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Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - HPSC (Haryana) MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Haryana Civil Services Mock Test Series 2024 - Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 for HPSC (Haryana) 2024 is part of Haryana Civil Services Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the HPSC (Haryana) exam syllabus.The Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for HPSC (Haryana) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 below.
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Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), consider the

following statements:

  1. The CAG’s duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

  2. The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

Option (d) is the correct answer.

The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department

Statement 1 is Correct - He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both levels—the Centre and the state. His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. He is one of the bulwarks of the democratic system of government in India; the others being the Supreme Court, the Election Commission and the Union Public Service Commission.

Statement 2 is Correct.- The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal. The CAG, before taking over his office, makes and subscribed before the president an oath or affirmation he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Consider the following statements with regard to Delimitation Commission:

  1. It has the authority to decide which constituency is to be reserved.

  2. It is appointed by the President of India.

  3. It works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 2
Delimitation Commission is set up via an act of Parliament to carry out delimitation of Parliamentary and State Legislature Constituencies after the Census. It was created in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.

Statement 1 is correct. The Delimitation Commission decides the basis on which constituencies are reserved for SC and ST candidates as well as declares which of the constituencies would be reserved.

A quota of constituencies to be reserved in each State is fixed depending on the proportion of SC or ST in that State. After drawing the boundaries, the Delimitation Commission looks at the composition of population in each constituency. Those constituencies that have the highest proportion of Scheduled Tribe population are reserved for ST. In the case of Scheduled Castes, the Delimitation Commission looks at two things. It picks constituencies that have higher proportion of Scheduled Caste population. But it also spreads these constituencies in different regions of the State. This is done because the Scheduled Caste population is generally spread evenly throughout the country. These reserved constituencies can be rotated each time the

Delimitation exercise is undertaken Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. It is appointed for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of constituencies all over the country.

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Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Which of the following statements is correct with reference to Fundamental rights in India?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 3
  • Statement a is incorrect: All Fundamental rights guarantee the rights of an individual against the state but not all are available against the action of private individuals. For example, the first provision of Article -15 that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth prohibits discrimination only by state and not by private individuals. While the second provision of not allowing citizens access to shops, public place on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth prohibits discrimination both by state and by private individuals. Article 19 are protected only against state and not against private individuals.

  • Statement b is incorrect: These rights are binding upon all the authority that has got power to make laws whether it be central government or state government or local government.

  • Statement c is incorrect. The role of guiding the Indian state to promote social and economic welfare is the function of DPSPs (Directive principles of state policy) and not of Fundamental rights.

  • Statement d is correct. Both the Supreme court under Article 32 and High courts under Article 226 can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental rights. However, a person can go directly to Supreme court for his violation of fundamental rights. It is not necessary that he can go to Supreme court only by the way of appeal mechanism.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Consider the following statements about the writ jurisdiction:

  1. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against public authorities only.

  2. The writ of certiorari is not available against legislative bodies.

  3. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against the Judicial and Quasi-Judicial bodies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 4
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the (a) detention is lawful, (b) the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, (c) detention is by a competent court, and (d) detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.

Statement 2 is correct. The writ of certiorari could be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities, and against administrative authorities. It is not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.

Statement 3 is correct. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.

Some other writs:

1) Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.

2) Quo-Warranto means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the powers vested to the President under Article 359 of the Constitution of India?

  1. He can promulgate ordinance for any state.

  2. He is empowered to suspend the enforcement of some Fundamental Rights.

  3. He may extend National Emergency only to few parts of the country and not

the entire country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 5
  • Article 359 authorises the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights as such are not suspended, but only their enforcement. The said rights are theoretically alive but the right to seek remedy is suspended. The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways.

    • Firstly, the President cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21. In other words, the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable even during emergency.

    • Secondly, only those laws which are related with the emergency are protected from being challenged and not other laws and the executive action taken only under such a law, is protected.

  • Article 359 operates in case of both when National Emergency is declared on grounds of war or external aggression as well as on the ground of armed rebellion.

  • Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • Article 359 does not empower the President to promulgate ordinance in a state. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Consider the following statements with regard to Universal Adult Franchise in India:

  1. President has the authority to decide the minimum age for voting in the elections to State as well as Union legislature.

  2. All citizens of India above the age of 18 years are eligible to vote in the elections to the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 6
Statement 1 is incorrect. Minimum age for eligibility to exercising the right to vote is determined by the Constitution of India (Article 326) and not by the President. Adult franchise ensures that all citizens are able to participate in the process of selecting their representative.

Statement 2 is correct. Till 1989, the voting age was 21 years. The Constitution (Sixty first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

With reference to certain features of the Indian Constitution, consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Provisions borrowed from Constitutions of different countries

British Constitution

  • First Past the Post

  • Parliamentary Form of Government

  • The idea of the rule of law

  • Institution of the Speaker and his role and Law Making procedure

 

United States Constitution

  • Charter of Fundamental Rights

  • Power of Judicial Review and independence of the judiciary

 

Irish Constitution

  • Directive Principles of State Policy

 

French Constitution

  • Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity

 

Canadian Constitution

  • A quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central government)

  • The idea of Residual Powers

    Therefore option (c) is the correct answer

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Consider the following statements with reference to the Right to Constitutional Remedies:

  1. The right to move Supreme Court can be suspended by the President under special circumstances.

  2. The High Court has the power to refuse exercising its writ jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 8
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: The right to move the Supreme Court can be suspended by the President during a national emergency (Article 359).

Statement 2 is correct: The remedy under Article 32 is a fundamental right in itself hence, the supreme court cannot refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under Article 226 is discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. However, Court Martial i.e. the tribunals established under the military law have been exempted from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts via article 33.

Article 32 provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies which means that a person has the right to move to the Supreme Court (and high courts also) for protecting his fundamental rights. While Supreme Court has power to issue writs under article 32, High Courts have been given the same powers under article 226.

Further, the power to issue writs can also be extended to any other court (including local courts) by the Parliament. In addition, the constitution also provides for the parliament to confer on the Supreme Court power to issue writs for the purpose other than the one mentioned above. Similarly, High courts in India are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.

There are five types of writs that the Courts (both Supreme Court and the High Court) can use –Habeas corpus, Quo Warranto, Mandamus, Certiorari and Prohibition.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

Consider the following statements with respect to new National Pension Scheme:

  1. The scheme is open to all Indian citizens on a voluntary basis.

  2. Non-resident Indians are also eligible for this scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 9
  • The National Pension Scheme is a social security initiative by the Central Government. Earlier, the NPS scheme covered only the Central Government employees. Now, however, the PFRDA has made it open to all Indian citizens on a voluntary basis. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • NPS scheme holds immense value for anyone who works in the private sector and requires a regular pension after retirement.

  • NRI can open an NPS account. Contributions made by NRI are subject to regulatory requirements as prescribed by RBI and FEMA from time to time. However, OCI (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO (Person of Indian Origin) cardholders and HUFs are not eligible for the opening of an NPS account. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • NPS account can be opened only in an individual capacity and cannot be opened or operated jointly or for and on behalf of HUF.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. India's ranking in the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2022 has dropped.

  2. “AI talent concentration” is one of the indicators assessed under the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2022.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

India has moved up by six slots to improve its position and rank 61st as per the Network

Readiness Index 2022 (NRI 2022). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

This report was prepared by a US-based Portulans Institute, an independent non-profit

research and educational institute.

India leads in several indicators of the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2022:

India secured

  • 1st rank in “AI talent concentration”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • 2nd rank in “Mobile broadband internet traffic within the country” and “International Internet bandwidth”.

  • 3rd rank in “Annual investment in telecommunication services” and “Domestic market Size”

  • 4th rank in “ICT Services exports”.

  • 5th rank in “FTTH/Building Internet subscriptions” and “AI scientific publications”

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the committee of British cabinet known as the cabinet mission. According to this plan, each province and princely states were allotted seats in the ratio of 1 to 1 lakh. Thus, the provinces were to elect 292 members while the Princely states were allotted a minimum of 93 states and 4 seats were allotted to the chief commissioners provinces. The seats in Province were distributed among Muslims, Sikhs and general in proportion to their populations.

