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PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Insurance Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test PFRDA Assistant Manager Mock Test Series 2025 - PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1)

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PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 1

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court on Tuesday asked the Union government whether it is giving the over 40 lakh people, excluded from the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Assam, a “second chance” to gain citizenship by allowing them to produce fresh documents to prove their Indian legacy.

The court was referring to the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) proposed by the government, which allows a claimant for Indian citizenship to “change his legacy” by submitting additional documents at the ‘claims and objections’ stage. The court asked whether this would amount to “re-doing the claims” of those left out from the draft NRC published on July 30.

A Bench of Justices Ranjan Gogoi and Rohinton Nariman on Tuesday said allowing a claimant to change his legacy would amount to “tinkering with the family tree” and re-doing the verification process.

“You see, a claimant submits documents to prove his legacy from his father. A family tree is drawn, which includes the claimant’s siblings, etc. The authorities verify his claim with each one of the member in the family tree before deciding his claim [for citizenship]. Now, your SOP says that a person can submit fresh documents claiming to prove his legacy from his grandfather. Now, the family tree has to be recreated. Everything has to be re-verified. This amounts to redoing the entire exercise. Why?”, Justice Gogoi asked Attorney General K.K. Venugopal.

Besides, the Bench pointed out, the government, in the beginning, had specified that documents on legacy would be allowed to be filed only once. Now, it has changed tack to permit additional documents to be filed. “Are you not contradicting yourself here?” Justice Gogoi asked Mr. Venugopal.

The court directed Assam State NRC Coordinator Prateek Hajela to file a report on the ramifications of the government's proposal to submit fresh documents. Mr. Hajela has to file his report before September 5, the next date of hearing.

Meanwhile, the court deferred the receipt of claims and objections to a later date. This stage was supposed to start within the next days, on August 30, and would have continued till October 28.

“Allowing a person to suddenly pull out an additional document, that too at the 'claims and objections' stage, will upset the search apple cart,” Justice Nariman observed.

Mr. Venugopal countered that the government is giving “another chance to people who risk losing all their rights”.

To this, Justice Nariman agreed that the court was dealing with “human problems of a huge magnitude”.

“Consequences are so severe that should they be given one more chance. Suppose a claimant has misfired once but can deliver in the next. Why should such a person not be given another chance?” Justice Nariman asked Mr. Hajela, stakeholders and petitioners in the litigation.

To this, Mr. Hajela said reopening of family trees would risk the possibility of “trading of legacies or meeting of minds”. "Giving a second chance would only open trading in legacies. There may be people who are willing to sell the legacies to others,” he said.

The Supreme Court further asked Mr. Hajela to submit a report with a time-frame to carry out the sample re-verification of at least 10 per cent of the names included in the final draft NRC. This is after Mr. Hajela placed before the Bench a district-wise data of the percentage of the population who have been excluded from the final draft NRC.

Q. Which among the following is a possible consequence of the new standard operating procedure adopted by the Government regarding the National Register of Citizens?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 1

Refer to, “To this, Mr. Hajela said reopening of family trees would risk the possibility of “trading of legacies or meeting of minds”. "Giving a second chance would only open trading in legacies. There may be people who are willing to sell the legacies to others,” he said.”

According to the person responsible for the whole exercise in Assam, this new SOP will open the can of worms and there will be widespread corruption in the whole exercise. The citizens will file forged documents and they will try to manipulate the legacies from the actual ones thereby the making the whole exercise futile.

Among the given options, all are out of context alternatives except for option D and E. Now for option E, it is true that the government may have to redo the whole exercise but nowhere in the passage it is mentioned that it will incur double expenses and double manpower and hence, this part is not correct according to the passage.

This makes option D the correct choice among the given options.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 2

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court on Tuesday asked the Union government whether it is giving the over 40 lakh people, excluded from the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Assam, a “second chance” to gain citizenship by allowing them to produce fresh documents to prove their Indian legacy.

The court was referring to the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) proposed by the government, which allows a claimant for Indian citizenship to “change his legacy” by submitting additional documents at the ‘claims and objections’ stage. The court asked whether this would amount to “re-doing the claims” of those left out from the draft NRC published on July 30.

A Bench of Justices Ranjan Gogoi and Rohinton Nariman on Tuesday said allowing a claimant to change his legacy would amount to “tinkering with the family tree” and re-doing the verification process.

