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Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - HPSC (Haryana) MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Haryana Civil Services Mock Test Series - Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 for HPSC (Haryana) 2024 is part of Haryana Civil Services Mock Test Series preparation. The Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the HPSC (Haryana) exam syllabus.The Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for HPSC (Haryana) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 below.
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Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

With reference to the Article 356, consider the following statements:

1. The governor has the power to recommend the dismissal of the state government.

2. The President’s proclamation has to be ratified by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 1
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution provides for President’s rule in any State. This provision is to be applied, when a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution. It results in the takeover of the State government by the Union government.

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor has certain powers to recommend dismissal of the State government and the dissolution of the Assembly. Besides, even in normal circumstances, the Governor has the power to reserve a bill passed by the State legislature, for the assent of the President. This gives the central government an opportunity to delay the State legislation and also to examine such bills and veto them completely.

Statement 2 is correct. The President’s proclamation has to be ratified by the Parliament. President’s rule can be extended till three years beyond which a Constitutional Amendment is needed for the emergency to continue.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Which of the following functions are served by the Constitution of India?

  1. It serves as guide to the state to institute laws and policies to reduce poverty.

  2. It provides a set of basic rules for coordination amongst members of a society.

  3. It helps judiciary to decide the legality of the laws framed by the legislatures.

  4. It helps in ensuring that people with good morals and values reach to power.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 2
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India has a section called Directive Principles of State Policy. It is to ensure greater social and economic reforms, and to serve as a guide to the independent Indian State to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses.

Statement 2 is correct: The constitution provides set of basic rules that allows for minimal degree of coordination among the member of the society. Any law is made keeping in mind the bare minimum of order that is needed.

Rest, it depends on the members of the society on how they relate to others and live in a harmonical manner.

Statement 3 is correct: Any law framed by the legislature must adhere to the fundamental law of land i.e., constitution. In case it is violative of any part of the constitution, judiciary can declare the law as null and void.

Thus, the constitution helps judiciary to decide the legality of the laws.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The constitution provides only the sets and procedures on how the citizens are to be governed. Who governs them is the responsibility of the society. Constitution doesn’t deal with the personal values of the elected individuals. It is dealt by constitutional morality. As B R Ambedkar has said, A constitution is as good as those who are executing it.

Knowledge Base:

Functions of the Constitution:

  1. to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.

  2. to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted.

  3. to set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them.

  4. to enable the government to fulfil the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission:

  1. It is mandatory to have a serving or retired judge as a member of the Commission.

  2. It is a statutory body formed every 5 years on the recommendation of the President.

  3. It is considered as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Option (c) is the correct answer.

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body, that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states, and among the states as per the constitutional arrangement and present requirements. Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President of India is required to constitute a Finance Commission at an interval of five years or earlier.

Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. Parliament may by law determine the qualifications of the members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. Therefore there is no express provision of members being either from judiciary or from the government.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a constitutional body directly established under Article 338 of the constitution.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Finance Commissions (FCs) play a crucial role in shaping the fiscal federalism and development trajectory of India. They make recommendations on how to distribute the financial resources between the Union and the states, as well as among the states, for a period of five years.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Article 19:

  1. Right to form cooperative societies under article 19 is added by way of the constitutional amendment.

  2. Rights under this article are not available to legal persons like companies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 4
  • Article 19 guarantees to all citizens the six rights. These are:

    • Right to freedom of speech and expression.

    • Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.

    • Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.

    • Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.

    • Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

    • Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business.

  • The 97th amendment to the Constitution inserts Cooperative Societies into Article 19(1)(c) by recognizing the right of the people to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • These six rights are protected against only state action and not private individuals. Moreover, these rights are available only to the citizens and to shareholders of a company but not to foreigners or legal persons like companies or corporations, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Which of the following provisions reflect federalism with a strong Central Government?

  1. Power of Parliament to form a new State by uniting two or more states.

  2. The Constitutional emergency provisions.

  3. Financial powers and responsibilities of the Central Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 5
Federalism with a strong Central Government: -

Federal Government means establishing dual government with clear separation of power. However in India a strong centre is provided by giving more sets of power to the centre as compared to the states.

Statement 1 is correct. The Parliament is empowered to ‘form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States’. It can also alter the boundary of any State or even its name. The Constitution provides for some safeguards by way of securing the view of the concerned State legislature.

Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution has certain very powerful emergency provisions, which can turn our federal polity into a highly centralized system once emergency is declared. During an emergency, power becomes lawfully centralized. Parliament also assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States.

Statement 3 is correct. Even during normal circumstances, the central government has very effective financial powers and responsibilities. In the first place, items generating revenue are under the control of the central government. Thus, the central government has many revenue sources and the States are mostly dependent on the grants and financial assistance from the centre.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 6
  • The word democracy comes from the Greek word "demos", meaning people, and "kratos" meaning power; so, democracy can be thought of as "power of the people": a way of governing which depends on the will of the people.

  • The most obvious ways to participate in government are to vote, or to stand for office and become a representative of the people. Democracy, however, is about far more than just voting, and there are numerous other ways of engaging with politics and government. The effective functioning of democracy, in fact, depends on ordinary people using these other means as much as possible. The take-off point for a democracy is the idea of consent, i.e., the desire, approval and participation of people. It is the decision of people that creates a democratic government and decides about its functioning. So, since democracy requires voter’s decision making- hence intelligence and character of common people are called in.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Which of the following Acts gave recognition to the ‘portfolio system’?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 7
Option (a) is the correct answer.

The Portfolio System was introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this system, a member of the Viceroy’s Council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the department(s). The ‘portfolio system’ was given recognition by Indian Councils Act 1861.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding Election Commision of India (ECI):

  1. It is an independent body that conducts elections for all three tiers of the government.

  2. The constitution specifies the term of the members of the commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 8
Option (d) is the correct answer.

The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body established by the constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country.

Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Thus, the Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to both the Central government and the state governments.

Statement 1 is incorrect. It must be noted here that the election commission is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for the formation of separate State Election Commissions.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The constitution has provided many safeguards to ensure the independence of the commission however it falls short on some accounts. The Constitution does not provide the qualifications of the members and also does not specify the term of the members of the Commission.

The constitution also does not debar members of the commission from further appointment by the government.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

  1. The resolution for removal of Vice President can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.

  2. Unlike the President, there is no process of impeachment of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 9
Statement 1 is correct. The term of office of the Vice President is five years. The term may end earlier by resignation which should be addressed to the President. The term of the office of the Vice President may also be terminated earlier through the process of removal. The Vice President may be removed by a resolution by the members of the Rajya Sabha. Such a resolution for removal of Vice President can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.

