. is 1000:931 while this figure is 919 in census 2001.
    • 5 districts having maximum sex ratio in descending order are Balaghat, Alirajpur, Mandla, Dindori, and Jhabua.
    • 5 districts having minimum sex ratio in ascending order are Bhind, Morena, Gwalior, Datia, and Shivpuri
    • 5 districts having the highest sex ratio (0-6 age group) in descending order are Alirajpur, Dindori / Mandla, Balaghat, Betul, and Chhindwara
    • 5 districts having the lowest sex ratio (0-6 years) in ascending order are Morena, Gwalior, Bhind, Datia, Reewa.

Other Related Points

  • According to census 2011, the population density of the state is 236 (in 2001 population density was 196).
  • Most population density of the state is district Bhopal (855), while the minimum population density district is Dindori (94).
  • 5 districts having the highest population density in descending order are Bhopal, Indore, Jabalpur, Gwalior, are Murraya
  • 5 districts having minimum population density in ascending order are Dindori, Sheopur, Panna, Betul / Raisen / Seoni, and Umaria
  • 5 districts having the highest population growth rate in descending order are Indore, Jhabua, Bhopal, Singrauli, and Badwani
  • 5 districts having minimum population growth rate in ascending order are Anuppur, Betul, Chhindwara, Mandsaur, and Balaghat
  • 5 districts having minimum rural population growth rate in ascending order are Mandsaur / Narsinghpur, Jabalpur, Neemuch, Betul, and Balaghat
  • 5 districts having the highest urban population growth rate in descending order are Raisen, Dhar, Mandla, Indore, and Morena
  • 5 districts having the lowest urban population growth rate in ascending order are Anuppur, Burhanpur, Shahdol, Chhindwara, and Panna
  • 5 districts having the highest urbanization percentage in the state in descending order are Bhopal, Indore, Gwalior, Jabalpur, and Ujjain
  • 5 districts having minimum municipalization percentage in ascending order are Dindori, Alirajpur, Sidhi, Jhabua, and Sivni.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 7
Which statement is correct regarding the Panchayati Raj system in Madhya Pradesh?
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

The correct answer is The chairman of Zila Panchayat is indirectly elected.

Explanation

  • In Madhya Pradesh, a Gram Panchayat is constituted at a minimum population of 1000 people. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
  • There will be no more than 20 and not less than 10 wards in the Gram Panchayat. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
  • A Janpad Panchayat in Madhya Pradesh is constituted at a population of 5000.
  • There will be no more than 25 and not less than 10 members in a Janpad Panchayat.
  • A Zila Panchayat in Madhya Pradesh is constituted at a population of every 50000. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
  • There will be no more than 35 and not less than 10 members in a Zila Panchayat.
  • Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Zila Panchayat are indirectly elected from amongst themselves. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • For the implementation of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992, Madhya Pradesh had passed the Panchayati Raj Act 1993.
    • It came into force on 25th January 1994.
    • It was passed on 30 December 1993​.
    • Madhya Pradesh has become the first state to establish a full-fledged Panchayati Raj System.
  • It has a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj.
    • Zila Panchayat - District level
    • Panchayat Samiti - Block level
    • Gram Panchayat - Village level
  • Madhya Pradesh has granted 50% reservation to women in both urban and rural local self-government in 2014.
  • Madhya Pradesh has become the first state to initiate such reservations for women in local bodies.
  • The tenure of Panchayati Raj Institutions is 5 years.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Which of the following is Not an objective of establishing Soil Testing Projects at Village level under the Soil Health Management (SHM) Scheme?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

The correct answer is To prevent soil erosion in villages.
Explanation

  • Soil Health Management Scheme
    • Soil Health Management Scheme is one of the most important interventions under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture( NMSA).
    • The NMSA was implemented during the 12th five-year plan with the objectives to make agriculture more productive, sustainable, and climate-resilient.
    • SHM aims at promoting Integrated Nutrient Management through judicious use of chemical fertilizers.
    • This scheme promoted by the Department of Agriculture and Co-operation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' welfare.
    • Under SHM, the establishment of soil testing labs is one of the components which are mainly located at district/ block level.
    • The district-level Executive committee will be responsible for carrying forward the objectives of the scheme for project evaluation, implementation, and monitoring.

Its main objectives:

  1. Strengthening of soil and fertilizer testing facilities to provide soil test-based recommendations to farmers for improving soil fertility.
  2. Ensuring quality control requirements of fertilizers, bio-fertilizers, and organic fertilizers.
  3. Upgradation of skill and knowledge of soil testing laboratory staff.
  4. Promoting organic farming.
  5. Employment generation for rural youth.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 9
Bansagar Project is situated on which of the following river ?
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

The correct answer is Son.

