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ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Agriculture Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test ASRB NET Mock Test Series 2025 - ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 for Agriculture Exams 2025 is part of ASRB NET Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Agriculture Exams exam syllabus.The ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 MCQs are made for Agriculture Exams 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 below.
Solutions of ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 questions in English are available as part of our ASRB NET Mock Test Series 2025 for Agriculture Exams & ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 solutions in Hindi for ASRB NET Mock Test Series 2025 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for Agriculture Exams Exam by signing up for free. Attempt ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 | 150 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for Agriculture Exams preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study ASRB NET Mock Test Series 2025 for Agriculture Exams Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 1
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The minimum germination percentage of maize seeds according to IMSCS is _________?

Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

The correct answer is B. 90%

According to the Indian Minimum Seed Certification Standards (IMSCS), the minimum germination percentage for maize seeds is set at 90%. This standard indicates that maize has the highest germination requirement among all cereal crops, ensuring quality and viability for effective planting.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a minimum germination percentage of 80% does not meet the IMSCS standard for maize, which is higher.
  • C: This option is incorrect as 85% is also below the required minimum of 90%, thus not suitable for certification.
  • D: This option is incorrect since a minimum of 99% is not the standard set by IMSCS for maize, making it excessively high compared to the actual requirement.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its adherence to the IMSCS standard, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 90% is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 2
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Who is regarded as the father of seed pathology?

Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

The correct answer is D. Paul Neergaard

Paul Neergaard is recognized as the father of seed pathology, a field he significantly contributed to by coining the term "seed pathology" with Mary Noble in 1940. His work laid the foundation for understanding seed health and diseases, influencing agricultural practices and research.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect as Trirumalachar, while notable in plant pathology, is not specifically recognized for contributions to seed pathology.
  • B: This option is incorrect because S.B. Mathur made contributions to seed science but is not credited with founding the field of seed pathology.
  • C: This option is incorrect since V.K. Agarwal is known for his work in related fields but does not hold the title of father of seed pathology.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its historical significance in establishing seed pathology as a scientific discipline. Thus, Paul Neergaard is the correct choice.

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ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 3
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For hybrid paddy seed production, the recommended number of border rows is-

Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

The correct answer is D. 4

Border rows play a crucial role in hybrid paddy seed production by isolating the hybrid crops from nearby varieties, which reduces the risk of cross-pollination. Utilizing four border rows effectively minimizes external pollen contamination, thus preserving genetic purity and enhancing the quality of the hybrid seeds produced.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because having only two border rows may not provide sufficient isolation from surrounding varieties, increasing the risk of cross-pollination.
  • B: This option is incorrect as three border rows may still leave the hybrid field vulnerable to pollen from adjacent crops, potentially compromising seed quality.
  • C: This option is incorrect since six border rows exceed the recommended number needed for effective isolation, which can be unnecessary and may not provide additional benefits.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its optimal balance in providing isolation while maintaining efficiency in hybrid paddy seed production. Thus, 4 is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 4
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Epigeal germination occurs in?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

The correct answer is A. Groundnut

Epigeal germination refers to a process where the cotyledons rise above the soil as the seedling develops. In the case of groundnut, the hypocotyl elongates, pushing the cotyledons above the ground and making them visible. This type of germination is significant as it allows the seedling to access sunlight earlier, promoting growth.

Details on Other Options:

  • B: This option is incorrect because sorghum exhibits hypogeal germination, where the cotyledons remain below the soil surface during seedling development.
  • C: This option is incorrect as paddy (rice) also undergoes hypogeal germination, meaning its cotyledons do not emerge above the soil.
  • D: This option is incorrect since maize typically exhibits hypogeal germination, with the cotyledons staying underground as the plant grows.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its characteristic of epigeal germination, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Groundnut is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 5
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In sunflower, pollination is brought about by?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

The correct answer is A. Honey bees

Pollination in sunflowers is mainly carried out by honey bees, which are drawn to the bright and large flower heads. As they gather pollen and nectar, they facilitate the transfer of pollen, ensuring effective fertilization and seed production.