Statement 2 is correct. To move such a resolution, a 14 days’ notice is to be given. Such a resolution, though passed by the Rajya Sabha only must be agreeable to the Lok Sabha. Unlike the President, there is no process of impeachment of the Vice President. Vice President is removed by a resolution passed by Rajya Sabha by effective majority (i.e. majority of all the then members of Rajya Sabha) and agreed by a simple majority in the

Lok Sabha.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Which of the following is essentially not a feature of a federal polity?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 10
Dual citizenship is not an essential feature of a federal polity. In some federal countries like India, there is single citizenship. Essential features of a federal polity:
  • Two set of polities- at the national level and at the regional level

  • Written constitution

  • Rigid constitution

  • Supremacy of Constitution

  • Independent judiciary

  • Bicameral legislature

  • Division of powers between the national and regional governments.

  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of Indian Constitution:

  1. It was amended for the first time by the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act.

  2. It is not considered as an integral part of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 11
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Preamble

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity— to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and the LIC of India case (1995), the Supreme Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

    The Twenty-fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971, curtailed the right to property, and permitted the acquisition of private property by the government for public use.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding the office of Attorney General of India (AG):

  1. The term of the office of AG is not fixed by the Constitution.

  2. The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.

  3. Remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 12
Option (c) is the correct answer.

The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.

Statement 1 is Correct - The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He holds office during the pleasure of the president

Statement 2 is Correct. - The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president.This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

Statement 3 is Correct - The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Judiciary has the power to penalize those who are found guilty of contempt of court.

  2. The salaries and allowances of the judges are subject to the approval of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 13
Statement 1 is correct. The actions and decisions of the judges are immune from personal criticisms. The judiciary has the power to penalize those who are found guilty of contempt of court. This authority of the court is seen as an effective protection to the judges from unfair criticism. Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of the judges except when the proceeding to remove a judge is being carried out. This gives the judiciary independence to adjudicate without fear of being criticized.

The offence of contempt of court is committed when a person either disobeys a court order (civil contempt), or when a person says or does anything that scandalizes, prejudices, or interferes with judicial proceedings and the administration of justice (criminal contempt).

Statement 2 is incorrect. The judiciary is not financially dependent on either the executive or legislature. The Constitution provides that the salaries and allowances of the judges are not subjected to the approval of the legislature.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Consider the following statements with reference to the Conditions of the Governor's office.

  1.  

    The office of governor of a state is an employment under the Central government.

  2.  

    The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Statement 1 is not correct: The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college as is the case with the president. He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. In a way, he is a nominee of the Central government. But, as held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.

Statement 2 is correct: The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit.

  • The Governor shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residences and shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such emoluments, allowances and privileges as are specified in the Second Schedule.

  • Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such proportion as the President may by order determine.

  • The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

With reference to the right to freedom of religion, consider the following statements:

  1. No person shall be compelled to pay any tax or fee for promotion of religion.

  2. Religious denominations have the right to acquire property as a fundamental right.

  3. Right to profess a religion is available to citizens only.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 15
Option (a) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 27 lays that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination. But it does not prohibit levying a fee as the purpose of a fee is for the secular administration of a religious denomination.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Article 26 states that every religious denomination has the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 25 gives all persons the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. All persons include foreigners as well.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

Consider the following statements about ‘Sanchi Stupa’:

1. The Stupa at Sanchi only has an upper Pradakshina Patha.

2. It has four beautifully decorated Toranas depicting various events from the life of Buddha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 16
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Stupa at Sanchi has an upper as well as lower Pradakshina Patha or circumambulatory path.

Statement 2 is incorrect. It has four beautifully decorated toranas depicting various events from the life of the Buddha and the Jatakas. About Sanchi Stupa: Narratives get more elaborated, however, the depiction of the dream episode remains very simple showing the reclining image of the queen and the elephant at the top. Carving techniques appear more advanced than Bharhut.

Symbols continue to be used representing the Buddha and the Manushi Buddhas or the past Buddhas (according to the textual tradition, there are twenty-four Buddhas but only the first one, Dipankar, and the last six are pictorially represented).

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Consider the following statements about the judicial reforms under William Bentinck:

1. He abolished the District Faujdari Courts and established 4 circuit courts at Calcutta, Dacca, Murshidabad and Patna.

2. Sadar Diwani Adalat and Sadar Nizamat Adalat were set up at Allahabad.

3. In the Supreme Court, English language replaced the use of vernacular languages.

Which of the statements given above is/are not Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 17
Option (c) is the correct answer Statement 1 is incorrect. Under William Bentinck, the four Circuit Courts were abolished and their functions transferred to collectors under the supervision of the commissioner of revenue and circuit. Statement 2 is correct. Sadar Diwani Adalat and a Sadar Nizamat Adalat were set up at Allahabad for the convenience of the people of Upper Provinces.

Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Supreme Court, the English language replaced Persian. KB) Under Cornwallis, The District Faujdari Courts were abolished and, instead, circuit courts were established at Calcutta, Dacca, Murshidabad and Patna. These circuit courts had European judges and were to act as courts of appeal for both civil and criminal cases.

Before reforms by William Bentinck, Persian was the official language in courts. Now, the suitor had the option to use Persian or a vernacular language, while in the Supreme Court, English language replaced Persian

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

With reference to Pre-Mauryan Period, consider the following statements:

  1. Village Headman was known as Grama Bhojaka.

  2. Use of Iron began in India from the times of the Indus Valley Civilization.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

1. Village Headman was known as Grama Bhojaka.

This statement is incorrect. During the Pre-Mauryan period, the village headman was known as Gramani or Gramabhojaka. The term Grama Bhojaka is more commonly associated with the Mauryan period and later.

2. Use of Iron began in India from the times of the Indus Valley Civilization.

This statement is also incorrect. The Indus Valley Civilization (also known as the Harappan Civilization) was predominantly a Bronze Age civilization. The use of iron in India began around 1500 BCE, during the later Vedic period, which is after the decline of the Indus Valley Civilization.

Therefore, none of the statements given are correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

With reference to the treaty of Allahabad in 1765, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Allahabad and Benaras were surrendered to Shah Alam II by Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula.

  2. Shah Alam – II agreed to pay Rs.50 lakh to company as war indemnity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 19
Option d is correct
  • Robert Clive concluded two important treaties at Allahabad in August 1765 - one with the Nawab of Awadh and the other with the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to surrender Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam II.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to pay Rs 50 lakh to the Company as war indemnity.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

With reference to Pre-Mauryan Period, consider the following statements:

  1. Village Headman was known as Grama Bhojaka.

  2. Use of Iron began in India from the times of the Indus Valley Civilization.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Statement 1 is correct. In the northern part of the country, the village headman was known as the grama bhojaka. The grama bhojaka was often the largest landowner. Generally, he had slaves and hired workers to cultivate the land. The post was hereditary as usually, men from the same family held the position for generations.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The use of iron began in the subcontinent around 3000 years ago. It was after the Indus Valley Civilization. In the prehistory of the Indian subcontinent, an "Iron Age" is recognized as succeeding the Late Harappan culture.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Which of the following policy measures were adopted by the British Government towards the Princely States after the revolt of 1857?