“You see, a claimant submits documents to prove his legacy from his father. A family tree is drawn, which includes the claimant’s siblings, etc. The authorities verify his claim with each one of the member in the family tree before deciding his claim [for citizenship]. Now, your SOP says that a person can submit fresh documents claiming to prove his legacy from his grandfather. Now, the family tree has to be recreated. Everything has to be re-verified. This amounts to redoing the entire exercise. Why?”, Justice Gogoi asked Attorney General K.K. Venugopal.

Besides, the Bench pointed out, the government, in the beginning, had specified that documents on legacy would be allowed to be filed only once. Now, it has changed tack to permit additional documents to be filed. “Are you not contradicting yourself here?” Justice Gogoi asked Mr. Venugopal.

The court directed Assam State NRC Coordinator Prateek Hajela to file a report on the ramifications of the government's proposal to submit fresh documents. Mr. Hajela has to file his report before September 5, the next date of hearing.

Meanwhile, the court deferred the receipt of claims and objections to a later date. This stage was supposed to start within the next days, on August 30, and would have continued till October 28.

“Allowing a person to suddenly pull out an additional document, that too at the 'claims and objections' stage, will upset the search apple cart,” Justice Nariman observed.

Mr. Venugopal countered that the government is giving “another chance to people who risk losing all their rights”.

To this, Justice Nariman agreed that the court was dealing with “human problems of a huge magnitude”.

“Consequences are so severe that should they be given one more chance. Suppose a claimant has misfired once but can deliver in the next. Why should such a person not be given another chance?” Justice Nariman asked Mr. Hajela, stakeholders and petitioners in the litigation.

To this, Mr. Hajela said reopening of family trees would risk the possibility of “trading of legacies or meeting of minds”. "Giving a second chance would only open trading in legacies. There may be people who are willing to sell the legacies to others,” he said.

The Supreme Court further asked Mr. Hajela to submit a report with a time-frame to carry out the sample re-verification of at least 10 per cent of the names included in the final draft NRC. This is after Mr. Hajela placed before the Bench a district-wise data of the percentage of the population who have been excluded from the final draft NRC.

Q. Which among the following is true regarding the view of the Supreme Court regarding the Standard Operating Procedure announced by the government?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 2

Refer to, “The Supreme Court on Tuesday asked the Union government whether it is giving the over 40 lakh people, excluded from the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Assam, a “second chance” to gain citizenship by allowing them to produce fresh documents to prove their Indian legacy.”

In the above lines it is very clear that the Supreme Court has questioned the Union Government regarding its move to give second chance to the citizens to be included in the National Register of Citizens. The whole passage talks about the displeasure of the Supreme Court regarding the new move by the government.

Among the given options, A is completely out of context since nothing of that sort has been referred to in the passage whereas B is irrelevant since it is also not there in the passage. C is also not correct as there is no reference in the passage regarding the SC giving directions to the High Court to take action in the matter. Option D implies the reaction of the apex court in the rightful manner.

This makes option D the correct choice among the given options.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 3

Direction: In the questions given below a sentence is given with two blanks in each. Corresponding to each question two columns are given with three words in each column. Which combination of words from the two columns will perfectly fit into the blanks to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful? 

The protests in Guwahati were the most intense so far and some of the infrastructure being built for the ____________ between PM Abe and PM Modi were ____________ and burnt by the protesters. 

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 3

Only ‘summit’ makes proper sense in the 1st blank. Similarly, only ‘dismantled’ makes proper sense in the 2nd blank.

The other words are preposterous.

Hence, option A is the correct answer. 

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 4

Direction: Each question below has one blank, which is indicating that something has been omitted. Find out which option can be used to fill up the blank in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete. 

The tax department has been stepping up its _____________ of your financial activities and it has also been making compliance easy. 

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 4

It is clear from the given context that we are talking about the efforts of the Income Tax Department to keep a tab on the financial transactions of the taxpayers and also it is making the compliance portion by the taxpayers easier. It is because of the fact that there is no tax evasion by the people of the country. Coming to the given words, we can only use the word monitoring to indicate the intended implication of the given sentence. Other words cannot imply the correct meaning of the given sentence and they should be eliminated from consideration.  

This makes Option D the correct choice among the given options. 