Knowledge Base: other provisions of the Cabinet mission plan:

  1. The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

  2. The representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

With reference to Vice President of India , consider the following statements:

  1. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of Rajya Sabha only.

  2. The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the Vice-President.

  3. All doubts and disputes arising in connection with the election of the Vice-President are enquired by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 12
The Election Commission announced that the election to the office of the vice-president of India would be held on August 6.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Vice-President of India is the second highest constitutional office in the country.

  • He serves for a five-year term, but can continue to be in office, irrespective of the expiry of the term, until the successor assumes office.

  • The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot(Article 66 (1)).

Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the Vice-President.

  • The Election Commission is mandated to ensure that the election to the office of the VicePresident of India must be a free and fair election and the Commission is taking all necessary steps for discharging its constitutional responsibility

  • All doubts and disputes arising in connection with the election of the Vice-President are enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India whose decision is final.

  • A petition challenging the election of the Vice-President is heard by a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY), consider the

following statements:

  1. PMSSY has the objective of correcting regional imbalances in the availability of affordable primary healthcare services.

  2. The nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 13
The Union government’s healthcare spend dropped to 1.28 percent of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in 2018-19 from the previous year’s figure of 1.35 percent.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) was

announced in 2003 with the objectives of correcting regional imbalances in the availability of

affordable/ reliable tertiary healthcare services and also to augment facilities for quality

medical education in the country. PMSSY has two components:-

  1. Setting up of AIIMS like Institutions

  2. Upgradation of Government Medical College(GMC)/ Institutions.

Statement 2 is correct: The nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Consider the following statements with regard to the Election Commission of India:

  1. It has been a multi-member body since the commencement of the Constitution.

  2. All its members have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections.

  3. All its members are appointed for a five-year term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution provided for the Election Commission to be either a single member or a multi-member body. Till 1989, the Election Commission was single member. Just before the 1989 general elections, two Election Commissioners were appointed, making the body multi-member. Soon after the elections, the Commission reverted to its single member status. In 1993, two Election Commissioners were once again appointed and the Commission became multi-member and has remained multi-member since then.

Statement 2 is correct. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Election Commission, but does not have more powers than the other Election Commissioners. The CEC and the two Election Commissioners have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections as a collective body.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Constitution ensures the security of the tenure of the CEC and Election Commissioners. They are appointed for a six-year term or continue till the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

With reference to the Directive Principles provided under part IV of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. Promoting cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas.

  2. Public assistance in case of old age, sickness, and disablement, and right to work.

  3. Promoting the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society.

  4. Promoting the voluntary formation of cooperative societies.

Which of the directive principles given above are based on Gandhian ideology?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
  • The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories as socialistic, Gandhian, and liberal-intellectual.

  • Gandhian Principles are based on Gandhian ideology. They represent the program of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement. In order to fulfill the dreams of Gandhi, some of his ideas were included as Directive Principles.

    • To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).

    • To promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas (Article 43).

    • To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies (Article 43B).

    • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).

    • To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47).

    • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).

  • To secure the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement (Article 41). This is a socialistic directive principle

  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Which of the following sites are identified as a Neolithic Sites?

  1. Daojali Hading

  2. Paiyampalli

  3. Kurnool caves

  4. Inamgaon

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 16
Chalcolithic Site - Inamgaon

List of Neolithic Sites;

  • Koldihwa

  • Mahagara

  • Mehrgarh

  • Paiyampalli

  • Hallui

  • Burzahom

  • Chirand

  • Daojali Hading

Megalithic Sites;

  • Adichamallur

  • Brahmagiri

Paleolithic Sites;

  • Kurnool caves

  • Hunsgi

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Poligars revolt?

  1. Poligars or Palayakkars were the class of viceroys forming the second tier in the administrative system created by the Vijayanagar empire.

  2. While the Northern Poligars fell under the kingdom of Mysore, those in southern Tamil Nadu had to deal with the revenue demands of the British east India company.

  3. The poligars of North Arcot rose in rebellion against the company as they were deprived of their right to collect the ‘kawal’ fees.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 17
Option b is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The roots of the poligars or Palayakkars date back to 14th century to the beginning of Vijayanagar empire in south India who established a unique three tier administrative system thereby creating an administrative class called the ‘ Palayakkars’.

  • This three-tier set up consisted of the emperor at Vijayanagar at the top of pyramid; the Nayakas or viceroys forming the second tier and the Palayakkars or polygars comprising the grassroot leaders in the hierarchy. This system allowed for an efficient revenue administration as well as created a mechanism to help raise an army, besides keeping generals, warriors, courtiers etc.

  • Statement 2 and 3 are correct: By the 18th century While the Northern Polygars fell under the kingdom of Mysore, those in southern Tamil Nadu had to deal with the revenue demands of the British East India company. Between 1803 and 1805, the poligars of North Arcot rose in rebellion against the company as they were deprived of their right to collect the kawal fees(Kawal or ‘watch’ was an ancient institution of Tamil Nadu. It was a hereditary village police office with specified rights and responsibilities.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Which of the following sites are identified as a Neolithic Sites?

  1. Daojali Hading

  2. Paiyampalli

  3. Kurnool caves

  4. Inamgaon

Select the correct answer using the code given Below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 18
Chalcolithic Site - Inamgaon

List of Neolithic Sites;

  1. Koldihwa

  2. Mahagara

  3. Mehrgarh

  4. Paiyampalli

  5. Hallui

  6. Burzahom

  7. Chirand

  8. Daojali Hading

Megalithic Sites

  1. Adichamallur

  2. Brahmagiri

Paleolithic Sites

  1. Kurnool caves

  2. Hunsgi

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

Consider the following statements with respect to the Swaraj Party:

  1. It was formed after the Gaya session of the Indian National Congress.

  2. It was to function as a group within the Congress.

  3. The Party won more than fifty percent of the elected seats in the Central Legislative Assembly in the 1923 elections.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 19
  • After the withdrawal of the Non-cooperation movement, disintegration set in Congress. A group of leaders led by Chittaranjan Das (C.R. Das) and Motilal Nehru advocated the end of the boycott of Legislative Councils. Sardar Patel, Dr. Ansari, Rajendra Prasad, and others are known as 'no changers opposed Council entry.

  • In 1922, in the Gaya session of the Congress, C R Das (who was presiding over the session) moved a proposal to enter the legislatures but it was defeated. Das and other leaders broke away from Congress and formed the Swaraj Party on 1 January 1923. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Congress Khilafat Swaraj Party with Das as president and Motilal Nehru as one of the secretaries. The new party was to function as a group within the Congress. It accepted the Congress programme except in one respect - it would take part in Council elections. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.

  • The Swarajists and the no-changers engaged in fierce political controversy. On Gandhiji's advice, the two groups agreed to remain in the Congress though they would work in separate ways.

  • Swarajists won 42 seats out of the 101 elected seats in the Central Legislative Assembly. With the cooperation of other Indian groups, they repeatedly outvoted the Government in the Central Assembly. In March 1925, they succeeded in electing Vithalbhai J. Patel, a leading nationalist leader, as the speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Which of the following sources refers tothe worshippers of Vasudeva (Krishna)?

1. Panini’s Ashtadhyayi

2. The Chhandogya Upanishad

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 20
  • A Sutra in Panini’s Ashtadhyayi refers to the worshippers of Vasudeva (Krishna).

  • The Chhandogya Upanishad also speaks of Krishna, the son of Devaki, a pupil of the sage Ghora Angirasa, who was a sun-worshipping priest.

  • A large number of people worshipped Vasudeva Krishna exclusively as their personal God and they were at first known as Bhagavatas.