  1. Britishers to abandon the policy of annexing princely states.

  2. Britishers to stop interfering in day to day affairs of princely states.

  3. Princely States were to be completely subordinated to British Crown.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 21
  • Most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the latter in suppressing the Revolt. Moreover, the experience of the Revolt had convinced the British authorities that the princely states could serve as useful allies and supporters in case of popular opposition or revolt. The Revolt of 1857 led the British to reverse some aspects of their policy towards the Indian States.

  • Some of the relaxation announced by the British to the princely states were:

    • Before 1857, the British availed every opportunity to annex princely states. This policy was now abandoned. Hence statement 1 is correct.

    • The right of princes to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation.

  • On the other hand, some of the old policies were applied even after the revolt of 1857:

    • Princes were made to acknowledge Britain as the paramount power as the price of their continued existence. In 1876, Queen Victoria assumed the title of the Empress of India to emphasize British sovereignty over the entire Indian subcontinent. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    • British claimed the right to supervise the internal government of the princely states.

    • They not only interfered in the day-to-day administration through the Residents but insisted on appointing and dismissing ministers and other high officials. Sometimes the rulers themselves were removed or deprived of their powers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • Their perpetuation was only one aspect of the British policy towardé the princely state. Complete integration of princely states with British India was another aspect of the British policy towardé the princely states.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

With reference to the Battle of Haldighati, consider the following statements:

1. It was fought between Maharana Pratap and Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh.

2. Aftermath of the battle, Goganda, Udaipur, and Kumbhalgarh were all under Maharana Pratap’s control.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 22
Statement 1 is correct: It was fought in the year 1576 between Maharana Pratap and Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh of Amber (general of the Mughal emperor Akbar). Maharana Pratap bravely fought the war but eventually lost it. According to some mythological texts, Chetak who was Maharana Pratap’s loyal horse, also gave up his life when Maharana Pratap was leaving the battlefield. Maharana re-gathered his forces, fought and won against the Mughals after six years in 1582.

Statement 2 is not correct: After the battle, Maharana Pratap able to make a successful escape, the battle failed to break the deadlock between the two powers. Subsequently, Akbar led a sustained campaign against the Rana, and soon, Goganda, Udaipur, and Kumbhalgarh were all under Akbar’s control

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

With reference to modern Indian history, ‘sunset law’ is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 23
  • Option (a) is incorrect: Raleigh Commission: The Viceroy filled with imperialistic design was not in favor of giving any power to the Indians. He concluded the Indian Universities and the college were slowly becoming cradle of Propaganda against the Government. So, with an idea to bring the Universities under control, Lord Curzon appointed Raleigh Commission under Sir Thomas Raleigh.

  • Option (b) is incorrect: Mahalwari System: In Mahalwari system, all the properties of a Mahal were jointly and severally responsible, in their persons and property, for the sum assessed by the government on that Mahal. If the number of the proprietors was large, some of them were made representatives of all. The ownership and occupancy right was reserved for individual peasants. Even cultivation was to be done individually. But for the payment of the land revenue, the peasants were jointly responsible. Usually the village as a whole would be designated a Mahal and it paid the revenue via its headman called Lambardar. Thus, Lambardars worked as a link between the individual tillers and the government, but they were not given rights like those of Zamindars under permanent settlement.

  • Option (c) is correct: Permanent Settlement: In permanent settlement, fixed revenue demand would give zamindars a sense of security and, assured of returns on their investment, encourage them to improve their estates. Initial demands were very high. The revenue was invariable, regardless of the harvest, and had to be paid punctually. In fact, according to the Sunset Law, if payment did not come in by sunset of the specified date, the zamindari was liable to be auctioned.

  • Option (d) is incorrect: Macdonnell Commission: When the people were dying out of starvation and diseases, a MacDonnell Commission was appointed by Lord Curzon in 1901 which submitted its report in the same year. This commission came out with a “Moral Strategy”, distribution of advances and loans to the peasants and setting up a Famine Commissioner in the famine affected province.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding the presence of agricultural tracts within the fortified areas of the Vijayanagaraempire:

1. They helped to address the issue of food scarcity during sieges, which were aimed to starve the defenders to submission.

2. These agricultural tracts between the sacred centre and urban core of the fortified area were irrigated by an elaborate canal system drawing waterfromTungabhadra.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 24
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Fortifications were significant in Vijayanagara as it was to protect from outsiders and they were unique as they enclosed agricultural tracts.

Statement 1 is correct. Often, the objective of mediaeval sieges was to starve the defenders into submission. These sieges could last for several months and sometimes even years. Rulers tried to be prepared for such situations by building large granaries within fortified areas and agricultural tracts.The rulers of Vijayanagara adopted a more expensive and elaborate strategy of protecting the agricultural belt itself. A second line of fortification went round the inner core of the urban complex, and a third line surrounded the royal centre, within which each set of major buildings was surrounded by its own high walls.

Statement 2 is correct. Abdur Razzaq noted that between the first, second and third walls there were cultivated fields, gardens and houses. Domingo Paes observed that there was a great distance from the first circuit until the entrance of the city. There were fields for sowing rice, many gardens and a lot of water, in which water came from two lakes. Present-day archaeologists, who have also found evidence of an agricultural tract between the sacred centre and the urban core, have corroborated these statements. An elaborate canal system drawing water from the Tungabhadra serviced this tract.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

1. The Bengal gazette, started by James Augustus Hickey in 1780, was the first newspaper in the vernacular language in India.

2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak became the first Indian journalist to be imprisoned for his fight for freedom of press.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 25
Option (d) is the correct answer. Statement 1 is incorrect. James Augustus Hickey in 1780 started The Bengal Gazette or Calcutta General Advertiser, the first newspaper in India, which was an English language weekly newspaper. It was seized in 1872 because of its outspoken criticism of the Government.

Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1883, Surendranath Banerjea became the first Indian journalist to be imprisoned. In an angry editorial in The Bengalee Banerjea had criticised a judge

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding Pre-Historic India Stone tools were used for

  1. Digging the ground to collect edible roots

  2. Stitching clothes made out of animal skin

  3. Making spears and arrows for hunting

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 26
Option (d) is correct

Stone tools have been used for:

  • Digging the ground to collect edible roots.

  • Stitching clothes made out of animal skin.

  • Some of these stone tools were used to cut meat and bone, scrape bark (from trees) and hides (animal skins), chop fruit and roots.

  • Some may have been attached to handles of bone or wood, to make spears and arrows for hunting.

  • Other tools were used to chop wood, which was used as firewood. Wood was also used to make huts and tools.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

With reference to the policy of annexation by diplomacy and administrative mechanisms by British, which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Option c is correct

  • Policy of Ring Fence: It is followed by Warren Hastings, under which aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the Company’s frontiers. Broadly speaking, it was the policy of defence of their neighbours’ frontiers for safeguarding their own territories. This policy of Warren Hastings was reflected in his war against the Marathas and Mysore. NOT by Lord Hastings. Both are different.