Details on Other Options:

  • B: This option is incorrect because bumble bees, while they do contribute to pollination, are not the primary pollinators of sunflowers compared to honey bees.
  • C: This option is incorrect as wind pollination is not a significant method for sunflowers, which rely more on animal pollinators for effective reproduction.
  • D: This option is incorrect since butterflies do not play a major role in the pollination of sunflowers, unlike honey bees, which are more efficient in this process.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its role in the effective pollination of sunflowers, clearly distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, Honey bees is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 6
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Number of seeds present per capsule in Azalea is about-
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

The correct answer is C. 400

In Azalea (Rhododendron spp.), each capsule contains around 400 seeds. This high seed count is significant as it enhances the reproductive success of Azalea plants, which are known for their vibrant flowers and belong to the Rhododendron genus.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a seed count of 200 per capsule underestimates the reproductive capacity of Azaleas, which typically produce more seeds.
  • B: This option is incorrect as a count of 300 seeds per capsule does not accurately reflect the typical seed production found in Azalea capsules.
  • D: This option is incorrect since a seed count of 500 per capsule exceeds the common range observed in Azaleas, which is closer to 400 seeds.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, is distinguished by its representation of the typical seed count per capsule in Azaleas, clearly setting it apart from the other options. Thus, 400 is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 7
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Flat and round seeds can be separated by-
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

The correct answer is B. Spiral separator

A spiral separator, also known as a helical or gravity spiral separator, is effective for separating flat and round seeds. This device takes advantage of the differences in specific gravity among seeds, allowing them to settle into distinct layers based on their shapes. As the seeds move through the spiral, the design facilitates the segregation of flat seeds from round ones, ensuring efficient separation.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a specific gravity separator relies on differences in density, which may not effectively distinguish between flat and round seeds as effectively as a spiral separator.
  • C: This option is not suitable since a magnetic separator is designed to separate magnetic materials from non-magnetic ones, which does not apply to the shape-based separation of seeds.
  • D: This option is incorrect as an indent cylinder separator is primarily used for separating seeds based on size and shape but is not specifically designed for flat versus round seed separation.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specialized design that effectively separates flat and round seeds based on their shape. Thus, Spiral separator is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 8
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What is the top screen size for snake gourd seed processing?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

The correct answer is D. 34/64

In the processing of snake gourd seeds, the top screen size denotes the mesh size utilized for sorting the seeds. A top screen size of 34/64" signifies the diameter of the sieve openings, which is crucial for effectively separating seeds based on size, ensuring optimal quality in seed processing.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a top screen size of 20/64" is too small for effective sieving of snake gourd seeds, potentially allowing larger seeds to pass through.
  • B: This option is incorrect as a top screen size of 24/64" may not adequately separate the seeds, resulting in a less efficient processing outcome.
  • C: This option is incorrect since a top screen size of 30/64" is still smaller than the optimal size needed for effective seed processing, which is 34/64".

Conclusion:

The D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its suitability in effectively sieving snake gourd seeds, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 34/64 is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 9
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Controlled hydration is-
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

The correct answer is D. Priming

Controlled hydration is the technique of incrementally adding water to a material, often used in construction, such as concrete, to attain the ideal moisture level for optimal effectiveness. "Priming" (option D) aligns with controlled hydration since it prepares a material by managing its water content, ensuring it performs as intended.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because hardening refers to the process of a material setting and becoming solid, which does not specifically relate to the controlled addition of water.
  • B: This option is incorrect as fortification typically involves enhancing a material's properties or nutritional value, rather than the gradual hydration process.
  • C: This option is incorrect since infusion generally means introducing a substance into a solution, which is not specifically about controlling hydration levels in materials.

Conclusion:

The D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its direct connection to the process of managing water content in materials, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Priming is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 10
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The transfer of pollen to stigma of different flowers of same plant is called as?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

The correct answer is C. Geitonogamy

Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant. This type of pollination occurs between flowers of the same individual, facilitating genetic exchange while remaining within the same organism. In contrast, chasmogamy involves pollination in open flowers, while cleistogamy pertains to self-pollination in closed flowers.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because chasmogamy refers to the pollination process that occurs in flowers that are open and accessible, allowing for cross-pollination with other plants.
  • B: This option is incorrect as cleistogamy describes a self-pollination mechanism in which flowers remain closed, preventing cross-pollination and ensuring that the pollen fertilizes the ovules within the same flower.
  • D: This option is incorrect since xenogamy involves the transfer of pollen from the flower of one plant to the stigma of a flower on a different plant, promoting genetic diversity through cross-pollination between distinct individuals.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specific focus on pollen transfer within the same plant, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Geitonogamy is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 11
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Genetic contaminants present in hybrid rice field is-
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