  • The Vasudeva-Bhagavata cult grew steadily, absorbing within its fold other Vedic and Brahminic divinities, like Vishnu (primarily an aspect of the Sun) and Narayana (a cosmic God).

  • From the late Gupta period the name mostly used to designate this Bhakti cult was Vaishnava, indicating the predominance of the Vedic Vishnu element in it with emphasis on the doctrine of incarnations (Avataras).

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Fifth Report’ by East India Company:

  1. It was in relation to the activities and the administration of the East India Company in India.

  2. It was submitted to the Governor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 21
  • Statement 1 is correct: A report that was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813. It was the fifth of a series of reports on the administration and activities of the East India Company in India. Often referred to as the Fifth Report. Since, the Company established its rule in Bengal in the mid-1760s, its activities were closely watched and debated in England. Many opposed to the monopoly that the East India Company had over trade with India and China. These groups wanted a revocation of the Royal Charter that gave the Company this monopoly.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It was published by a select committee on the affairs of the East India Company of the British Parliament. It was submitted to the British Parliament and not the Governor General of India. There was no such post as of 1813.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Consider the following statements about Bhimbetka caves:

1. The caves of Bhimbetka were discovered by Archibold Carlleyle.

2. The paintings in these caves belong to lower and upper Palaeolithic periods.

3. The paintings in these caves depict subjects ranging from mundane events of daily life to sacred and Royal images.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 22
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The caves of Bhimbetka were discovered in 1957–58 by eminent archaeologist V. S. Wakankar. The first discovery of rock paintings, not Bhimbetka caves, was made in India in 1867–68 by an archaeologist, Archibold Carlleyle, twelve years before the discovery of Altamira in Spain. Cockburn, Anderson, Mitra and Ghosh were the early archaeologists who discovered a large number of sites in the Indian subcontinent.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The rock art of Bhimbetka has been classified into various groups on the bases of style, technique and superimposition. The drawings and paintings can be categorised into seven historical periods. Period I, Upper Palaeolithic; Period II, Mesolithic; and Period III, Chalcolithic. After Period III there are four successive periods. In India the earliest paintings have been reported from the Upper Palaeolithic times.

Statement 3 is correct. The themes of paintings found here are of great variety, ranging from mundane events of daily life in those times to sacred and royal images. These include hunting, dancing, Music, horse and elephant riders, animal fighting, honey collection, decoration of bodies, and other household scenes. About Bhimbetka Caves: The largest and most spectacular rock-shelter is located in the Vindhya hills at Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh. Bhimbetka is located 45 kilometres south of Bhopal, in an area of ten square kilometres, having about eight hundred rock shelters, five hundred of which bear paintings.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Which Union Ministry identified and published poems, writings and publications that were banned by the British Government?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry for the 75-week-long Amrit Mahosav celebrations. It has identified poems, writings and publications that the British government banned and put them as catalogue, which has been published on the website by the National Archives of India. These works are in nine regional languages Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Marathi, Kannada, Odia, Punjabi, Sindhi, Telugu, Tamil and Urdu.
Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding the Brahmo Sabha:

  1. Its purpose was to purify Hinduism and to preach theism.

  2. Tarachand Chakravarti was the first secretary of the Brahmo Sabha.

  3. It was opposed to idolatry.

  4. The new society was to be based on the Vedas only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Explanation:

1. The Brahmo Sabha was indeed formed with the purpose of purifying Hinduism and preaching theism. Raja Ram Mohan Roy, the founder of the Brahmo Sabha, sought to reform Hinduism by removing practices like idolatry, caste system, and sati. He believed in monotheism and wanted to promote a rational understanding of religion.

2. Tarachand Chakravarti was the first secretary of the Brahmo Sabha. He was a close associate of Raja Ram Mohan Roy and played a crucial role in the early development of the organization.

3. The Brahmo Sabha was opposed to idolatry, as Raja Ram Mohan Roy believed that worshiping idols was a corrupt practice that had no basis in the original Hindu scriptures. He advocated for a more spiritual and rational understanding of religion.

4. The statement that the new society was to be based on the Vedas only is incorrect. Raja Ram Mohan Roy believed in the essential unity of all religions and did not want to restrict the Brahmo Sabha to a single religious scripture. He encouraged the study of various religious texts and promoted religious tolerance and understanding. In fact, the Brahmo Samaj, which evolved from the Brahmo Sabha, considered the Upanishads, Vedas, and other religious texts as important sources of spiritual knowledge, but not as infallible authorities.

 

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the People’s uprisings during British era?

  1. Increasing number of intermediary revenue collectors, tenants, moneylenders caused the exploitation of common people and gave rise to uprisings.

  2. These uprisings were very stubborn in nature and were not pacified by concessions.

  3. Destruction of indigenous industry is also a causative factor for people’s uprising.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 25
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: Exploitation of rural society increased with the growth of intermediary revenue collectors, tenants, moneylenders and thus gave rise to civil uprisings like civil uprisings in Gorakhpur, Basti and Bahraich due to involvement of English officers as izaradars (revenue farmers in Awadh

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: These uprisings were not so obstinate and were often pacified through concessions by the authorities like Ho and Munda Uprisings where British agreed to the demand of Chhotanagpur as their area and deployed force there

  • Statement 3 is correct: Destruction of indigenous industry led to migration of workers from industry to agriculture, increasing the pressure on land/ agriculture and resulted in civil Uprisings.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

With respect to women’s condition in Ancient India, consider the following statements:

  1. There was no female Upanishadic thinker in Ancient India.

  2. Women were not allowed to join Buddhist Sangha.

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 26
Statement 1 is incorrect. Though most Upanishadic thinkers were men, especially brahmins and raja, but there is mention of women thinkers, such as Gargi. Gargi was famous for her learning, and participated in debates held in royal courts.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The rules made for the Buddhist sangha were written down in a book called the Vinaya Pitaka. According to the rules written in the Vinaya Pitaka, all men, women and children could join the sangha.

However, children had to take the permission of their parents and slaves of their masters. Those who worked for the king had to take his permission and debtors that of creditors. Women had to take their husbands’ permission.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Consider the following passage:

The Governor-General abolished the Dual System introduced by Robert Clive. He also abolished the system of dastaks, or free passes, and regulated the internal trade. He set up the Calcutta Madrasah for the study and teaching of Muslim law and related subjects. He also introduced a uniform system of pre-paid postage system.

The above passage refers to which of the following Governors-General?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
  • When Warren Hastings assumed the administration of Bengal in 1772, he found it in utter chaos. Therefore, Warren Hastings realized the immediate need for introducing reforms.

  • Reforms under Warren Hastings:

    • The East India Company decided to act as Diwan and to undertake the collection of revenue by its own agents. Hence, the Dual System introduced by Robert Clive was abolished.

    • After the abolition of the Dual System, the responsibility of collecting the revenue fell on the shoulders of the Company. For that purpose, a Board of Revenue was established at Calcutta to supervise the collection of revenue.

    • Warren Hastings felt the necessity of reorganizing the judicial system. Each district was provided with a civil court under the collector and a criminal court under an Indian Judge.

    • Warren Hastings abolished the system of dastaks, or free passes, and regulated the internal trade.

    • In 1781, Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrasah for the study and teaching of Muslim law and related subjects.

    • He also introduced a uniform system of pre-paid postage system.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

This temple is built in Chalukyan Style on the Prabhas Pattan or Veraval Port of Gujrat. It was raided by Mahmud of Ghazni and is believed to have been plundered at least 17 times. India’s first president Dr Rajendra Prasad performed the Pran Pratishtha Ceremony over here. Which is the temple being referred to in the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 28
Somnath Temple:
  • It is the first among the 12 Jyotirlingas which are symbolic representations of Lord Shiva.

  • Located at the Veraval Port or Prabhas Pattan in Saurashtra, Gujrat, the present temple is built in the Chalukyan style.

    • This Architecture is also known as the “Kailash Mahameru Prasad” style.

    • It reflects the skill of the SompuraSalats, one of Gujarat’s master masons.