  • Policy of Subsidiary Alliance: It is followed by Lord Wellesley, under which the allying Indian state’s ruler was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force within his territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance. Also, the Indian ruler had to agree to the posting of a British resident in his court. Under the system, the Indian ruler could not employ any European in his service without the prior approval of the British. Nor could he negotiate with any other Indian ruler without consulting the governor-general. In return for all this, the British would defend the ruler from his enemies and adopt a policy of non-interference in the internal matters of the allied state.

  • Policy of Doctrine of Lapse: It is followed by Lord Dalhousie, under which the adopted son could be the heir to his foster father’s private property, but not the state; it was for the paramount power (the British) to decide whether to bestow the state on the adopted son or to annex it.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding Pre-Historic India:

Stone tools were used for

  1. Digging the ground to collect edible roots

  2. Stitching clothes made out of animal skin

  3. Making spears and arrows for hunting

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Stone tools have been used for:

  1. Digging the ground to collect edible roots.

  2. Stitching clothes made out of animal skin.

  3. Some of these stone tools were used to cut meat and bone, scrape bark (from trees) and hides (animal skins), chop fruit and roots.

  4. Some may have been attached to handles of bone or wood, to make spears and arrows for hunting.

  5. Other tools were used to chop wood, which was used as firewood. Wood was also used to make huts and tools.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Consider the following statements about the Tebhaga movement:

  1. Share-croppers were demanding one-thirds of the produce from the land.

  2. The Floud Commission was set up to look into the demands of this movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 29
The Tebhaga movement was led by the sharecroppers of the Bengal region in 1946-47 against the Jotedars of the region. They were having huge shares of land and also exercised control over poor cultivators, local markets, money lending, etc. In rural villages, they were having more control than the Zamindars. The sharecroppers (also known as bhagadars) were responsible for the cultivation of large agricultural areas under the jotedars, who handed over half of the crop after the harvest to the jotedars.
  • Statement 1 is not correct: The share-croppers demand two-third of the produce from the land. There was huge participation of peasants from rural areas. North Bengal was the epicentre of the movement. The demands of sharecroppers were incorporated in the Bengal Bargadars Temporary Regulation Bill. At the request of the jotedars, the police suppressed the sharecroppers and the movement slowly disappeared by the end of March 1947.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: The demands were based on the recommendation of the Floud Commission also known as the Bengal Land Revenue Commission which recommended two-third share to the bargardars (sharecroppers).

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Shankaracharya?

1. Shankaracharya wrote the commentaries on the Upanishads and the Bhagavad Gita.

2. His philosophical views came to be known as Advaita Vedanta.

3. Shankaracharya expounded that ultimate reality is one, it being the Brahman.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 30
  • Shankaracharya wrote the commentaries on the Upanishads, Brahmasutras and the Bhagavad Gita.

  • Shankaracharya’s discourse or his philosophical views came to be known as Advaita Vedanta. Advaita literally means non-dualism or belief in one reality.

  • Shankaracharya expounded that ultimate reality is one, it being the Brahman.

  • According to the Vedanta philosophy, ‘Brahman is true, the world is false and self and Brahman is not different, Shankaracharya believed that the Brahman is existent,unchanging, the highest truth and the ultimate knowledge.

  • He also believed that there is no distinction between Brahman and self. The knowledge of Brahman is the essence of all things and the ultimate existence. Ramanuja was another well-known Advaita scholar.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 31

Which of the following are works of Rabindranath Tagore?

  1. Bhanusimha

  2. Manasi

  3. Geetanjali

  4. Kumarasambhava

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 31
Birth anniversary of India’s first Nobel Award winner Rabindranath Tagore was observed recently.

Rabindranath Tagore was born on 7 May 1861 to Debendranath Tagore and Sarada Devi in Kolkata (Calcutta).

  • He is popularly known as ‘Gurudev’.

  • He was primarily known as a writer, poet, playwright, philosopher and aesthetician, music composer, choreographer, and painter.

  • He was influenced by the classical poetry of Kalidasa and started writing his own classical poems.

  • He released his first collection of poems under the pen name ‘Bhanusimha’ at 16 years of age.

  • He published several books of poetry in the 1880s and completed Manasi (1890), a collection that marks the maturing of his genius.

  • He wrote the National Anthems of India and Bangladesh.

  • He wrote the song Banglar Mati Banglar Jol (Soil of Bengal, Water of Bengal) to unite the Bengali population after the Bengal partition in 1905.

  • He also wrote the famed ‘Amar Sonar Bangla' which helped ignite a feeling of nationalism amongst people.

  • In 1913, he became the first Indian to receive a Nobel Prize in Literature for his novel ‘Geetanjali.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 32

With reference to Sangam Age, consider the following statements:

1. First Sangam was held at Kapadapuram.

2. No literary work of this Second Sangam is available.

3. History of the Sangam age is reconstructed from literary works of the Third Sangam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 32
Recently, TamilNadu has sent soil samples for a project relating to the new Parliament building.

Statement 1 is not correct: According to Tamil legends, there were three Sangams held in ancient South India popularly called Muchchangam. The first Sangam is believed to be held at Madurai, attended by gods and legendary sages. No literary work of this Sangam is available.

Statement 2 is not correct: The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram, only Tolkappiyam survived this. Statement 3 is correct: The third Sangam was also held at Madurai. A few of these Tamil literary works have survived and are useful sources to reconstruct the history of the Sangam period

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 33

Which of the following sets of pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 33
Option (a) is the correct answer. Many newspapers emerged during the late 19th century under distinguished and fearless journalists. These included The Hindu and Swadesamitran under G. Subramaniya Aiyar, The Bengalee under Surendranath Banerjea, Voice of India under Dadabhai Naoroji, Amrita Bazar Patrika under Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh, Indian Mirror under N.N. Sen, Kesari (in Marathi) and Maharatta (in English) under Balgangadhar Tilak, Sudharak under Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Hindustan and Advocate under G.P. Verma. Other main newspapers included Tribune and Akbar-i-am in Punjab, Gujarati, Indu Prakash, Dhyan Prakash and Kal in Bombay.
Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 34

Which of the following are accounted for in the Current Account of 'Balance of Payment' in India?

  1. Exports

  2. Private Transfers

  3. Net Commercial Borrowings

  4. Foreign Direct Investment

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 34
  • The balance of payments (BoP) records the transactions in goods, services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of the world. There are two main accounts in the BoP – the current account and the capital account. The current account records exports and imports in goods and services and transfer payments.

  • Trade-in services are denoted as invisible trade (because they are not seen to cross national borders). Services trade includes both factor and non-factor income. Factor income includes net international earnings on factors of production (like labor, land, and capital). Non-factor income is the net sale of service products like shipping, banking, tourism, software services, etc.