The correct answer is C. Pollen shedder

Pollen shedders are plants that release pollen in hybrid rice fields, posing a risk of genetic contamination. In hybrid rice cultivation, it's crucial to preserve the genetic purity of the hybrid variety by avoiding pollen from non-hybrid or self-pollinated plants. The presence of pollen shedders can lead to the introduction of undesired genetic traits, which may undermine the intended qualities of the hybrid rice.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because shedding tassels are parts of the plant that release pollen but do not directly refer to a plant type that causes genetic contamination.
  • B: This option is incorrect as self-bolls refer to the seed pods of self-pollinating plants, which do not affect the genetic integrity of hybrid rice fields.
  • D: This option is incorrect since diseased plants do not specifically relate to genetic contamination through pollen, but rather to health issues that could impact crop yield.

Conclusion:

The C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its direct association with the risk of genetic contamination in hybrid rice production, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Pollen shedder is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 12
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Phytochrome receptor is present in?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

The correct answer is D. Plasma membrane

Phytochrome receptors are situated in the plasma membrane of plant cells. These receptors are essential for detecting light signals and triggering signal transduction pathways, which regulate gene expression and developmental processes based on light conditions.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because phytochrome receptors are not found in mitochondria, which are primarily involved in energy production and metabolic processes.
  • B: This option is incorrect as phytochrome receptors do not reside in the nucleus, which is primarily responsible for housing genetic material and regulating gene expression.
  • C: This option is incorrect since phytochrome receptors are not located in the cytoplasm, where various metabolic processes occur but do not involve light signal perception.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its role in light signal perception in plant cells, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Plasma membrane is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 13
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Seed rate of velimasal is?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

The correct answer is C. 20-25 kg/ha

The optimal seed rate for Velimasal, also known as hedge lucerne, is between 20-25 kg/ha. This range is crucial as it promotes the ideal plant density, ensuring that each plant receives sufficient sunlight and nutrients, which is vital for achieving the best yield and quality of forage.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a seed rate of 30-35 kg/ha is higher than recommended, which may lead to overcrowding and competition among plants, negatively affecting growth and yield.
  • B: This option is incorrect as a seed rate of 50-60 kg/ha is excessive for Velimasal, potentially resulting in poor plant health and reduced forage quality due to limited resources.
  • D: This option is incorrect since a seed rate of 10-20 kg/ha is too low, which could lead to inadequate plant coverage and insufficient yield, failing to meet the crop's potential.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its alignment with the recommended practices for planting Velimasal, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 20-25 kg/ha is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 14
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Image analysis of seed for varietal identification is based on?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

The correct answer is A. Morphological features

Image analysis for identifying seed varieties primarily depends on morphological features, including size, shape, and color. These characteristics can be quantitatively assessed to differentiate between various seed types effectively.

Details on Other Options:

  • B: This option is incorrect because physiological features pertain to the functions and processes within the seeds, which are less visually discernible compared to morphological traits.
  • C: This option is incorrect as biochemical characteristics involve the chemical composition of seeds, which cannot be directly observed through image analysis.
  • D: This option is incorrect since histological features focus on the microscopic structure of seeds, which is not the primary concern of image analysis for varietal identification.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, is distinguished by its focus on observable traits that can be analyzed visually, clearly setting it apart from the other options. Thus, Morphological features is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 15
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What is apospory in apomixis?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

The correct answer is A. Formation of a new embryo sac from diploid cells outside the original embryo sac without reduction

Apospory is a key concept in apomixis, where a new embryo sac develops from diploid cells located outside the original embryo sac, allowing embryo formation without the need for fertilization. This process enables plants to reproduce asexually while maintaining genetic consistency, making it significant in plant breeding and agriculture.