  • Raids - In AD 1026, Mahmud of Ghazni first looted the temple,and then came Afzal Khan, the commander of Ala-ud-din Khilji and later Aurangzeb.

  • It is said that the temple was looted and destroyed as many as seventeen times.

  • Post Modern History - The Iron man of India, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel was instrumental in the construction of the present temple.

  • The first President of India Dr Rajendra Prasad installed the Jyotirling in the new temple on May 11, 1951.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Consider the following statements

  1. He founded the Servants of India Society.

  2. He started an English weekly newspaper, “The Hitavada”.

  3. He was a mentor to both Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammed Ali Jinnah.

Which of the following personality is been discussed in the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 29
  • In News: PM paid tributes to Gopal Krishna Gokhale on his birth anniversary.

  • Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society(SIS) in Maharashtra’s Pune on June 12, 1905. The SIS launched campaigns for the promotion of education, health care and sanitation. It also made efforts to eradicate social evils such as untouchability and oppression of women. He started an English weekly newspaper, The Hitavada (The people's paper). He was a mentor to both Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammed Ali Jinnah. Gandhi Ji, in his autobiography, described Gokhale as “pure as crystal, gentle as a lamb, brave as a lion and chivalrous to a fault and the most perfect man in the political field.”

  • Similarly, Jinnah was so inspired by Gokhle that his aspiration, during the early years of his political life, was to become a “Muslim Gokhle”.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

1. Ellora caves have monasteries associated with Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism.

2. Elephanta caves were originally a Buddhist site, later dominated by the Shaivite faith.

3. Bagh caves are associated with Jainism only.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 30
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Ellora Caves are a series of rock-cut cave monuments that are associated with Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism. The caves were constructed between the 6th and 10th centuries CE and are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The caves are renowned for their beautiful sculptures and carvings, including depictions of the Buddha, Shiva and Vishnu. Elephanta Caves are a series of rock-cut temples that are located on an island in the Arabian Sea.

The caves were originally a Buddhist site, but were later dominated by the Shaivite faith. The caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site and are known for their sculptures and carvings depicting Hindu deities, stories from the Puranas and various scenes from Hindu mythology. Bagh Caves are a series of rock-cut cave monuments that are associated with Jainism. The caves were built between the 5th and 8th centuries CE and are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The caves are renowned for their sculptures and carvings, including depictions of popular Jain figures and various scenes from Jain mythology. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 31

Arrange the following events chronologically:

1. Establishment of Sanskrit College by Jonathan Duncan

2. Establishment of Calcutta Madrasah

3. Censorship of Press Act

4. Foundation of the Asiatic Society of Bengal

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 31
Option (c) is the correct answer

● Calcutta Madrasah (1781) was established by Warren Hastings in 1781 for the study of Muslim law and related subjects.

● Foundation of the Asiatic Society of Bengal (1784): was founded by civil servant Sir William Jones in 1784 to enhance and further the cause of Oriental research

● The Sanskrit College (1791) was established by Jonathan Duncan, the resident, at Benaras in 1791 for study of Hindu law and philosophy. Censorship of the Press Act, 1799: Lord Wellesley enacted this, anticipating French invasion of India. It imposed almost wartime press restrictions including pre-censorship. These restrictions were relaxed under Lord Hastings, who had progressive views, and in 1818, pre censorship was dispensed with

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 32

With respect of Swadesh Bandhab Samiti set up during the Swadeshi Movement, which of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 32
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • The Swadesh Bandhab Samiti set up by Ashwini Kumar Dutt, a school teacher, in Barisal was the most well-known volunteer organization of them all.

  • Through the activities of this Samiti, whose 159 branches reached out to the remotest corners of the district, Dutt was able to generate an unparalleled mass following among the predominantly Muslim Peasantry of the region. The samitis took the Swadeshi message to the villages through magic lantern lectures and Swadeshi songs, gave physical and moral training to the members, did social work during famines and epidemics, organized schools training in Swadeshi craft and arbitration courts.

  • By August 1906 the Barisal Samiti reportedly settled 523 disputes through eighty-nine arbitration committees.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 33

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the 1857 revolt?

  1. The 1857 revolt failed as most of the Rajas and Nawabs helped the British cause.

  2. The revolt was led by enlightened and educated middle class.

  3. The Madras army remained complete loyal to the British and half of the company’s troops did not join the revolt and fought against Indians.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 33
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: One of the reasons for failure of 1857 revolt that most of the Rajas and Nawabs helped the British cause. Sir Dinkar Rao of Gwalior and Salar Jung of Nizam did everything to suppress the rebellion.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The revolt was led by old feudal lords not the enlightened middle educated class. These people had already been defeated many times.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Madras army remained completely loyal to the British and half of the company’s troops did not join the revolt and fought against Indians. The south India was not affected by this revolt. Punjab, Sindh, Rajputana, and east Bengal remain undisturbed.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 34

1. Public goods can be provided through a market mechanism.

2. The consumption of public goods by several individuals prevents some individuals from using it.

3. An individual who does not pay for a public good cannot be excluded from enjoying its benefits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 34

Option (a) is the correct answer.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Public goods are distinct from private goods as they cannot be provided through the market mechanism and thus must be provided by the government. This is known as the “allocation function” of the government.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Public goods such as roads, public parks, highways, railways are for the benefit of all. The consumption of such goods by several individuals is not “rivalrous” in the sense that a person can enjoy the benefits without reducing their availability to others.

  • Statement 3 is correct: In case of private goods if one does not pay then one can be excluded from enjoying its benefits. However, in case of public goods there is no feasible way of excluding anyone from enjoying its benefits. Thus, non-payers cannot be excluded.

 

Since public goods are “non-rivalrous” and “non-excludable” it becomes difficult to collect fees for the public goods. This leadsto a problem of “Free-reider”. Since consumers will not voluntarily pay for what they are getting for free it breaks the link between producers and consumers and therefore the government must step in to provide for such gods. This is known as “Public provisioning”.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 35

Consider the following statements:

  1. PradhanMantri Suraksha Yojana offers a renewable one-year accidental death-cum- disability cover to all the subscribing bank account holders in the age group of 18 to 70 years.

  2. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana offers a renewable one-year term life cover of Rs 2 lakh to all subscribing bank account holders in the geek group 18-50 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 35
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana offers a renewable one-year accidental death- Cum-disability cover to all the subscribing bank account holders in the age group of 18 to 70 years for a premium of Rs 12 per annum per subscriber. Rs 2 lakh for accidental death and Rs 1 lakh for permanent partial disability is the risk cover available for a one-year period.

Statement 2 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana offers a renewable one-year term life cover of Rs 2 lakh to all subscribing bank account holders in the age group of 18-50 years with the annual premium of Rs 330.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 36

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to Stagflation?

  1. Stagflation refers to a state of an economy that is experiencing a simultaneous increase in inflation and rising unemployment.

  2. The occurrence of stagflation proves the theory behind the Philips curve.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 36
  • Stagflation was first recognized during the 1970s, where many developed economies experienced rapid inflation and high unemployment as a result of an oil shock.

  • Stagflation refers to an economy that is experiencing a simultaneous increase in inflation and stagnation of economic output. It is a period of rising inflation and unemployment but falling output. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Stagflation is a combination of stagnant economic growth, high unemployment, and high inflation. This scenario, of course, directly contradicts the theory behind the Philips curve.

  • Stagflation was long believed to be impossible because the economic theories that dominated academic and policy circles ruled it out of their models by construction. In particular, the economic theory of the Phillips Curve portrayed macroeconomic policy as a trade-off between unemployment and inflation.

  • The theory claims that economic growth comes with inflation, which in turn should lead to more jobs and less unemployment. However, the concept has been somewhat disproven empirically due to the occurrence of stagflation in the 1970s, when there were high levels of both inflation and unemployment. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 37

With reference to Small Finance Banks (SFB), consider the following statements:

  1. They are subject to the norms of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).

  2. At least 25 percent of its branches shall be in unbanked rural centers.

  3. Priority sector must comprise 75% of their net credit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 37
  • The Small Finance Bank (SFB) is a private financial institution intended to further the objective of financial inclusion by primarily undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of deposits and lending to un-served and underserved sections including small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganized sector entities, but without any restriction in the area of operations, unlike Regional Rural Banks or Local Area Banks.