  • Transfer payments are receipts which the residents of a country receive ‘for free’, without having to make any present or future payments in return. They consist of remittances, gifts and grants. They could be official or private. The balance of exports and imports of goods is referred to as the trade balance. Adding trade in services and net transfers to the trade balance, we get the current account balance. The capital account records all international purchases and sales of assets such as money, stocks, bonds, etc.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 35

Consider the following statements about the Livestock Census:

  1. It has been conducted in the country once every 5 years, since 1919-20.

  2. It covers all domesticated animals and their headcounts.

  3. It is conducted by the Union Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 35
  • The Livestock Census started in the country in the year 1919. It is being conducted once in 5 years. So far, 20 livestock censuses have been conducted. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Livestock Census is a complete count of the livestock and poultry at a pre-defined reference point of time. Similar to population census, primary workers are engaged to undertake house to house enumeration and ascertain the number, age, sex, etc., of livestock/poultry possessed by every household/household enterprise / non-household / non-household enterprises and institutions in rural & urban areas of the country.

  • The census usually covers all domesticated animals and headcounts of these animals are taken. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • It is conducted by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying in participation with all State Governments and UT Administrations. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • The 20th Livestock Census was launched during the month of October 2018. The enumeration was done in both rural and urban areas. Various types of animals (cattle, buffalo, mithun, yak, sheep, goat, pig, horse, pony, mule, donkey, camel, dog, rabbit, and elephant)/poultry birds (fowl, duck, and other poultry birds) possessed by the households, household enterprises/non-household enterprises were counted at that site. Another important feature of the 20th Livestock Census is it has been designed to capture a Breed-wise number of animals and poultry birds.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 36

Which of the following instruments of Monetary Policy Transmission are available with the Reserve Bank of India?

1. Open Market Operations

2. Varying of Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio

3. Sterilization by buying and selling of foreigncurrency in the exchange market.

4. Moral suasion

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 36
  • The most important role of RBI is as the controller of money supply and credit creation in the economy. RBI is the independent authority for conducting monetary policy in the best interests of the economy.

The instruments that the RBI uses for conducting monetary policy are as follows:

(1) Statement 1 is correct. Open Market Operations (OMO) - RBI purchases (or sells) government securities to the general public in a bid to increase (or decrease) the stock of high-powered

money in the economy.

(2) Statement 2 is correct. Varying Reserve Requirements - CRR and SLR also works through the Reserve Deposit Ratio route. A high (or low) value of CRR or SLR increases (or decreases) the

value of reserve deposit ratio, thus diminishing (or increasing) the value of money multiplier

and money supply in the economy in a similar fashion.

(3) Repo Rate - The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).

(4) Statement 4 is correct. Moral Suasion can be undertaken by RBI to persuade commercial banksto follow the monetary policy directives given by the Monetary Policy Committee.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. Sterilization is one of the important functions of RBI where it sterilizes the economy against adverse external shocks. However, it is not an instrument of monetary policy transmission.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 37

Baba Kalyani committee is related to:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 37
The Baba Kalyani led committee constituted by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry to study the existing SEZ policy of India. The key recommendations of the Group include promotion of MSME investments in SEZs by linking with MSME Schemes of the Government, development planning and regulations to promote Integrated industrial and urban development, allowing alternate sectors to invest in sector specific SEZs, additional enablers and procedural relaxations and infrastructure status to improve access to finance and enable long term borrowing.
Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 38

Consider the following statements with reference to inflation:

  1. Inflation reduces the purchasing power of the currency.

  2. Producers are worst affected by inflation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 38
  • Inflation is a quantitative measure of the rate at which the average price level of a basket of selected goods and services in an economy increases over some period of time.

  • All else being equal, inflation decreases the amount of goods or services you would be able to purchase. Inflation reduces the value of a currency's purchasing power, having the effect of an increase in prices.

  • Consumers are worst affected by rise in prices or inflation. Consumers will have to pay more for the rising cost of products due to the declining purchasing power of the currency. Increase in spending due to inflation would also eat into the savings of the poor and middle-income group. Thus poor and middle-income group are worst affected by the rise in the price level. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Most commonly used inflation indexes are the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).

  • Deflation is a general decline in prices for goods and services, typically associated with a contraction in the supply of money and credit in the economy. During deflation, the purchasing power of currency rises over time. Producers are worst affected by fall in prices or deflation. Their profit level falls due to fall in prices forcing them to reduce investment. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 39

Consider the following statements with reference to Agriculture sector during 1950-1990:

  1. Indian agricultural productivity had increased during this period.

  2. The proportion of GDP contributed by agriculture increased significantly.

  3. The proportion of the population working/depending on agriculture declined significantly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 39
  • At independence, about 75 per cent of the country’s population was dependent on agriculture. Productivity in the agricultural sector was very low because of the use of old technology and the absence of required infrastructure for the vast majority of farmers.

  • The stagnation in agriculture induced as a result of colonial rule was permanently broken by the green revolution. This refers to the large increase in production of food grains resulting from the use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds especially for wheat and rice.

  • The nation had immensely benefited from the green revolution. Thus, by the late 1960s, Indian agricultural productivity had increased sufficiently to enable the country to be self-sufficient in food grains. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Economists have found that as a nation becomes more prosperous, the proportion of GDP contributed by agriculture as well as the proportion of the population working in the sector declines considerably. In India, between 1950 and 1990, the proportion of GDP contributed by agriculture declined significantly from more than 50 percent in 1950 to 34 percent in 1990. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • On the negative side, some 65 per cent of the country’s population continued to be employed in agriculture even as late as 1990. The population depending on agriculture declined slightly from 67.5 per cent in 1950 to 64.9 per cent by 1990. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 40

Consider the following statements regarding India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO):

1. A Mini-Iron Calorimeter (mini-ICAL) detector, has been set up in Tamil Nadu.

2. This detector will detect both muons and neutrinos, mainly owing to the presence of cosmic ray background.

3. Mini-ICAL detector has layers of glass Resistive Plate Chamber (RPC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 40
The correct answer is option (c), 1 and 3 only. The India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) is a proposed underground particle physics research facility that is currently under construction in Tamil Nadu. A Mini-Iron Calorimeter (mini-ICAL) detector has been set up at the INO site, and this detector does have layers of glass Resistive Plate Chamber (RPC). However, the mini-ICAL detector will not detect both muons and neutrinos, as stated in statement 2. Instead, the mini-ICAL detector is designed to detect only muons, which are high-energy particles that are produced when cosmic rays interact with the Earth's atmosphere. The presence of a cosmic ray background is not relevant to the detection of muons by the mini-ICAL detector.
Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 41

Consider the following statements with reference to the Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme:

  1. Assistance is granted to the Export Promotion Councils, the Commodity Boards and the Apex Trade Organizations for carrying out various export promotion activities covered under the scheme

  2. The government has enhanced the upper ceiling of reimbursement of expenditure on statutory compliances abroad from Rs.50 lakhs per exporter per annum to Rs. 2 crores per exporter per annum.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 41
The Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme is an export promotion scheme, formulated to act as a catalyst to promote India’s exports on a sustained basis.

The broad objectives of the MAI Scheme are:

To display and promote India’s capabilities as a provider of world class goods and services.

To project India as an attractive sourcing destination.

To create a strong brand image for India.

To facilitate exporters / industry bodies to participate in major events abroad in identified markets, to create an impact of Indian goods and services.