Details on Other Options:

  • B: This option is incorrect because it describes the direct development of an embryo from the seed, which is not related to apospory or apomixis.
  • C: This option is incorrect as it refers to sexual reproduction, which involves fertilization, contrasting with the asexual nature of apospory.
  • D: This option is incorrect since artificial vegetative propagation involves human intervention to reproduce plants, differing from the natural process of apospory in apomixis.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its clear definition of apospory in apomixis, distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, Formation of a new embryo sac from diploid cells outside the original embryo sac without reduction is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 16
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Which mechanism ensures complete self-pollination by having flowers that open only after pollination?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

The correct answer is C. Cleistogamy

Cleistogamy is a reproductive mechanism where flowers remain closed during their entire development, ensuring that self-pollination occurs without the need for external pollinators. This adaptation guarantees that fertilization takes place within the flower itself, thus maximizing reproductive success even in isolated conditions.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because homogamy refers to the presence of flowers that can pollinate themselves without any specific adaptation to ensure closure during development.
  • B: This option is incorrect as chasmogamy involves flowers that open to allow cross-pollination, which is the opposite of ensuring complete self-pollination.
  • D: This option is incorrect since herkogamy describes a structural arrangement that prevents self-pollination by separating male and female reproductive organs within the same flower.

Conclusion:

The C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its unique characteristic of ensuring self-pollination through closed flowers, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Cleistogamy is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 17
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What is the maximum percentage of off types allowed in foundation seed of rice?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

The correct answer is A. 0.05%

The foundation seed of rice permits a maximum of 0.05% off types. Off types refer to plants that differ genetically from the intended variety, and controlling their presence is crucial for maintaining the purity and quality of the seed. Keeping this percentage low is essential for ensuring that the seeds produce consistent and reliable crops.

Details on Other Options:

  • B: This option is incorrect because allowing 0.10% off types exceeds the acceptable limit for foundation seeds, which could compromise seed quality.
  • C: This option is not suitable, as a 0.20% allowance for off types is significantly higher than the permitted level, risking genetic purity.
  • D: This option is also incorrect since a maximum of 0.01% off types is stricter than the established limit, which is 0.05% for foundation seed.

Conclusion:

The A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out due to its alignment with the established regulations for foundation seed purity. Thus, 0.05% is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 18
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How much huskless seed is permitted at maximum in both foundation and certified rice seed standards?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

The correct answer is C. 2%

The allowable limit for huskless seeds in both foundation and certified rice seed standards is set at 2%. This threshold is critical as the presence of huskless seeds can negatively impact the quality and visual appeal of the seed batch.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a maximum of 1% huskless seeds is too low for both foundation and certified rice seed standards, which allows for a higher limit.
  • B: This option is incorrect as 1.5% does not meet the established standard, which permits up to 2% huskless seeds.
  • D: This option is incorrect since 2.5% exceeds the maximum limit set for huskless seeds in these seed standards.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its compliance with the established standards for rice seeds, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 2% is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 19
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What is the maximum percentage of off-types allowed in Foundation seed of wheat?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

The correct answer is A. 0.05%

The maximum allowable percentage of off-types in Foundation seed of wheat is 0.05%. This stringent limit is set to maintain the varietal purity of the seed, ensuring that the genetic integrity of the wheat variety is preserved and that the crop produced meets quality standards.

Details on Other Options:

  • B: This option is incorrect because allowing 0.10% off-types would compromise the purity of the Foundation seed, which is critical for maintaining the desired characteristics of the wheat variety.
  • C: This option is incorrect as a maximum of 0.20% off-types would lead to significant genetic variation, potentially affecting crop yield and quality.
  • D: This option is incorrect since permitting 0.50% off-types would greatly undermine the varietal integrity, which is essential for Foundation seed production.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its strict adherence to the standards of seed purity, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 0.05% is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 20
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The process of pollination involves the transfer of pollen to the:
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

The correct answer is B. Stigma

Pollination is the process where pollen is transferred from the anther, the male part of a flower, to the stigma, the female part. This transfer is crucial for fertilization and the production of seeds, making the stigma an essential component in the reproductive cycle of flowering plants.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because the anther is the part of the flower that produces pollen, not the destination for pollen transfer during pollination.
  • C: This option is incorrect as the sepal serves to protect the flower bud and does not play a role in the pollination process.
  • D: This option is incorrect since petals are primarily involved in attracting pollinators and do not directly participate in the transfer of pollen.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its role as the receiver of pollen in the pollination process, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Stigma is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 21
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Which of the following is NOT a method of natural vegetative reproduction?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