  • Small Finance Banks were created pursuant to the announcement in Union Budget 2014-2015.

  • Eligibility to Setup SFB:

    • Resident individuals/professionals with 10 years of experience in banking and finance and companies and societies owned and controlled by residents will be eligible to set up small finance banks.

    • Existing Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs) that are owned and controlled by residents can also opt for conversion into small finance banks.

  • Conditions:

    • The minimum capital for SFBs is prescribed at Rs. 100 crore with an initial contribution of 40% coming from the promoters, which over a period of 12 years, have to be reduced to 26%.

    • Foreign Investment is permitted as in the case of other private sector commercial banks.

    • After the small finance bank reaches the net worth of Rs.500 crore, listing its shares on a stock exchange will be mandatory within three years of reaching that net worth.

  • Regulations:

    • They are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI as applicable to existing commercial banks like maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    • They are required to extend 75 percent of its Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    • At least 50 percent of its loan portfolio should constitute loans and advances of up to Rs. 25 lakh.

    • It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities.

    • It is stipulated that at least 25 percent of its branches shall be in unbanked rural centers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Other function which can be performed by SFB:

    • Distribution of mutual fund units, insurance products, pension products, etc.

    • They can also become a Category II Authorized Dealer in foreign exchange business for its clients’ requirements.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 38

With reference to the tax-to-GDP ratio, consider the following statements:

1. A low tax-to-GDP ratio indicates more spending on infrastructure creation, hence a better financial position for the country

2. Developed nations typically have lower tax-to-GDP ratios than developing nations.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 38
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Tax-to-GDP ratio represents the size of a country's tax kitty relative to its GDP. It is a representation of the size of the government's tax revenue expressed as a percentage of the GDP. The higher the tax to GDP ratio the better the financial position the country will be in. The ratio represents that the government is able to finance its expenditure. A higher tax to GDP ratio means that the government is able to cast its fiscal net wide. It reduces a government's dependence on borrowings.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: Developed nations typically have higher tax-to-GDP ratios than developing nations.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘School Education Quality Index’ (SEQI):

  1. IthasbeendevelopedbytheMinistryofSkills Development and Entrepreneurship(MSDE) to evaluate the performance of States and Union Territories (UTs) in schools.

  2. Kerala and Manipur have bagged the top spot.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 39
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. SEQI has been developed by NITI Aayog to evaluate the performance of States and Union Territories (UTs) in the school education sector. It has been developed through a collaborative process including key stakeholders such as the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), the World Bank and sector experts.

Statement2 Correct. Among The Large states, Kerala bagged the top spot while Uttar Pradesh scored the lowest. Among the smaller states Manipur bagged the top spot whereas Arunachal Pradesh came last. KB) NITI Aayog has released the first edition of the School Education Quality Index (SEQI).

About SEQI:

  • SEQI has been developed by NITIAayog to evaluate the performance of States and UnionTerritories (UTs) in the school education sector.

  • It has been developed through a collaborative process including key stakeholders such as the Ministry of Human Resource Development(MHRD), the World Banking Sector Experts.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 40

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was established on recommendations of the National Police Commission (1977-1981).

  2. Bureau has been entrusted to maintain National Database of Sexual Offenders (NDSO).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 40
  • National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) established on the recommendations of the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task Force (1985). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • NCRB has also been designated as the Central Nodal Agency to manage technical and operational functions of the ‘Online Cyber-Crime Reporting Portal’ through which any citizen can lodge a complaint or upload a video clip as an evidence of crime related to child pornography, rape/gang rape. The Bureau has been entrusted to maintain National Database of Sexual Offenders (NDSO) and share it with the States/UTs on regular basis. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 41

Which of the following are excluded from the National Income to calculate Personal Income?

  1. Corporate Tax

  2. Personal Tax payments

  3. Transfer payments to the households from the Government

  4. Undistributed profits

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 41
  • We can subdivide the National Income into smaller categories. The part of NI which is received by households is called Personal Income (PI). It is calculated as follows.

  • First, out of NI, which is earned by the firms and government enterprises, a part of the profit is not distributed among the factors of production. This is called Undistributed Profits (UP). We have to deduct UP from NI to arrive at PI since UP does not accrue to the households.

  • Similarly, Corporate Tax, which is imposed on the earnings made by the firms, will also have to be deducted from the NI, since it does not accrue to the households.

  • On the other hand, the households do receive interest payments from private firms or the government on past loans advanced by them. And households may have to pay interests to the firms and the government as well, in case they had borrowed money from either. So we have to deduct the net interests paid by the households to the firms and government.

  • The households receive transfer payments from the government and firms (pensions, scholarships, prizes, for example) which have to be added to calculate the Personal Income of the households.

  • Thus, Personal Income (PI) ≡ NI – Undistributed profits – Net interest payments made by households – Corporate tax + Transfer payments to the households from the government and firms.

  • However, even PI is not the income over which the households have complete say as they have to pay taxes from PI. If we deduct the Personal Tax Payments (income tax, for example) and Non-tax Payments (such as fines) from PI, we obtain what is known as the Personal Disposable Income. So Personal Income includes tax payments.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 42

With reference to Trade Balance, consider the following statements:

1. Increase in number of tourists may result in a positive ‘trade balance’.

2. Depreciation of the Rupee will lead to a positive ‘trade balance’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 42

Explanation:

1. An increase in the number of tourists visiting a country can lead to a positive trade balance because tourists spend money on goods and services in the country they visit. This increases the country's exports, which in turn can lead to a positive trade balance if the value of exports exceeds the value of imports.

2. Depreciation of the Rupee means that the value of the Rupee decreases relative to other currencies. This makes the country's exports cheaper for foreign buyers, which can lead to an increase in exports. If the increase in exports is greater than the increase in imports, it can lead to a positive trade balance.

 

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 43

The process where all the outstanding demands of Budget are directly put to vote Without further discussion in the House is known As:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 43
Option (b) is the correct answer. Guillotine is the process in which the Speaker puts all the outstanding demands made by the Budget directly to vote in the House—ending further discussions(intended to cut short the discussion on the Budget).

Thus, the Speaker may put the whole Budget to vote (i.e., allowing ‘no discussion’ on the Budget by the House). In Recent years ,this route was taken time and again by the Government of India, to avoid the aggressive mood of the Opposition. KB) Policy Cut motion intends to ‘reduce the demand to Re. 1’. This represents disapproval of the policy underlying the demand—the discussion remains confined to the particular policy and is open to members to advocate an alternate policy.

Simple Closure is a Closure motion, where a member moves the motion that the ‘matter having been sufficiently discussed be now put to vote’. Kangaroo Closure is a Closure motion,where only important clauses are taken up for discussion and voting and intervening clauses are skipped and taken as passed.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 44

In the context of rainfall in India, consider the following statements:

1. There is an increase in rainfall generally from east to west in the Northern Plains.

2. The Coromandel coast receives most of its rain during October and November.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 44
  • In India, majority of the rainfall is received during the South West Monsoon (SWM) in the months of June, July, August and September. These SWM winds travel from the Indian Ocean to bring rainfall to the North East and the West coast of India. Statement 1 is incorrect. As we move away from north east towards the northern plains, the intensity of rainfall decreases. The SWM winds after striking the northeast turn towards the northern plains due to the ‘syntaxial bend of Himalayas’. Rainfall thus decreases from east to west in the northern plains because of progressive decrease in the humidity of the winds.