To facilitate exporters to get exposure to new/ potential markets and access information on global trade.

In order to facilitate market access to Pharma/ Chemical/ Cosmetics/ Agro Chemical/ Agricultural/ Animal/ Marine/ Food/ Engineering products, there are provisions under the MAI Scheme for supporting individual exporters by reimbursing expenses incurred on registration of products abroad and on other statutory compliances abroad. With effect from 7th January, 2019, the Government has enhanced the upper ceiling of reimbursement of expenditure on statutory compliances abroad from Rs.50 lakh per exporter per annum to Rs.2 crore per exporter per annum

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 42

Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the National Disposable Income?

  1. It gives an idea of what is the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its disposal.

  2. It includes transfers from the rest of the world such as aids and gifts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 42
  • Apart from the categories of aggregate macroeconomic variables such as National Income, Personal Income, Personal Disposable Income, another aggregate income categories used in National Income accounting is National Disposable Income.

  • National Disposable Income = Net National Product at market prices + Net current transfers from the rest of the world.

  • The significance of the National Disposable Income is that it gives an idea of what is the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its disposal. Current transfers from the rest of the world include items such as gifts, aids, etc.

Hence both the statements are correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 43

Consider the following statements:

  1. Autonomous transactions are independent of the deficit or surplus in the Balance of Payments.

  2. Accommodating transactions refer to transactions that take place to cover deficit or surplus arising from autonomous transactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 43
  • When the country’s reserve bank is using its reserves of foreign exchange in order to balance any deficit in its balance of payments (BoP), it is called official reserve sale.

  • International economic transactions are called autonomous when transactions are made due to some reason other than to bridge the gap in the balance of payments, that is, when they are independent of the state of BoP. One reason could be to earn profit. These items are called ‘above the line’ items in the BoP. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Accommodating transactions (termed ‘below the line’ items) refer to transactions that take place to cover deficit (or surplus) arising from autonomous transactions. They are determined by the gap in the balance of payments, that is, whether there is a deficit or surplus in the balance of payments. Since the official reserve transactions are made to bridge the gap in the BoP, they are seen as the accommodating item in the BoP (all others being autonomous). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 44

This river is mainly known for its badland topography. It originates on the south slope of Vindhyachal range in Madhya Pradesh and is a tributary of river Yamuna. This river is known as?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 44
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • The running water of Chambal cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines.

  • Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away. Thus such areas of Madhya Pradesh are prone to sheet erosion. The Chambal River is a tributary of the Yamuna River in central India, and thus forms part of the greater Gangetic drainage system.

  • The river flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh, running for a time through Rajasthan, then forming the boundary between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh before turning southeast to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh state. Tributaries of Chambal are Banas, Mej, Parbati, Kali Sindh, Shipra It is a legendary river and finds mention in ancient scriptures.

  • The perennial Chambal originates at janapav, south of Mhow town, near manpur Indore, on the south slope of the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh. The Chambal River hosts 2 species of crocodiles– the mugger and gharial, freshwater turtles, gangetic river dolphins.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 45

Arrange the following hills from North to South:

  1. Javadi Hills

  2. Shevaroy Hills

  3. Anaimalai

  4. Nilgiri Hills

  5. Cardamom Hills

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 45
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 46

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Vaccines contain antigens that stimulate the immune system to produce an immune response.

  2. The "Global Vaccine Market Report 2022" was published by the World Health Organization (WHO).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 46
  • Antigens included in vaccines prompt the immune system to launch an immunological response. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Low-income countries consistently struggle to access vaccines that are in-demand by high-income countries. The "Global Vaccine Market Report 2022" was released by the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence, statement 2 is correct. Free market dynamics is depriving some of the world's poorest and most vulnerable people of their right to health.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 47

Consider the following statements:

  1. Crude Birth Rate (CBR) is defined as the number of births in a year per ten thousand of mid-year population in a particular region.

  2. Natural Growth of Population is the population increased by the difference between birth and death rates plus net migration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 47
  • There are three components of population change – births, deaths, and migration.

  • Crude Birth Rate (CBR) is expressed as number of "live" births in a year per thousand of mid-year population. It is calculated as:

    • CBR = (Live births during the year / Mid-year population of the area) * 1000

  • Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • Crude Death Rate (CDR) is expressed as the number of deaths in a year per thousand of mid-year population. It is calculated as:

    • CDR = (Number of Deaths / Mid-year population of the area) * 1000

  • Natural Growth of Population is the population increased by the difference between births and deaths in a particular region between two points of time. It does not include change due to migration. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • The actual growth of population = Birth - Death + In migration - Out Migration

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 48

Consider the following statements with respect to “Inter Tropical Convergence Zone”:

1. It is a broad trough of low pressure in equatorial latitudes.

2. It is in this zone, that the northeast and southeast trade winds converge.

3. It does not extend beyond the tropics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 48
  • Statement 1 is correct. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone, or ITCZ, is a belt of low pressure which circles the Earth generally near the equator where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres come together. It is a broad trough of low pressure in equatorial latitudes.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), known by sailors as the doldrums or the calms because of its monotonous, windless weather, is the area where the northeast and southeast trade winds converge. It encircles Earth near the thermal equator, though its specific position varies seasonally. It shifts as the sun shifts between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. When it lies near the geographic Equator, it is called the near- equatorial trough. Where the ITCZ is drawn into and merges with a monsoonal circulation, it is sometimes referred to as a monsoon trough, a usage more common in Australia and parts of Asia including in the subcontinent. Therefore, Northern ITCZ is sometimes referred to as the Monsoonal trough.

  • Statement 3 is correct. The location of the ITCZ gradually varies with seasons, roughly corresponding with the location of the sun (thermal equator). As the heat capacity of the oceans is greater than air over land, migration is more prominent over land. As land tends to heat up more the ITCZ can even shift beyond the Tropics. This can be seen during the heating up of the Tibetan plateau. As the Tibetan plateau heats up it leads to shifting of the Northern ITCZ beyond the Tropic of Cancer over the northern plains.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 49

Consider the following statements regarding “Monsoon Trough”:

  1. It is a low-pressure area that extends from heat low over Pakistan to the Head Bay of Bengal.

  2. When it is located to the south of its normal position, there is active rainfall over peninsular Indian regions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 49

Monsoon Trough:

  • Monsoon Trough is an elongated low-pressure area that extends from heat low over Pakistan to the Head Bay of Bengal. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • This is one of the semi-permanent features of monsoon circulation.

  • Monsoon trough may be a characteristic of the east-west orientation of Himalayan ranges and the north-south orientation of Khasi-Jaintia Hills.

  • The monsoon trough’s location, oscillation, and duration over a specific location, all directly affect the rainfall activity over the regions exactly to the south of its position.

    • That is, when it is located to the south of its normal position, there is active or vigorous rainfall over most parts of central, peninsular India regions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • When it shifts to the north of its normal position or lays along the Himalayan foothills, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and the northeastern states benefit.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 50

Which of the following is/are sedimentary rocks?