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 5

Directions: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a letter. Find the suitable word from the options given against each letter and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
The chess world was _____(A)_____ in late 2022 when Magnus Carlsen, the current world champion, accused Hans Niemann, a 19-year-old US chess grandmaster, of cheating using a chess-playing artificial intelligence (AI) system. Niemann had defeated Carlsen, prompting Carlsen’s _____(B)_____; Niemann asserted that he had played Carlsen fairly even though he later admitted to having cheated twice in online chess games, at the ages of 12 and 16.

A month later, a 72-page investigation report drafted by Chess.com _____(C)_____ that Niemann had “likely cheated” more than a hundred times while playing online chess. But the report also said, “There is no direct _____(D)_____ that proves Hans cheated at the September 4, 2022, game with Magnus.”

Cheating in chess has become a major problem, especially in the online era. Among the more-than 500,000 accounts that Chess.com has _____(E)_____ for cheating, more than 500 belonged to titled players (titling is a mark of skill). By the beginning of 2024, the site expects to close more than a million accounts.

Q. Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank (B).

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 5

The passage is about Carlsen accusing Niemann of cheating and hence, the correct word will be ‘accusation’.

Accusation (noun): a charge or claim that someone has done something illegal or wrong.

Emancipation (noun): the fact or process of being set free from legal, social, or political restrictions.

Surface (noun): the outside part or uppermost layer of something.

Retreat (noun): an act of changing one's mind or plans as a result of criticism or difficulty.

Storm (noun): a violent disturbance of the atmosphere with strong winds and usually rain, thunder, lightning, or snow.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 6

Directions: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a letter. Find the suitable word from the options given against each letter and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
The chess world was _____(A)_____ in late 2022 when Magnus Carlsen, the current world champion, accused Hans Niemann, a 19-year-old US chess grandmaster, of cheating using a chess-playing artificial intelligence (AI) system. Niemann had defeated Carlsen, prompting Carlsen’s _____(B)_____; Niemann asserted that he had played Carlsen fairly even though he later admitted to having cheated twice in online chess games, at the ages of 12 and 16.

A month later, a 72-page investigation report drafted by Chess.com _____(C)_____ that Niemann had “likely cheated” more than a hundred times while playing online chess. But the report also said, “There is no direct _____(D)_____ that proves Hans cheated at the September 4, 2022, game with Magnus.”

Cheating in chess has become a major problem, especially in the online era. Among the more-than 500,000 accounts that Chess.com has _____(E)_____ for cheating, more than 500 belonged to titled players (titling is a mark of skill). By the beginning of 2024, the site expects to close more than a million accounts.

Q. Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank (D).

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 6

The sentence talks about some proof which establishes that Hans cheated at a particular game. The most suitable word here will be ‘evidence’.

Crane (noun): a large, tall machine used for moving heavy objects by suspending them from a projecting arm or beam.

Evidence (noun): the available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition is true or valid.

Shadow (noun): a dark area or shape produced by a body coming between rays of light and a surface.

Sense (noun): a faculty by which the body perceives an external stimulus

Finch (noun): a seed-eating songbird that typically has a stout bill and colourful plumage.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 7

Directions: Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given beside.
A. Such was the respect she garnered for her medal-winning exploits at the Asian level.

B. Additionally, it busts the patriarchy inherent in many sports hierarchies across India.

C. After she retired from track-and-field, she evolved as a coach, groomed fresh talent and kept an eye on the grassroots.

D. Decades ago, when P.T. Usha travelled by the Madras-Mangalore Mail, her employers, the Railways, permitted an unscheduled stop at her hometown Payyoli in North Kerala.

E. Her latest appointment as president of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) comes with a surfeit of goodwill.

Which of the following will be the FIRST statement after the rearrangement of sentences?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 7

The correct sequence of the sentences will be: DACEB

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Common Explanation:

The passage is about PT Usha becoming the president of Indian Olympic Association. The passage also talks about the respect and glory she enjoyed after she won medals at the Asian level. The first statement will be statement D which mentions an incident that happened years ago when PT Usha was travelling by Madras-Mangalore Mail and the train stopped at her hometown just for her. The next statement will be statement A which mentions that she earned huge respect due to her wins at the Asian level. Statement C will be the next statement and it mentions that when PT Usha retired from sports, she became a coach and trained young talent.

The next statements bring the passage to the present and mention that her latest appointment as the president of IOA comes as a goodwill. Statement B complements this when it mentions that this appointment busts the patriarchy in sports hierarchies in India.