Explanation

  • Bansagar Canal Project is situated in the village Chanaipur of Mirzapur.
  • This project was dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in July 2018.
  • The Bansagar canal project is a joint venture between the governments of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar.
  • It is a multipurpose river valley project centred on the Son River in Madhya Pradesh's Ganges Basin.
  • Mirzapur, Prayagraj, Saint Ravidas Nagar, Chandauli, etc. districts are benefited from it.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

(1101 0001)2 binary number is same as ( )8 octal number.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

The correct answer is "(321)8".
Explanation
Octal Number:

  • The number to the Base 8 is called octal numbers.
  • It uses the numbers from 0 to 7.
  • The numbers 8 and 9 are not included in the octal number system.
  • It is denoted by a8 where a is a number with digits 0 to 7.

Conversion from Binary to Octal:
An octal Equivalent of a binary number is obtained by grouping 3 bits from right to left.

So, Octal Equivalent: 321.
Binary to Octal code:

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 11
In a year 2005-06, average size of agricultural holding in India is
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

The correct answer is 1.23 Hectare.

  • The average size of holdings had shown a declining trend.
  • In 1970-71 it was 2.28 hectares, which came down to 2.00 hectares in 1976-77, 1.84 hectares in 1980-81, 1.69 hectares in 1985-86, 1.55 hectares in 1990-91, 1.41 hectares in 1995-96, 1.33 hectares in 2000-01 and further declined to 1.23 hectares in 2005-06.

Important Points

  • Agricultural Census in India is conducted following broad guidelines for
    the decennial World Census of Agriculture conducted by Food and Agriculture
    Organization of the UN.
  • The agricultural census is conducted by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation, and Farmers Welfare.
  • It is conducted at an interval of every five years and the first census was conducted with the reference year 1970-1971.
  • Through this census data on structural aspects of holdings in the country is collected.
  • Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, Sub Mission on Agroforestry, Pradhanmantri Fasal Bima Yojna, Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Scheme, and Pradhanmantri Krishi Maan Dhan Yojana are some of the initiatives taken by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare.
  • To date, eight agricultural censuses have been conducted in India taking 1970-71, 1976-77, 1980-81, 1985-86, 1990-91,1995-96, 2000-2001, and 2005-2006 as reference years.
  • The ninth census is presently going on in the country.
  • The world agricultural census is conducted at an interval of every ten years i.e decennially.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

The quickest potential time in which an activity can be completed under perfect conditions is referred to as:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Concept:
PERT stands for Program Evaluation and Review Technique and was developed to address the needs of projects for which the time and cost estimates tend to be quite uncertain.
It has a probabilistic approach and is hence suitable for the projects which are to be conducted for the first time or projects related to research and development.
PERT uses 3 cases:

  • Optimistic time estimates the shortest possible time required for the completion of the activity.
  • Most likely time estimates the time required for the completion of activity under normal circumstances.
  • Pessimistic time estimates the longest possible time required for the completion of the activity.

Hence, The quickest potential time in which an activity can be completed under perfect conditions is referred to as an Optimistic time estimate.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

In a ‘PERT’ analysis, if the probability factor is negative, the chances of completing the project in time is

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Concept:

Probability factor z = 

Where x̅ = mean, σ = std. deviation.

  • For z = 0, P(z) = 50%
  • For z < 0, P(z) < 50%
  • For z > 0, P(z) > 50%

In this probability distribution, the curve is symmetric about mean that 

The area covered under the entire curve is 1 unit. So area covered upto a point which is less than mean will be less than 50%.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

The width of carriageway for two-lane road with raised Kerb is _________.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Explanation:

Important Point

  • The lane width of expressways is 3.75 m in plain and rolling terrains and 3.5 m in mountainous terrain, the changeover of lane width from 3.5 to 3.75 m should be effected by a smooth transition of 1 in 60 for flatter rate.
  • On urban roads without raised kerbs, the lane width maybe 3.5 m.
  • The minimum width recommended for the kerbed urban road is 5.5 m to make allowance for stalled vehicles.
  • In local streets of residential areas, the lane width may be decreased to 3.0 m.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Guide bank is hydraulic structure across an alluvial river are:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Concept:
Guide bank:
Guide bank is a hydraulic structure across an alluvial river are prevents the outflanking of the structure by the changing course of the stream.
Guide banks are meant for guiding and confining the flow in a reasonable waterway at the site of the structure i.e., channelize the flow of the river.