  1. Coal

  2. Slate

  3. Potash

  4. Chalk

  5. Limestone

  6. Granite

Select the correct answer using code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 50
  • Rocks (igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction turn into sedimentary rocks. This process is called lithification.

  • Depending upon the mode of formation, sedimentary rocks are classified into three major groups:

    • mechanically formed - sandstone, conglomerate, shale, loess etc. are examples;

    • organically formed - geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal etc. are some examples;

    • chemically formed - chert, limestone, halite, potash etc. are some examples. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

  • Granite, gabbro, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous rocks.

  • Gneissoid, syenite, slate, schist, marble, quartzite etc. are some examples of metamorphic rocks.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 51

Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?

  1. Proximity to trade routes

  2. Natural Defence

  3. Raw material and local energy supplies

  4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 51
  • The location of urban centres is examined with reference to their function. For example, the sitting requirements of a holiday resort are quite\ different from that of an industrial town, a military centre or a seaport. Strategic towns require sites offering natural defence; mining towns require the presence of economically valuable minerals; industrial towns generally need local energy supplies or raw materials. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

  • Locations of the earliest urban settlements were based on the availability of water, building materials and fertile land.

  • Some of these functional factors do not necessarily require the urban centre to have any fundamental relationship with its neighbouring rural areas.

  • Apart from the site of an urban settlement, the situation plays an important role in the expansion of towns. The urban centres which are located close to an important trade route have experienced rapid development. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 52

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Hot weather phenomena Region

1. Loo West Bengal

2. Kal Baisakhi Odisha

3. Mango showers Karnataka

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 52
Option (c) is correct.
  • Due to the apparent northward movement of the sun, the global heat belt shifts northward. As such, from March to May, it is hot weather season in India. Due to the hot weather, there is a flow of a strong, gusty, hot and dry wind over the northern plains. This is known as ‘Loo’.

  • The low-pressure conditions also lead to the formation of dust storms and thunderstorms. They bring temporary relief as they lower the temperature and may bring light rain and a cool breeze. In West Bengal such thunderstorms are called as ‘Kaal Baisakhi’, calamity for the month of Baisakhi.

  • Towards the close of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers are common especially in Kerala and Karnataka. They help in the early ripening of mangoes, and are often referred to as ‘mango showers’.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 53

Consider the following statements:

  1. The main central thrust separates the Greater Himalayas from the Trans - Himalayas.
  2. The main boundary fault separates the Greater Himalayas from the Lesser Himalayas.
  3. The Himalayan front fault separates Shiwalik from Northern plains of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 53

Statement 1 is incorrect. Main Central Thrust (MCT) Zone:

  • This separates the Higher Himalayas in the north from lesser Himalayas in the south. It has played an important role in the tectonic history of these mountains.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) Zone:

    • It is a reverse fault of great dimensions which extends all the way from Assam to Punjab and serves to separate the outer Himalayas from the lesser Himalayas.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Himalayan Frontal Fault/Thrust (HFF/T):

  • It is a series of reverse faults that demarcates the boundary of the Shivalik of the Himalayan province from the alluvial expanse of the Indo-Gangetic plains.

 

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 54

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Sun rays are never overhead at any point beyond the tropical zone.

  2. In the month of December, Southern Hemisphere has its longest day.

  3. On the day of an equinox, daytime and nighttime are of approximately equal duration all over the planet.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 54
  • The shape of the earth’s orbit is elliptical and the sun occupies one focus of the ellipse. This leads to variations in the distance of the earth from the sun. The distance between the earth and the sun is least i.e.147.3 million km on January 3. In this position, the earth is said to be in perihelion. After this, the earth moves away from the sun and on July 4, it is at the farthest point, being 152 million km from the sun. At this time, the earth is said to be in aphelion.

  • The plane in which the earth’s orbit lies is known as the plane of the ecliptic. The plane of the earth’s equator is inclined as an angle of 231/2° with the plane of the ecliptic. The earth's axis makes an angle of 661/2° with the plane of the ecliptic, and is tilted at 231/2° from a line perpendicular to that plane. This inclination is responsible for change of seasons on the Earth. The Sun rays can be experienced overhead till the tropic of cancer and capricorn in the northern and southern hemispheres of the earth respectively. Beyond this point, the earth does not tilt to the point that it receives the direct rays. So, the sun is never overhead beyond the tropics due to the latitudes. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • During the course of its revolution around the sun, the earth passes through different phases and occupies different positions. Four such positions, 2 solstices and 2 equinoxes occur in four different seasons.

    • Solstice: Solstice Solstice is the time when the sun is at its greatest distance from the equator and the sun’s rays are vertical either at the Tropic of Cancer or at the Tropic of Capricorn.

    • Summer Solstice: On June 21 or 22, the northern hemisphere has maximum leaning towards the sun and receives more insolation than the southern hemisphere. Duration of day increases towards the north and decreases towards the south. The Sun’s vertical rays are at the Tropic of Cancer.

    • Winter Solstice: On December 21 or 22 the earth travels to the opposite end of its orbit and the southern hemisphere has maximum inclination towards the sun. The sun’s vertical rays are at the Tropic of Capricorn. This is the time of winter season in the northern hemisphere and this position is known as winter solstice. The duration of day light increases towards the south and decreases towards the north. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 55

Consider the following statements with respect to rural settlements in India:

  1. In semi-clustered settlements, the land-owning dominant community tends to occupy the central part of the village.

  2. Hamleted settlements are frequently found in the lower Ganga plains.

  3. Fragmented nature of terrain often results in dispersed settlements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 55
  • There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural settlements in India. These include:

    • physical features: nature of terrain, altitude, climate, and availability of water;

    • cultural and ethnic factors: social structure, caste, and religion;

    • security factors: defence against thefts and robberies.

  • Rural settlements in India can broadly be put into four types: Clustered; Semi-clustered or fragmented; Hamleted, and Dispersed.

    • Semi-Clustered Settlements: These may result from the tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement. Generally, the land-owning and dominant community occupy the central part of the main village, whereas people of lower strata of society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village. Such settlements are widespread in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan. Hence statement 1 is correct.