The correct sequence of the sentences will be: DACEB

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 8

I have / two sister-in-laws / whose husbands / are all well settled.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 8

Change, sister-in-laws → sisters-in-law.

Plural of such compound words is formed by adding 's' in the first constituent of the compound word.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 9

Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions

The following table shows the number of branches of different banks in various states

Total branches in the particular states = sum of the branches of all the bank’s branches in that state.

If the number of branches of SBI in West Bengal is 580, then find the difference between no. of branches in SBI and Canara bank from West Bengal.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 9
Let, number of branches of Indian bank in Manipur be ‘x’

Average of all the banks in Manipur = 650

(575 + 800 + x + 725)/(4 ) = 650

x = 500

Let , Number of branches of SBI in West Bengal be ‘y’, number of branches of canara bank in West Bengal be ‘z’

Average of all the branches in West Bengal = 600

(y + 640 + 780 + z)/4 = 600

y + z = 980

z = 980 - y

Similarly all the missing values can be calculated and the results are tabulated.

It is given that,

Number of branches of SBI in West Bengal y = 580

Therefore, number of branches of canara in West Bengal (980-y) = 400

Required difference = 580 – 400 = 180

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 10

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given question.

Number of students who appeared in SSC examination from five schools over the year

What is the ratio of the total number of students who appeared in 2004 and 2005 together from school C to that of those who appeared from school D?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 10
Students who appeared in 2004 and 2005 from school C = 820 + 860 = 1680

Students who appeared in 2004 and 2005 from school D = 800 + 780 = 1580

Required ratio =

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 11

What approximate values come in place of (?) in the following questions? You are not expected to calculate the exact value.

236.60 + 247.90 - (?)² = - (31.87% of 599)

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 11
236.60 + 247.90 - (?)² = - (31.87% of 599)

237 + 248 - (?)² = - (32% of 600)

485 + 192 = (?)²

677 = (?)²

? = 26

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 12

Directions: The question below is followed by three statements labelled I, II and III. You have to consider the information in all the three statements and decide which of the statements is/are necessary to answer the question. Indicate your answer accordingly.

What is the monthly income of Mr. X?

I. Mr. X spends 85% of his monthly income on various items and the remaining amount is saved.

II. Monthly savings of Mr. X are Rs. 4500.

III. Out of the total money spent by Mr. X in a month, one-fifth is spent on food and the remaining amount of Rs. 20,400 on other items.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 12
Let monthly income of Mr. X = Rs. M

From I:

Expenditure = 0.85 M

Saving = 0.15 M

From II:

Saving = Rs. 4500

From I and II:

Therefore, 0.15 M = Rs. 4500

M = Rs. 30,000

Now, from III:

(1/5) of total expenditure = expenditure on food

From I and III:

Expenditure on food = 0.17 M

Remaining expenditure = 0.85 M - 0.17 M = 0.68 M

Now, remaining expenditure = Rs. 20,400 (given)

0.68 M = Rs. 20,400

M = Rs. 30,000

Hence, either I and II or I and III.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 13

Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions

The following table shows the number of branches of different banks in various states

Total branches in the particular states = sum of the branches of all the bank’s branches in that state.

Find the ratio of number of branches in BOI from Punjab to the number of branches in canara bank from J&K.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 13
Let, number of branches of Indian bank in Manipur be ‘x’

Average of all the banks in Manipur = 650

(575 + 800 + x + 725)/(4 ) = 650

x = 500

Let, Number of branches of SBI in West Bengal be ‘y’, number of branches of canara bank in West Bengal be ‘z’

Average of all the branches in West Bengal = 600

(y + 640 + 780 + z)/4 = 600

y + z = 980

z = 980 - y

Similarly all the missing values can be calculated and the results are tabulated.

From the table,

Number of branches of BOI from Punjab = 810

Number of branches of Canara from J&K = 625

Therefore, required ratio 810 : 625 i.e 162 : 125

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 14

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given question.

Number of students who appeared in SSC examination from five schools over the year

Number of students that appeared in 2006 from school A is what percentage of the total number of students that appeared from school A for all the years together?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 14
Students that appeared in 2006 from school A = 800.

Total number of students appearing in all 5 years from school A = 650 + 700 + 800 + 750 + 850 = 3750.