The correct answer is C. Grafting

Grafting is a horticultural method where tissues from two plants are joined to grow as one. Unlike rhizomes, tubers, and bulbils, which are natural forms of vegetative reproduction, grafting is artificial and not a natural reproductive process.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: Rhizomes are underground stems that can produce new plants, making them a natural method of vegetative reproduction.
  • B: Tubers are swollen underground stems that store nutrients and can sprout new plants, thus serving as a natural reproduction method.
  • D: Bulbils are small bulbs that can develop into new plants, representing another form of natural vegetative reproduction.

Conclusion:

The C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out because it represents an artificial method of plant propagation, clearly differentiating it from the natural processes of the other options. Thus, Grafting is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 22
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Self-incompatibility is a mechanism to:
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

The correct answer is B. Prevent self-pollination

Self-incompatibility is a biological mechanism that ensures plants do not fertilize themselves, thereby preventing self-pollination. This process is crucial for promoting genetic diversity within plant populations, as it encourages cross-pollination with different individuals, leading to healthier and more resilient offspring.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because self-incompatibility specifically works against self-pollination rather than promoting it, ensuring that pollen from the same plant does not fertilize its own ovules.
  • C: This option is incorrect as self-incompatibility does not directly enhance seed production; rather, it focuses on genetic diversity which may indirectly support better seed viability.
  • D: This option is incorrect since while self-incompatibility does increase genetic variation, its primary function is to prevent self-fertilization, making this option less precise in the context of the question.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its direct relation to the mechanism of self-incompatibility, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Prevent self-pollination is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 23
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Which pollination mechanism involves insects as the primary pollinating agent?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

The correct answer is B. Entomophily

Entomophily is the pollination mechanism where insects play a crucial role as the primary agents of pollination. This process is vital for many flowering plants, as it facilitates the transfer of pollen from the male parts to the female parts of flowers, enabling fertilization and the production of seeds. Insects, such as bees, butterflies, and beetles, are attracted to flowers by their colors, scents, and nectar, making them essential for the reproductive success of numerous plant species.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because anemophily refers to wind pollination, where pollen is carried by the wind rather than by insects.
  • C: This option is incorrect as hydrophily involves water as the medium for pollen transfer, typically seen in aquatic plants.
  • D: This option is incorrect since ornithophily involves birds as pollinators, not insects, focusing on the relationship between certain flowers and bird species.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specific association with insects as pollinators, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Entomophily is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 24
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When were The Seed Rules notified?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

The correct answer is B. 1968

The Seed Rules were officially notified in September 1968, establishing important regulations for seed quality and distribution in agriculture. This legislation aimed to ensure the availability of high-quality seeds to farmers, thereby enhancing agricultural productivity and sustainability.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because 1966 predates the notification of the Seed Rules, which were established later.
  • C: This option is incorrect as the Seed Rules were not notified in 1969; they were already established in 1968.
  • D: This option is incorrect since 1972 is after the actual notification date of the Seed Rules in 1968.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its correctness regarding the notification date of the Seed Rules, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 1968 is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 25
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What is the minimum number of inspections required for Green gram, Black gram, Red gram, and Cowpea?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

The correct answer is B. 2

Green gram, Black gram, Red gram, and Cowpea necessitate at least 2 inspections to ensure proper monitoring and quality control. This minimum number allows for adequate assessment of the crops at different growth stages, which is crucial for successful cultivation and management.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because conducting only 1 inspection is insufficient for thorough evaluation, potentially overlooking critical growth or health issues in the crops.
  • C: This option is incorrect as 3 inspections exceed the necessary minimum, leading to unnecessary resource expenditure without significant benefits over the required 2 inspections.
  • D: This option is incorrect since 4 inspections are excessive, likely causing inefficiencies and wasting time and resources while not adding substantial value compared to the minimum requirement.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its sufficiency in monitoring crop health effectively, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 2 is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 26
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What botanical name is given to the objectionable weed in wheat?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

The correct answer is B. Convolvulus arvensis

Convolvulus arvensis, commonly known as field bindweed, is recognized as a problematic weed in wheat cultivation. It competes with wheat for nutrients, water, and light, adversely affecting crop yield and quality. Identifying and managing this weed is crucial for maintaining healthy wheat production.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because Oryza sativa var fatua refers to wild rice, which is not a weed associated with wheat crops.
  • C: This option is incorrect since Helianthus spp. includes sunflowers, which do not typically interfere with wheat growth.
  • D: This option is incorrect as Abelmoschus spp. refers to okra, a cultivated plant, rather than a weed in wheat fields.