    • Hamleted Settlements: Sometimes settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name. These units are locally called Panna, para, Palli, nagla, Dhani, etc. in various parts of the country. This segmentation of a large village is often motivated by social and ethnic factors. Such villages are more frequently found in the middle and lower Ganga plain, Chhattisgarh, and lower valleys of the Himalayas. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • Dispersed Settlements: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes. Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by the extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas. Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttaranchal, Himachal Pradesh, and Kerala have this type of settlement. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 56

Which of the following states in India have made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure compulsory for all the houses across the state?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 56
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Amendments made to Section 215 (a) of the Tamil Nadu District Municipalities Act, 1920 and Building Rules 1973, have made it mandatory to provide rooftop rainwater harvesting structures in all new buildings. Rooftop Rainwater Harvesting is the technique through which rain water is captured from the roof catchments and stored in reservoirs. Harvested rain water can be stored in subsurface groundwater reservoir by adopting artificial recharge techniques to meet the household needs through storage in tanks. The Main Objective of rooftop rainwater harvesting is to make water available for future use. Capturing and storing rainwater for use is particularly important in drylands, hilly, urban and coastal areas.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 57

It is a pass located on the Indo-China Border and is strategically very important. It also forms part of the ancient silk route. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet

Autonomous Region. It was reopened in 2006 after 1962 Indo – China war. It is located on the way to Kailash Mansarovar. The above- mentioned pass is?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 57
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Nathu La Pass:

  • altitude of 4310 m

  • it forms part of an offshoot of the ancient Silk Route

  • an important trade route between India and China

  • It was closed after the Chinese aggression on India in 1962 but was reopened in 2006 as the governments of the two countries decided to enhance their trade through land routes

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 58

With reference to the ' Eat Right India movement’, consider the following statements:

  1. Eat Right India is aligned to the National Health Policy 2017.

  2. Eat Healthy, Eat Safe, and Eat Sustainably are the three main pillars on which "Eat Right India" is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 58
  • The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is expected to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for the people in India. Eat Right India is aligned to the National Health Policy 2017. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • ‘Eat Right India’, is built on three broad pillars of ‘Eat Healthy’, ‘Eat Safe’ and ‘Eat Sustainably’. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 59

Which of the following are part of the definition of a town as per the Census of India?

  1. A minimum population of 5000.

  2. Density of the population is at least 600 persons per sq. km.

  3. At least 75 percent of the male working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 59
  • The definition of urban areas varies from one country to another. Some of the common basis of classification is the size of the population, occupational structure, and administrative structure.

  • For the Census of India 2011, the definition of the urban area is as follows;

    • All places with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee, etc.

    • All other places which satisfied the following criteria:

      • A minimum population of 5,000;

      • At least 75 percent of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; and

      • A density of population of at least 400 persons per sq. km.

    • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

  • The first category of urban units is known as Statutory Towns. These towns are notified under the law by the concerned State/UT Government and have local bodies like municipal corporations, municipalities, municipal committees, etc., irrespective of their demographic characteristics.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 60

With reference to nitrogen gas, consider the following statements:

1. Although nitrogen is a dominant gas in the atmosphere, it is inert and does not react.

2. When it is released as a part of compounds from agriculture, sewage and biological waste, it becomes reactive.

3. It is an air pollutant as well as a greenhouse gas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 60
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct.

● Nitrogen is a vital macronutrient for most plants.

● Nitrogen is an inert gas which is necessary for life.

● It is the most abundant element in the atmosphere.

● A little over 78% of dry air on Earth is nitrogen.

● Atmospheric nitrogen, or dinitrogen, is unreactive and cannot be utilized by plants directly. Statement 2 is correct.

● Nitrogen is being changed into forms that are harmful, and the natural nitrogen cycle is being disturbed.

● Nitrogen compounds running off from farmland have led to water pollution problems around the world, while nitrogen emissions from industry, agriculture and vehicles make a big contribution to air pollution.

Statement 3 is also correct.

● Nitrogen can be a pollutant when it escapes into the environment and react with other organic compounds.

● It is either released into the atmosphere, gets dissolved in water sources such as rivers, lakes or groundwater, or remains in the soil. It can even be a factor in the greenhouse effect.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 61

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Coronal Holes are regions on the sun’s surface from where fast solar wind gushes out into space.

  2. Coronal Holes once formed, cannot be removed from the space, making them a permanent formation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 61
Coronal Holes are areas on the sun's surface where fast solar wind erupts into space. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

In these regions, the magnetic field is open to interplanetary space, sending solar material

out in a high-speed stream of solar wind i.e., geomagnetic storm.

Coronal holes can last between a few weeks to months thus not a permanent formation. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The holes are not a unique phenomenon, appearing throughout the sun’s approximately 11-year solar cycle.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 62

With reference to ‘Old Pension Scheme’, consider the following statements:

  1. Under this scheme, employees get a pension under a pre-determined formula which is equivalent to 50% of the last drawn salary.

  2. All citizens of India (including NRIs) aged between 18 - 70 years were allowed to join the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 62
  • The scheme assures life-long income, post-retirement. Under the old scheme, employees get a pension under a pre-determined formula which is equivalent to 50% of the last drawn salary. They also get the benefit of the revision of Dearness Relief (DR), twice a year. The payout is fixed and there was no deduction from the salary. Moreover, under the OPS, there was the provision of the General Provident Fund (GPF). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The All-Citizens Model of the New Pension Scheme (NPS) allows all citizens of India (including NRIs) aged between 18 - 70 years to join NPS. It is a participatory scheme, where employees contribute to their pension corpus from their salaries, with matching contributions from the government. The funds are then invested in earmarked investment schemes through Pension Fund Managers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 63

Which of the following sets of pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 63

Option (c) is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Lichens are organisms which is a symbiotic relationship between two separate organisms, which is an algae, and a fungus. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the algae and, in return, the algae prepares and provides food to the fungus.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Cuscuta (Amarbel) is a plant that does not have chlorophyll. It takes readymade food from the plant on which it climbs. The plant on which it climbs is called the host. Since it deprives the host of valuable nutrients, Cuscuta is called a parasite.

Pair 4 is not correctly matched. Rhizobium is a bacterium that can take atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into a usable form. But Rhizobium cannot make its own food. So it often lives in the roots of gram, peas, moong, beans and other legumes and provides them with nitrogen. In return, the plants provide food and shelter to the bacteria. They, thus, it has a symbiotic relationship with plants and not animals.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 64

Bowman‟s capsule and glomerulus are associated with which organ of the human

Body?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 64
A nephron is the basic structural and functional unit of the kidney. They are the microscopic structure composed of a renal corpuscle and a renal tubule.

Structure of Nephron

  • The mammalian nephron is a long tube-like structure, its length varying from 35–55 mm long. At one end, the tube is closed, folded and expanded, into a double-walled, cuplike structure called the Bowman‘s capsule or renal corpuscular capsule, which encloses a cluster of microscopic blood vessels called the glomerulus. This capsule and glomerulus together constitute the renal corpuscle.

Functions of Nephron

  • The primary function of the nephron is removing all waste products including the solid wastes, and other excess water from the blood, converting blood into urine, reabsorption, secretion, and excretion of numerous substances.

  • As the blood passes through the glomerulus with high pressure, the small molecules are moved into the glomerular capsules and travel through a winding series of tubules.

  • The cell present in each tube absorbs different molecules excluding the glucose, water, and other beneficial molecules which are called ass ultrafiltrate. As the ultrafiltrate molecules travel down the tubules they become more and more hypertonic, which results in more amount of water to be extracted from the ultrafiltrate before it exits the nephrons.

  • The blood surrounding the nephron travels back into the body through the renal blood vessels, which are free of toxins and other excess substances. The obtained ultrafiltrate is urine, which travels down via the collecting duct to the bladder, where it will be stored and released through the urethra.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 2 - Question 65