Percentage of students that appeared in 2006 as compared to the total students that appeared in all 5 years = 800/3750 x 100 = 21.33% =

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 15

Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions

The following table shows the number of branches of different banks in various states

Total branches in the particular states = sum of the branches of all the bank’s branches in that state.

Find the average (approx.) number of branches in BOI from all the states together.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 15
Let, number of branches of Indian bank in Manipur be ‘x’

Average of all the banks in Manipur = 650

(575 + 800 + x + 725)/(4 ) = 650

x = 500

Let , Number of branches of SBI in West Bengal be ‘y’, number of branches of canara bank in West Bengal be ‘z’

Average of all the branches in West Bengal = 600

(y + 640 + 780 + z)/4 = 600

y + z = 980

z = 980 - y

Similarly all the missing values can be calculated and the results are tabulated.

Total number of BOI from all the states together = 4870

Required average = 4870/6 = 812 (approx.)

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 16

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

A word arrangement machine when given an input rearranges them by following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps rearrangement.

STEP 5 is the last and final step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the following input.

What will be the difference between the numbers which are second from the right end and third from the left end in the final step of the given input?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 16

Step 1: If the corresponding number of the last letter of the word is odd, then interchange first and third letter and second and fourth letter, else interchange first and second letter and third and fourth letter.

Step 2:For the vowels, replace it with the immediate next letter in the English alphabetical series and place it at the end in reverse alphabetical order while the rest of the letters remain the same order.

Step 3:All the words are arranged in dictionary order from right to left.

Step 4: The letters with prime corresponding numbers are replaced by their second next letter in the English alphabetical series only once and then all the letters are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right within the words.

Step 5: Find the sum of the corresponding numbers of all the letters.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 17

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

In one fine morning, a person stands in the ground at point L such that the shadow of the person falls to his left. He walks for 3m straight to reach point T and turns to his right to walk for 6m to reach point Q. He then walks 4m to reach point M after taking a left turn. At point M, he takes a left turn to walk for 10m to reach point O from where he takes a right turn and walks 7m to reach point S. He then walks 8m to reach point R after taking a right turn and then walks 9m towards his right to reach point P. Finally he takes a left turn and walks for 5m to reach point N and stops.

In which of the following direction does the person starts the journey?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 17

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 18

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

Eight persons viz. O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are standing on a straight line such that some of them are facing north while some are facing south, but not necessarily in the same order. Not more than two adjacent persons face the same direction.

Q stands third from one of the ends and immediately adjacent to both U and V.S stands to the immediate right of V but faces opposite direction to V and four persons away from R who faces the same direction as V.Only one person stands between O and T who doesn’t sit adjacent to S but faces the same direction as S. The immediate neighbours of O face the same direction but O doesn’t face north. The number of persons to the left of both P and U are the same.

How many persons stand between O and R?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 18

1. Q stands third from one of the ends and immediately adjacent to both U and V. S stands to the immediate right of V but faces opposite direction to V and four persons away from R who faces the same direction as V.

2. Only one person stands between O and T who doesn’t sit adjacent to S but faces the same direction as S. The immediate neighbours of O face the same direction but O doesn’t face north. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated because not more than two adjacent persons face the same direction.

3. The number of persons to the left of both P and U are the same. Hence, cases 2 and 3 get eliminated.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 19

If all the letters in the word “GENTRIFICATION” are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, then how many letters remain unchanged in their position?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 19
GENTRIFICATION

A C E F G III N N O R T T

Hence, option B is correct.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 20

Directions: Study the following information to answer the question.

Eight persons Rahul, Ravi, Ranjan, Raman, Rijwan, Rohit, Rajat and Raj are sitting around a circle. Some of them are facing the centre of the circle and the rest are facing outside. These persons belong to various cities viz. Chennai, Chandigarh, Jaipur, Udaipur, Kolkata, Lucknow, Delhi and Agra, but not necessarily in the same order.