Rivers in flood plains submerge very large areas during flood periods.
Naturally, when some structure is to be constructed across such a river (for example, bridge, weir, etc.), it is very expensive to construct the work spanning the whole width of the river.
To economies, some training work may be constructed to confine the flow of water within a reasonable waterway.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 16
On what does the thickness of slab primarily depend?
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

Concept:

The thickness of Slab:

A slab shall have an adequate thickness so that its maximum deflection is within permissible limits.

The thickness of a slab is determined from deflection consideration rather than flexure consideration. The deflection shall be within such limits that neither the appearance nor the efficiency should be affected.

As per I.S. code, the deflection shall generally be limited to the following:

  • The final deflection due to all loads including the effects of temperature, creep, and shrinkage, and measured from the as-cast level of the supports of floors, roofs, and all other horizontal members should not normally exceed Span/250.
  • The deflection including the effects of temperature, creep and shrinkage occurring after the erection of partitions and the application of finishes should not normally exceed Span/350 or 20 mm whichever is less.

Hence, the thickness of the slab primarily depends on deflection criteria.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Read ea the following with respect to the analysis of frames:
A. If the number of members in a frame is less than (2j - 3) then the frame is known as deficient frame.
B. If the number of members in a frame is more than (2j - 3) then the frame is known as redundant frame.
C. If the number of members in a frame is equal to (2j - 3) then the frame is known as perfect frame.
Identify the correct statement from the following:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Explanation:
A plane truss or frame consists of several bars laying in one plane and connected by hinges or pins at their ends so as to provide a stable configuration.
A perfect frame is that which is composed of members just sufficient to keep it in equilibrium, when loaded, without any change in its shape.
A perfect frame should satisfy the following expression:
m = 2j - 3 where m = Number of members, and j = Number of joints.
An imperfect frame is one that does not satisfy the above equation (m = 2j - 3).

  • If m < 2j - 3 then the frame is called a deficient frame.
  • If m > 2j - 3 then the frame is redundant.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against web buckling due to

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

The different type of stiffeners and their function is given below in tabulated from:

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

The following observations were made on 2% dilution of wastewater:
Dissolved oxygen of aerated water used for dilution = 0 mg/l
Dissolved oxygen of diluted sample after 5 days = 0.6 mg/l
Dissolved oxygen of original sample = 2.0 mg/l
The BOD of 5 days of the sample is:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Concept:
Standard BOD is determined at 5 days incubation at 20° C

BOD5 @ 20°C = (D.Oi - D.Of) × D.F
Where, D.Oi = Initial Dissolve Oxygen,
D.Of = Final Dissolve Oxygen,
D.F = Dilution factor
Calculations:
BOD = (2 - 0.6) × 100/2 = 70 mg/l

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 20
Which one is NOT a road pattern?
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Explanation:

The various road patterns may be classified as follows:

(a) Rectangular or block pattern

(b) Radial or star and block pattern

(c) Radial or star and circular pattern

(d) Radial or star and grid pattern

(e) Hexagonal pattern

Important points:

(i) The rectangular pattern has been adopted in the city roads of Chandigarh

(ii) Radial and circular pattern is the road network of Cannaught Place in New Delhi

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

What is minimum cement content required for RC work which is exposed to aggressive sub-soil or ground water?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Concept:
According to IS 456: 200, the Minimum cement content and maximum water-cement ratio based on exposure conditions for plain cement concrete and reinforced cement concrete are given below:

Extreme exposure condition: When the surface of member in the tidal zone and Members in direct contact with liquid/ solid aggressive chemicals.
Important Points
As per IS 456: 2000, Table 5;

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 22
The stress to which high strength friction bolts are pretensioned is known as
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Explanation:

High strength bolts:

  • The high-strength bolts are made from bars of medium carbon heat-treated steel from alloy steel.
  • These bolts may be tightened to a desired initial pretension, up to its proof stress, so that the connected parts are tightly held together between the bolts and nut heads without any slip at the interface.
  • The frictional resistance to slip between the plate surface subjected to clamping force opposes slip due to externally applied shear. This resistance to slip causes load transfer primarily by friction and not by shear.
  • Steel washers of hard steel are provided to evenly distribute the clamping pressure on the bolts surfaces and to prevent the threaded portion of the bolt from bearing on the connecting pieces. However, the surface in contact must be free of mill scale, rust, paint, etc.
  • The high-strength bolts, with specified initial tension, are known as high strength friction grip (HSFG) bolts. These high strength bolts are available in sizes from 16 - 36 mm and are designated as M16, M24 and M30
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 23
Critical Path is always
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Concept:

  • Critical path is the longest path time-wise which can be determined from forward path method only.
  • The critical path is the longest path through the network and time along this path gives the project duration. Critical path joins those activities which are critical.
  • Critical path can be easily determined with the help of total float calculations. The activities on the critical path are those activities that have total float equal to zero.
  • The activities that control the project duration are the ones that have zero total floats and form a continuous chain or path starting at the first node and ending with the last node.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

What is the acceptable indoor noise level for classrooms, auditoriums and hospitals as per IS 4954-1968?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Concept:
The acceptable noise levels for indoor levels in different types of residential areas is given in below table:

IS:4954-1968: Recommendations for Noise Abatement in Town Planning
The acceptable noise levels for outdoor and indoor levels in different types of residential areas is given in below table:

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

If a nozzle is so shaped that the velocity of flow among center line changes from 1.5 m/sec to 15 m/sec in a distance of 0.375 m, what will be the magnitude of convective acceleration at the beginning?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Concept:

Convective acceleration is given by,

Convective acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity due to the change in the position of fluid particles in a fluid flow.

Convective acceleration in one direction is given as:

Where, u = Initial velocity, du = Change in velocity

Calculation:

Given,

u = 1.5 m/s and du = 15 - 1.5 = 13.5 m/s

dx = 0.375 m

ax = 54 m/s2

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 26
The type of Bitumen for which the viscosity has been decreased by a volatile dilutant is known as
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Bitumen: Petroleum product obtained by distillation of petroleum crude.

Cut Back Bitumen: Viscosity reduced by volatile dilutant after cutback is mixed with other aggregates, the volatile gets evaporated and cutback develops binding properties.

Emulsion: Liquid product in which a substantial amount of bitumen is suspended in the finely divided condition in an aqueous medium. Function of the emulsifier is to protective coatings around the globules of the binder.

Tar: Obtained when natural organic materials such as wood and coal destructively distilled in the absence of air. Coal tar is superior to wood tar.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Which of the following is/are true about cast-in-situ piles?

a) Piles of any size and length may be constructed at the site.

b) The damage due to driving and handling, which is common in the precast piles, is eliminated in this case.

c) They are suitable in soils of poor drainage qualities.

d)They cause vibrations and affect the surrounding structures.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Concepts:

Bored cast in situ pile is constructed by digging a hole in the ground by suitable means such as percussive or rotary method with the use of temporary or permanent casing or drilling mud. After that, the construction is finalized by filling the hole with reinforced concrete.

Characteristics of Cast-in-Situ piles:

  1. They are not subjected to handling or driving stresses
  2. It is not necessary to reinforce the pile in ordinary cases or in places where the pile is completely submerged in the soil.
  3. Reinforcements are necessary to be provided in a cast-in- situ piles, when the pile acts as a column and is subjected to lateral forces.
  4. Slump required is 80 to 150 mm.
  5. They are suitable in soils of poor drainage qualities.
  6. They do not cause vibration as these piles are not driven.
  7. They are ideal as end bearing pile, exclusively when it need to be socketed into rock.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Critical path is defined as one that gives

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Concept:
From the activity network representation, it can be analyzed that the minimum time to complete the project is the maximum of all paths from start to finish.
So, the longest path will represent the critical path for the network, and it will represent the minimum possible duration required to complete the project.
The critical path will be the longest path in the network requiring the maximum amount of time, but it will represent the minimum duration that is required to complete all the activities i.e. completion of a project.
Example:

TE = Earliest time of an event
TL = Latest time of an event.
Slack (S) = TL - TE
The duration of the project is the sum of duration of each activity along the critical path. Critical path is the path where slack (S) is zero.
Critical path of above network is 1 - 2 - 3- 4 - 5

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Condition for the most economical rectangular channel in open channel flow when width and depth of the channel are 'b' and 'd' respectively and ' m' is the hydraulic mean depth.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Most economical section is the one whose wetted perimeter is minimum for the given value of discharge.

For minimum wetted perimeter,
d = b/2
∴ d/b = 1 : 2
Note:

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 30
A crop requires twelve waterings at an interval of 10 days and water depth of 10 cm is applied in every watering. What will be the total water depth required by the crop during entire period?
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Concept:

Number of intervals of irrigation = Crop period/average interval

Δ of water = Depth of water required × No. of watering

Calculation:

Depth of water required = 10 cm

An interval = 10 days

No. of watering = 12

The total water depth required by the crop during the entire period

Δ of water = 12 × 10 = 120 cm = 1.20 m

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