  • As the moisture bearing winds of the Bay of Bengal branch moves further and further inland, they exhaust most of the moisture along the way. The regions of Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura receives higher rainfall as compared to the northern regions of UP, Bihar, Northern Madhya Pradesh etc. Statement no.2 is correct. The Coromandel coast of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu receives rainfall in the winter season due to northeast trade winds. A part of northeast trade wind blows over Bay of Bengal and gather moisture which causes rainfall in the coromandel coast. The normal annual rainfall of the state is about 945 mm (37.2 in) of which 48% is through the North East monsoon.

  • During October-November, with the apparent movement of the sun towards the south, the monsoon trough or the low-pressure trough over the northern plains becomes weaker. This is gradually replaced by a high-pressure system. The south-west monsoon winds weaken and start withdrawing gradually. By the beginning of October, the monsoon withdraws from the Northern Plains. This leads to the onset of the North East winds from the high-pressure belt (now formed) over the northern plains and results in rainfall on the SouthEast coast of India (Coromandel coast - Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu). In the second half of October, the mercury begins to fall rapidly in northern India. The low- pressure conditions, over northwestern India, get transferred to the Bay of Bengal by early November.

  • This shift is associated with the occurrence of cyclonic depressions, which originate over the Andaman Sea. These cyclones generally cross the eastern coasts of India causing heavy and widespread rain. These tropical cyclones are often very destructive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri are frequently struck by these cyclones, which causes great damage to life and property. The bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel Coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with reference to Himalayas:

  1. Greater Himalayas receives less rainfall than lesser Himalayas.

  2. Longitudinal Valleys between Shiwalik and lesser Himalayas are known as Dun or Doon.

  3. Himalayas is broader in west but narrows towards the east.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 45
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct. The Greater Himalayas receives less rainfall as compared to lesser Himalayas and Shiwalik.
  • Statement 2 is correct. Duars are floodplains and foothills of Himalayas in North-Eastern state Assam and northern part of West Bengal. The altitude of this region varies widely with as low as 90 m and as high as 1,750 m. The similar region in Nepal and North India is termed Terai.
  • Statement 3 is correct. Western Himalayas is wider than the Eastern Himalayas. It narrows down towards Eastern Himalayas but its altitude increases towards the east.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

  1. Intertropical convergence represents the meeting ground of north-east and south-east trade winds.

  2. Intertropical convergence is the region of ascending air, maximum clouds and heavy rainfall throughout the year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 46
  • The equatorial or tropical fronts are called intertropical fronts (ITF) or intertropical convergence (ITC). These fronts represent the meeting ground of north-east and south-east trade winds. This convergence zone lies more or less parallel to the equator but moves north or south with the apparent movement of the sun. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • As these winds converge, moist air is forced upward, producing cumulus clouds and heavy precipitation. These clouds occur in scattered masses about 100 km across.

  • Thus it is the region of ascending air, maximum clouds and heavy rainfall. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • The northern and southern boundaries of intertropical convergence are called north intertropical convergence (NITC) and south intertropical convergence (SITC) respectively.

  • On an average, there is westerly air circulation (from west to east) in the doldrums or say in the intertropical convergence. These westerly winds have been called by Flohn as equatorial westerlies. The equatorial westerlies are associated with strong atmospheric disturbances (cyclonic storms).

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 47

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the given countries in the decreasing order of their population density?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 47
  • The ratio between the numbers of people to the size of the land is the density of population. It is usually measured in persons per sq km.

    • Density of Population = Population / Area

  • For example, area of Region X is 100 sq km and the population is 1,50,000 persons. The density of population is calculated as:

    • Density = 1,50,000 / 100 = 1,500 person/sq km

  • The densely populated parts of the world with more than 200 persons on every sq km are the North- Eastern part of U.S.A., North-Western part of Europe, South, South-East and East Asia. For example, England- 432, China - 153 persons per sq km.

  • Other areas like those near the North and South Poles, the hot and the cold deserts and high rainfall zones near the Equator have a very low density of population. These are the sparsely populated regions of the world with less than 01 person per sq km. For example, Canada- 4 persons per square km.

  • In between these two types are the areas of medium density. There are 11 to 50 persons per sq km in these areas. Norway, Sweden in Europe, South Africa (48 persons per sq km) are some examples.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 48

The character and extent of vegetation of a region is mainly determined by which of the

following factors?

1. Temperature

2. Photoperiod

3. Relief

4. Precipitation

5. Soil

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 48
  • The character and extent of vegetation are mainly determined by temperature along with humidity in the air, precipitation and soil. Temperature: On the slopes of the Himalayas and the hills of the Peninsula above the height of 915 metres, the fall in the temperature affects the types of vegetation and its growth, and changes it from tropical to subtropical to temperate and alpine vegetation.

Photoperiod:

  • The variation in duration of sunlight at different places is due to differences in latitude, altitude, season and the duration of the day. Due to longer duration of sunlight, trees grow faster in summer.

Precipitation:

  • In India almost, the entire rainfall is brought in by the advancing southwest monsoon (June to September) and retreating northeast monsoons. Areas of heavy rainfall have more dense vegetation as compared to other areas of less rainfall.

Land (Relief):

  • Land affects the natural vegetation directly and indirectly. The nature of land influences the type of vegetation. The fertile level is generally devoted to agriculture. The undulating and rough terrains are areas where grassland and woodlands develop and give shelter to a variety of wildlife. Soil: The soils also vary over space. Different types of soils provide basis for different types of vegetation. The sandy soils of the desert support cactus and thorny bushes while wet, marshy, deltaic soils support mangroves and deltaic vegetation. The hill slopes with some depth of soil have conical trees. Thus all the options are correct and hence answer is option (d).

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 49

Consider the following statements:

  1. Peninsular India was part of Gondwanaland.

  2. All the rocks in Peninsular India are from the Precambrian period.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 49
Option (b) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct. The origin of rocks of Peninsular India is more than 3600 million years old. Before the carboniferous period, it was a part of Gondwanaland.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Peninsular India exhibits a complex system of geological structures. It has some of the oldest rocks of the world from the Precambrian period and some youngest rocks of the Holocene epoch.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 50

Consider the following statements with respect to Mascarene High:

  1. It is a high-pressure area located near the Mascarene Islands in the southern Indian Ocean.

  2. Arrival of Indian Monsoon may be delayed due to delays in the formation of Mascarene High.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 50
  • Mascarene High: This high-pressure region located between 25°S-35°S and 40°E-90°E near the Mascarene Islands in the southern Indian Ocean is a source of Southwest monsoon in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Since, it is a high pressure area, it is also known as Mascarene high. This is responsible for cross-equatorial flow through south Arabian Sea and it acts as southern hemispheric linkage. The variation in the intensity of High Pressure causes monsoon surges across equatorial flow. These surges are responsible for heavy rains along the west coast.

  • If there is a delay in the formation of Mascarene High there is a possibility of delay in the onset of Indian Monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 51

Consider the following statements with reference to sweet crude oil and sour crude oil:

  1. Sweet crude contains a higher amount of sulfur than sour crude.

  2. While Venezuela is a leading producer of sour crude, the Appalachian Basin in North America is a major sweet-crude location.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 51
Classification of crude oil:
  • Crude oil may be referred to as sweet crude if it contains relatively little sulfur (0.5%) or sour crude if it contains substantial amounts of sulfur.

  • Iraq is one of the leading producers of sweet crude.

  • Major locations where sweet crude is found include the Appalachian Basin in Eastern North America, Western Texas, the Bakken Formation of North Dakota and Saskatchewan, the North Sea of Europe, North Africa, Australia, and the Far East including Indonesia.

  • Sour crude, on the other hand, has a high level of impurities in it, namely sulfur, which must first be removed before being processed into gas and other petroleum-based products.

  • Venezuela is a leading producer of sour crude oil. Sour crude is more common in the Gulf of Mexico, Mexico, South America, and Canada.