Conclusion:

The B option, Convolvulus arvensis, is the most accurate choice as it specifically identifies a weed that negatively impacts wheat crops, distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, Convolvulus arvensis is the correct answer.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 27
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What is the minimum pure seed percentage required for Certified class of Hybrid Sunflower seeds?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

The correct answer is C. 98.00%

For Certified class Hybrid Sunflower seeds, the minimum requirement for pure seed percentage is set at 98.00%. This standard ensures high quality and purity in the seeds, which is essential for optimal growth and yield in sunflower cultivation.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a minimum of 95.00% pure seed is insufficient for the Certified class, which mandates higher purity to maintain seed quality.
  • B: This option is incorrect as 96.00% does not meet the established standard for Certified class Hybrid Sunflower seeds, which requires at least 98.00% purity.
  • D: This option is incorrect because while 99.00% is a high standard, it exceeds the minimum requirement of 98.00% for Certified class seeds.

Conclusion:

The C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its alignment with the minimum purity requirement for Certified class Hybrid Sunflower seeds, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 98.00% is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 28
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What is the maximum moisture content allowed for Certified Sunflower seeds in vapour-proof containers?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

The correct answer is B. 7.00%

The permissible maximum moisture content for Certified Sunflower seeds stored in vapour-proof containers is set at 7.0%. This regulation ensures that the seeds remain viable and do not deteriorate due to excess moisture, which can lead to mold growth and spoilage. Maintaining this moisture level is crucial for preserving seed quality during storage.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a maximum moisture content of 5.00% is too low for Certified Sunflower seeds, potentially compromising their quality and viability.
  • C: This option is incorrect as 9.00% exceeds the regulated limit, which could lead to increased risks of spoilage and reduced seed quality.
  • D: This option is incorrect since a maximum moisture content of 10.00% is significantly higher than the acceptable limit, posing a serious risk to the integrity of the seeds during storage.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its compliance with established storage guidelines, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 7.00% is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 29
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Which cleaning and grading equipment is specifically designed to remove badly damaged, deteriorated, insect-damaged crop seed and stones from good seeds?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

The correct answer is A. Gravity separator or Destoner

The gravity separator, also known as a destoner, effectively utilizes density differences to separate damaged or inferior crop seeds from healthy ones. This equipment is crucial in ensuring that only quality seeds are processed, as it can remove not just stones but also seeds that are badly damaged or infested by insects, thereby enhancing the overall quality of the seed batch.

Details on Other Options:

  • B: This option is incorrect because a roll mill is primarily used for grinding and crushing grains rather than for separating damaged seeds from good ones.
  • C: This option is incorrect as a magnetic separator is designed to remove metallic impurities from seeds, not to differentiate between damaged and healthy seeds.
  • D: This option is incorrect since an air-screen cleaner cum grader is used for cleaning seeds based on size and weight, but it is not specifically designed to remove badly damaged seeds or stones.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specific function in effectively removing damaged seeds and stones, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Gravity separator or Destoner is the correct choice.

ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 30
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Which type of sieve is used for grading paddy?
Detailed Solution for ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

The correct answer is B. Oblong sieve

An oblong sieve is specifically designed for grading paddy, allowing for effective separation of seeds according to their size and shape. This type of sieve ensures that the grains are sorted accurately, which is essential for quality control in agricultural processing.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because a round sieve is not optimal for grading paddy, as it does not provide the necessary shape for effective separation of different sizes of grains.
  • C: This option is incorrect since a square sieve is also not tailored for grading paddy, which requires a design that accommodates elongated grains for better sorting.
  • D: This option is incorrect as a hexagonal sieve does not serve the purpose of grading paddy effectively, since its shape is not suited for the specific requirements of paddy grading.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its design that is tailored for grading paddy, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Oblong sieve is the correct choice.

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