Rahul is facing the centre and belongs to Delhi. Both the persons who belong to Chennai and Udaipur are not the immediate neighbours of Rahul. The person who belongs to Udaipur is the immediate neighbour of both the persons who are facing outside. Ranjan is facing the centre and sitting third to the left of Rajat. The person who is from Udaipur is facing the centre. The person who is from Kolkata is facing outside the circle and is an immediate neighbour of Rohit. Ravi is facing outside the circle and is the immediate neighbour of both Ranjan and Rijwan. The person who belongs to Chennai is facing outside and is an immediate neighbour of the person who is from Chandigarh. The person who is from Jaipur is facing outside and is second to the right of Rijwan. The person who is from Udaipur is sitting second to the left of Rahul. The person who is from Kolkata is sitting to the immediate left of the person who is from Udaipur. Ravi is from neither Kolkata nor Jaipur. None of the immediate neighbours of the persons who are from Kolkata and Jaipur is facing outside. Ranjan belongs to Agra and is an immediate neighbour of Rohit. Raman does not belong to Jaipur.

Find out the correct combination.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 20
Rahul is facing the centre and belongs to Delhi.

The person who is from Udaipur is sitting second to the left of Rahul.

The person who is from Udaipur is facing the centre.

The person who belongs to Udaipur is the immediate neighbour of both the persons who are facing outside.

The person who is from Kolkata is sitting to the immediate left of the person who is from Udaipur.

None of the immediate neighbours of the persons who are from Kolkata and Jaipur is facing outside.

The person who is from Kolkata is facing outside the circle and is an immediate neighbour of Rohit.

Ranjan belongs to Agra and is an immediate neighbour of Rohit.

Ranjan is facing the centre and sitting third to the left of Rajat.

Both the persons who belong to Chennai and Udaipur are not the immediate neighbours of Rahul.

The person who belongs to Chennai is facing outside and is an immediate neighbour of the person who is from Chandigarh.

Ravi is from neither Kolkata nor Jaipur.

Ravi is facing outside the circle and is the immediate neighbour of both Ranjan and Rijwan.

The person who is from Jaipur is facing outside and is second to the right of Rijwan.

Raman does not belong to Jaipur.

Rohit is from Lucknow, so option 4 is correct.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 21

Directions: Following question is followed by statements I and II. Answer the question using the following instructions.

Choose (A) if the question can be answered by using statement I alone, but not by using II alone.

Choose (B) if the question can be answered by using statement II alone, but not by using I alone.

Choose (C) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Choose (D) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but not by using any of the statements alone.

Choose (E) if the question cannot be answered by using both the statements together.

Out of three boys and two girls, a team of three needs to be formed. How many boys are there in the team?

I. For every girl, there must be two boys in the team.

II. The team must include at least one girl.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 21
Statement I

(a). Two boys and one girl ( As there can't be 1 boy)

(b). All three boys

Statement II:

(a) One girl and two boys

(b) Two girls and one boy

From Statement I and II both, it is clear that the team will have two boys and one girl.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 22

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

A word arrangement machine when given an input rearranges them by following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps rearrangement.

STEP 5 is the last and final step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the following input.

How many letters are there between the third letter of the second word from the left end and the second letter of the second word from the right end in step 4 according to the English alphabetical series?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 22

Step 1: If the corresponding number of the last letter of the word is odd, then interchange first and third letter and second and fourth letter, else interchange first and second letter and third and fourth letter.

Step 2:For the vowels, replace it with the immediate next letter in the English alphabetical series and place it at the end in reverse alphabetical order while the rest of the letters remain the same order.

Step 3:All the words are arranged in dictionary order from right to left.

Step 4: The letters with prime corresponding numbers are replaced by their second next letter in the English alphabetical series only once and then all the letters are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right within the words.

Step 5: Find the sum of the corresponding numbers of all the letters.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the lac insect and its role in pigment production:

1. The lac insect completes its life cycle through a hemimetabolous process including egg, nymph instars, pupa, and adult stages.

2. Laccaic acid, produced by the lac insect, requires an amino acid called tyrosine, which the insect obtains directly from the tree sap.

3. Kusumi and rangeeni are two prominent strains of lac insects found in India, and both are capable of producing commercial lac.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 23

1. Statement 1 is correct. The lac insect undergoes a hemimetabolous life cycle, which includes stages such as egg, nymph instars, pupa, and adult. This is consistent with the known developmental process of the lac insect.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. Although laccaic acid requires tyrosine for its synthesis, the lac insect does not obtain this amino acid directly from tree sap. Instead, the tyrosine necessary for the synthesis of laccaic acid is supplied by symbiotic fungi or bacteria residing within the insect, not from the sap itself.

3. Statement 3 is correct. Kusumi and rangeeni are indeed two prominent strains of lac insects in India, and both are capable of producing commercial lac. These strains are significant contributors to the lac production industry in India.