  • Crude produced by OPEC Member Nations also tends to be relatively sour, with an average sulfur content of 1.77%.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 52

With reference to Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) , consider the following statements:

1. It helps to make the diesel generator less dependent on surface air.

2. It offers the possibility of increasing underwater endurance .

3. It has a force multiplier effect on the lethality of a diesel electric submarine .

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 52

Recently ,French company Naval Group announced that it is unable to participate in India's P-75I project due to conditions mentioned in the request for proposal (RFP) related to the Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system. Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct :

  • AIP is a mechanism that allows the batteries to be charged even while the boat is submerged.

    • However, even with AIP, the submarine needs to surface every three weeks or so.

  • It offers the possibility of increasing underwater endurance by a factor of up to 3 or 4, which reduces the indiscretion ratio significantly”.

  • It has a force multiplier effect on lethality of a diesel electric submarine as it enhances the submerged endurance of the boat several fold.

    • Fuel cell-based AIP has merits in performance compared to other technologies.

  • It helps to make the diesel generator less dependent on surface air.

  • India has been working to develop AIP technology indigenously as well.

    • There are different types of AIP mechanisms available and India is looking for the P-75I project is AIP based on fuel cells.

    • These cells convert chemical energy into electrical energy, recharging the batteries of the submarine.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 53

Consider the following statements regarding fast track courts:

  1. Fast track courts are set up by the Central government in consultation with the Supreme Court of India.

  2. Judges are appointed on an ad hoc basis by the Concerned High Courts.

  3. The Central government provides funds for these courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 53
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Fast Track courts are established by the state governments in consultation with the respective High Courts.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The judges for these courts are appointed on an ad hoc basis, selected by the High Courts of the respective states.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no central funding to Fast track courts after 2011. However, the state governments could establish FTCs from their own funds.

About Fast Track Courts

They were established in the year 2000, to expeditiously dispose of long pending cases in the Sessions Courts and long pending cases of under trial prisoners in a time bound manner.

The 11th Finance Commission recommended the creation of 1734 FTCs in the country.

The 14th Finance Commission endorsed the proposal for setting up 1800 FTCs at a cost of Rs.4144.00 crores. It also urged the State Governments to utilize the enhanced devolution of central taxes from 32% to 42% to fund this effort. As on December 2018, 699 FTCs are functional across the country.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 54

Consider the following statements with respect to the Sub-tropical high-pressure belt:

  1. Sub-tropical high-pressure belt is caused due to the rotation of the earth and sinking and settling down of winds.

  2. Sub-tropical high-pressure belt is characterized by cyclonic conditions.

  3. The pressure belts occupy their normal ideal position at the time of the vernal equinox and autumnal equinox when the sun is vertical at the equator.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 54
  • Sub-Tropical high-pressure belt is not thermally induced because this zone, besides two to three winter months, receives fairly high temperature throughout the year. Thus, this belt owes its origin to the rotation of the earth and sinking and settling down of winds. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • It is, thus, apparent that the sub-tropical high-pressure belt is dynamically induced. This zone is characterized by anticyclonic conditions which cause atmospheric stability and aridity. This is one of the reasons for the presence of hot deserts of the world in the western parts of the continents in a zone extending between 25 degree – 35 degree in both the hemispheres. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • This zone of high pressure is called ‘horse latitude’ because of the prevalence of frequent calms. There are daily, seasonal and annual changes in the pressure because of the northward and southward movement of the overhead sun (summer and winter solstices), contrasting nature of heating and cooling of land and water etc.

  • Expect polar high-pressure belt all the pressure belts move northward with the northward movement of the Sun during the summer solstice. On the other hand, except the polar high-pressure belt, all the belts move southward due to southward movement of the sun during winter solstice when the sun is vertical at the tropic of Capricorn.

  • The pressure belt occupies a normal ideal position at the time of vernal equinox (21 March) and the autumnal equinox (23 September) when the sun is vertical at the equator. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 55

Which of the following agrarian reforms were undertaken by the Government of India immediately after independence?

  1. Abolition of the zamindari system.

  2. Tenancy abolition and regulation acts.

  3. Regulation of land acquisition.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 55
  • From the 1950s to the 1970s, a series of land reform laws were passed – at the national level as well as in the states – that were intended to bring reform in the agrarian structure, especially in the landholding system and the distribution of land.

  • The first important legislation was the abolition of the zamindari system, which removed the layer of intermediaries who stood between the cultivators and the state. Of all the land reform laws that were passed, this was probably the most effective, for in most areas it succeeded in taking away the superior rights of the zamindars over the land and weakening their economic and political power. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Among the other major land reform laws that were introduced were the tenancy abolition and regulation acts. They attempted either to outlaw tenancy altogether or to regulate rents to give some security to the tenants. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The third major category of land reform laws was the Land Ceiling Acts. These laws imposed an upper limit on the amount of land that can be owned by a particular family. The ceiling varies from region to region, depending on the kind of land, its productivity, and other such factors. Very productive land has a low ceiling while unproductive dry land has a higher ceiling limit. According to these acts, the state is supposed to identify and take possession of surplus land (above the ceiling limit) held by each household and redistribute it to landless families and households in other specified categories, such as SCs and STs.

  • The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (also Land Acquisition Act, 2013) was passed to regulate the land acquisition process and lay down the procedure and rules for granting compensation, rehabilitation, and resettlement to the affected persons in India. The Act has provisions to provide fair compensation to those whose land is taken away, brings transparency to the process of acquisition of land to set up factories or buildings, infrastructural projects, and assures rehabilitation of those affected. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 56

If you travel from Jammu and kashmir to Mizoram, what is the minimum number of states within India through which you can travel, excluding the origin and destination?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 56

Option (b) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 57

Consider the following statement regarding Gross enrolment ratio (GER):

  1. It is the number of students enrolled in a given level of education as a percentage of the total population of that age.

  2. It is always equal to or less than 100 percent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 57
  • Statement 1 is correct. It is the number of students enrolled in a given level of education as a percentage of the total population of that age.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. It can be greater than 100% if students from outside the official age group are also enrolled.

About Gross Enrollment Ratio

Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) or Gross Enrollment Index (GEI) is a statistical measure used in the education sector, and formerly by the UN in its Education Index, to determine the number of students enrolled in school at several different grade levels (like elementary, middle school and high school), and use it to show the ratio of the number of students who live in that country to those who qualify for the particular grade level. The United

Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), describes ‘Gross Enrolment Ratio’ as the total enrolment within a country ‘in a specific level of education, regardless of age, expressed as a percentage of the population in the official age group corresponding to this level of education.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 58

Consider the following statements with respect to latitudes:

  1. All latitudes are parallel to the Equator.

  2. The distance between two latitudes differed by one degree is approximately 10 kilometres.

  3. The latitudes in the region of equatorial low pressure belt are known as horse latitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 58
  • The latitude of a place on the earth’s surface is its distance north or south of the equator, measured along the meridian of that place as an angle from the centre of the earth. Lines joining places with the same latitudes are called parallels. The value of equator is 0° and the latitude of the poles are 90°N and 90°S. All latitudes are parallel to the Equator. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • On a globe, parallels of latitudes appear as circles. If the earth were a perfect sphere, the length of 10 of latitude (a one degree arc of a meridian) would be a constant value, i.e. 111 km everywhere on the earth. But to be precise, a degree of latitude changes slightly in length from the equator to the poles. While at the equator, it is 110.6 km at the poles, it is 111.7 km. Hence statement 2 is not correct. • The latitudes from the equator to the poles are used to demarcate temperature zones, i.e. 0° to 23 1⁄2° north and south as the torrid zone, 23 1⁄2° to 66 1⁄2° as the temperate zone and 66 1⁄2° to 90° as the frigid zone.