In conclusion, statements 1 and 3 are accurate while statement 2 is not, so the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding the Money and Capital market in India:

  1. Money markets are generally much safer than capital markets.
  2. Investment in the capital market requires a huge financial outlay to invest compared to the money market.
  3. Capital market generally yields a higher return for investors than the money markets. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 24

Money and Capital market in India

  • Capital market instruments are riskier both concerning returns and principal repayment.
  • Issuing companies may fail to perform as per projections and promoters may defraud investors.
  • On the other hand, the money market is generally much safer with a minimum risk of default. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • This is due to the shorter duration of investing and also to the financial soundness of the issuers, which primarily are the government, banks, and highly rated companies.
  • Investment in the capital market i.e., securities do not necessarily require a huge financial outlay. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The value of units of securities is generally low i.e., Rs 10, Rs 100. In the money market, transactions entail huge sums of money as the instruments are quite expensive. 
  • Investment in capital markets generally yields a higher return for investors than the money markets. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • The possibility of earnings is higher if the securities are held for a longer duration.
  • First, there is the scope of earning capital gains in equity shares.
  • Second, in the long run, the prosperity of a company is shared by shareholders by way of high dividends and bonus issues. 
PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 25

Which among the following is NOT a correct statement?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 25

Mutual fund:

  • A mutual fund is a company that pools money from many investors and invests the money in securities such as stocks, bonds, and short-term debt.
  • The combined holdings of the mutual fund are known as its portfolio. 
  • Mutual funds are regulated investment products offered to the public and available for daily trading. Mutual fund companies rely on economies of scale to generate profits.
  •  Mutual fund fees generally fall into two big buckets:
    • Annual fund operating expenses: Ongoing fees toward the cost of paying managers, accountants, legal fees, marketing, and the like.
    • Shareholder fees: Sales commissions and other one-time costs when you buy or sell mutual fund shares.

Hedge Funds:

  • Hedge funds are private investments that are only available to accredited investors.
  • Hedge funds are known for using higher risk investing strategies with the goal of achieving higher returns for their investors. 
  • Hedge funds are rarely accessible to the majority of investors; instead, hedge funds are geared toward accredited investors, as they need less SEC regulation than other funds.
  • An accredited investor is a person or a business entity who is allowed to deal in securities that may not be registered with financial authorities
  • Hedge funds are also notoriously less regulated than mutual funds and other investment vehicles.

Therefore, option 2 is NOT a correct statement.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 26

When was the Bombay stock exchange set-up?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 26
  • The history of the stock market in India goes back to the end of the eighteenth century when long-term negotiable securities were first issued.
  • In 1850 the Companies Act was introduced for the first time bringing with it the feature of limited liability and generating investor interest in corporate securities.
  • The first stock exchange in India was set-up in 1875 as The Native Share and Stock Brokers Association in Bombay. Today it is known as the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
  • This was followed by the development of exchanges in Ahmedabad (1894), Calcutta(1908) and Madras(1937).
  • Until the early 1990s, the Indian secondary market comprised regional stock exchanges with BSE heading the list.
  • After the reforms of 1991, the Indian secondary market acquired a three tier form. This consists of: Regional Stock Exchanges, National Stock Exchange (NSE), Over the Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI) 
PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 27

What is the minimum paid-up capital a bank must have to be eligible for inclusion in the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934's Second Schedule to attain Scheduled Banks’ status?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 27

Banks that are classified in Schedule II of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 are referred to as scheduled banks. To qualify as a scheduled bank, the bank's paid-up capital and raised funds must total at least Rs. 5 lakhs. These banks are eligible for low-interest RBI loans.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 28

Which of the following Company is the first to install a White Label ATM in India?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 28

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) first approved Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL) to open White Label ATMs in the country. It was released under the name 'Indicash.'

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 29

Which among the following is the tenure of the Treasury Bills issued by the Government of India?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 29

T-bills, or Treasury notes, have a maximum maturity of 364 days. As a result, they're classified as money market instruments (money market deals with funds with a maturity of less than one year). Treasury bills are currently available in three maturities: 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 30

Which of the following is type of Commercial Insurance Policy?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 10 (Paper 1) - Question 30

Major insurers offering commercial insurance in India include:

  • New India Assurance 
  • HDFC Ergo
  • Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Co. Ltd
  • Bharti AXA General Insurance Company Limited
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