  • Horse latitudes are the subtropical latitudes between 30 and 35 degrees both north and south where Earth's atmosphere is dominated by the subtropical high pressure zone which suppresses precipitation and cloud formation, and has variable winds mixed with calm winds. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 59

Consider the following statements with respect to social indicators in India:

  1. The life expectancy at birth in males is higher than the females.

  2. Child Sex Ratio in economically developed states like Haryana and Punjab is more than the national average.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 59
  • India has done reasonably well in some of the health indicators like the decline in the death rate from 25.1 per thousand in 1951 to 6.5 per thousand in 2015 and infant mortality from 148 per thousand to 37 during the same period. Similarly, it also succeeded in increasing life expectancy at birth from 37.1 years to 66.9 years for males and 36.2 to 70 years for females from 1951 to 2015. Though these are great achievements, a lot needs to be done. Similarly, it has also done reasonably well in bringing down the birth rate from 40.8 to 20.8 during the same years, but it still is much higher than many developed countries. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • The situation is more alarming when seen in the context of gender-specific and rural and urban health indicators. India has recorded a declining female sex ratio. The findings of the 2011 Census of India are very disturbing particularly in the case of the child sex ratio (919) in the age group of 0-6 years. The other significant features of the report are, with the exception of Kerala, the child sex ratio has declined in all the states and it is the most alarming in the developed state of Haryana (834) and Punjab (846) where it is below 850 female children per thousand male children. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 60

Consider the statements regarding ‘Pseudopodia’:

1. They are present in organisms or cells for the purpose of ingestion.

2. White Blood Cell is an example of pseudopodia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 60
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: A pseudopod or pseudopodia is a temporary arm-like projection of a eukaryotic cell membrane. Pseudopods are used for motility and ingestion. They are often found in amoebas. It keeps on changing its shape. The projections of varying lengths protrude out of the body. These are called pseudopodia (pseudo: false; podia: feet).

Statement 2 is correct: A white blood cell (WBC) in human blood is another example of a single cell which can change its shape.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 61

Consider the following statements with reference to Reverse Osmosis (RO):

  1. In RO the total dissolved solids (TDS) in water, which covers trace chemicals, viruses, bacteria and salts can be reduced to meet potable water standards.

  2. The UV radiation in RO quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of the water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 61
  • Reverse Osmosis is a technology that is used to remove a large majority of contaminants from water by pushing the water under pressure through a semi-permeable membrane.

  • Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in water are some organic and inorganic materials, which include minerals and ions that are dissolved in a particular quantity in water. When water passes through stones, pipes or different surfaces, the particles are absorbed into the water. TDS in water can come from different sources such as minerals in chemicals used for treating water, runoff from the road salts and chemicals or fertilizers from the farms.

  • Water that has a TDS level of more than 1000mg/L is unfit for consumption. A high level of TDS in water can lead to a number of health problems. The presence of potassium, sodium, chlorides increases the TDS level in the water. However, the presence of toxic ions such as lead, nitrate, cadmium, and arsenic present in water can lead to a number of serious health problems. This is especially important for children because they are much more sensitive to contaminants because their defence systems have not fully developed. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Several types of devices are used to improve the aesthetic qualities of drinking water and to remove chemicals. Activated carbon filters are the most common, they are more effective in removing organic chemicals. They are often used to improve taste, smell and appearance. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • The desalinated water that is demineralized or deionized, is called permeate (or product) water. The water stream that carries the concentrated contaminants that did not pass through the RO membrane is called the reject (or concentrate) stream.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 62

Which of the following are the beneficial uses of bacteria?

  1. Sewage treatment

  2. Production of medicines

  3. Increasing soil fertility

  4. Vaccine development

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 62
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The microorganisms like aerobic and anaerobic bacteria are used in sewage treatment plants. They breakdown the organic matter, thereby reducing the organic content of the sewage along with the Biological Oxygen Demand of the treated sewage water. The treated sewage water then becomes fit to be released to the natural water bodies. Cleaning of environment - In nature, microorganisms decompose dead organic waste of plants and animals converting them into simple substances. These substances are again used by other plants and animals. Thus, microorganisms can be used to degrade the harmful and smelly substances and thereby clean up the environment.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Many medicines are sourced from microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi.

    • Such medicines called, antibiotics, kill or stop the growth of the disease-causing microorganisms.

    • These days a number of antibiotics are being produced from bacteria and fungi. Streptomycin, tetracycline and erythromycin are some of the commonly known antibiotics which are made from fungi and bacteria.

    • The antibiotics are manufactured by growing specific microorganisms and are used to cure a variety of diseases.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Bacteria can be used for increasing the fertility of soils as some bacteria are able to fix nitrogen from the atmosphere to enrich soil with nitrogen and increase its fertility. These microbes are commonly called biological nitrogen fixers.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Vaccination development is one of the most important uses of bacteria. These days vaccines are made on a large scale from microorganisms to protect humans and other animals from several diseases.

    • Several diseases, including cholera, tuberculosis, smallpox and hepatitis can be prevented by vaccination. A vaccine works by training the immune system to recognize and combat pathogens, either viruses or bacteria.

    • To do this, certain molecules from the pathogen must be introduced into the body to trigger an immune response. These molecules are called antigens, and they are present on all viruses and bacteria.

  • Other benefits of micro-organisms:

    • Commercial production of alcohol and wines use Yeast. Yeasts are the main fermenter and alcohol producer in the production of wine, beer and other alcohol drinks. The main yeast species used is Saccharomyces cerevisiae. It ferments the sugars, coming from different sources, e.g., grapes for wine, barley for beer, to alcohol and carbon dioxide.

    • Bacteria and yeast are helpful for fermentation of rice idlis and dosa batter.

    • Formation of curd: Curd contains several microorganisms. Of these, the bacterium, Lactobacillus promotes the formation of curd. It multiplies in milk and converts it into curd. Bacteria are also involved in the making of cheese, pickles and many other food items.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 63

Consider the following statements:

1. Azospirillum and Azotobacter are fungi that can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free living in the soi.

2. Anabaena and Nostoc serve as important biofertilizers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 63
Option (b) is the correct answer. Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. The main sources of biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. Some examples are -

Statement 1 is incorrect. Bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free-living in the soil (examples Azospirillum and Azotobacter), thus enriching the nitrogen content of the soil. Fungi are also known to form symbiotic associations with plants (mycorrhiza). Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza. The fungal symbiont in these associations absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant. Plants having such associations show other benefits also, such as resistance to root-borne pathogens, tolerance to salinity and drought, and an overall increase in plant growth and development.

Statement 2 is correct. Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in aquatic and terrestrial environments many of which can fix atmospheric nitrogen, e.g. Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria, etc. In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important bio fertilizer. Blue green algae also add organic matter to the soil and increase its fertility.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 64

The scientific name for Human beings is Homo sapiens Consider the following statements regarding Homosapiens:

  1. Homo indicates the class to which human beings belong.

  2. Sapiens indicates the species to which human beings belong.

  3. All human beings belong to the kingdom Animalia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 64
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Homo indicates the genus of human beings.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Human beings belong to the species sapiens.

  • Statement 3 is correct: All human beings belong to kingdom Animalia. All animals belonging to various phyla are assigned to the highest category called Kingdom Animalia in the classification system of animals.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 65

Consider the following statements:

  1. Manure provides humus to soil while fertilizer does not provide any humus to soil.

  2. Fertilizers are man-made inorganic salts while manure is an organic substance.

  3. Manure is very rich in plant nutrients while fertilizers are relatively less rich.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 65
Option a is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Manure provides humus to soil while fertilizer does not provide any humus to soil.

  • Statement 2 is correct: While fertilizers are man-made inorganic salts, manure is an organic substance.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Fertilizers are very rich in plant nutrients while manure is relatively less rich.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 66

Consider the following statements:

1. The Periodic Table is arranged according to similar chemical properties only.

2. ‘Dmitry Mendeleev’ published the first Periodic Table.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 3 - Question 66
Option (b) is the correct answer.

The United Nations General Assembly during its 74th Plenary Meeting proclaimed 2019 as the International Year of the Periodic Table of Chemical Elements. UNESCO has launched the International Year of The Periodic Table.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Periodic Table, also known as the periodic table of elements is a tabular display of the chemical elements, which are arranged by atomic number, electron configuration, and recurring chemical properties. The structure of the table shows periodic trends. The seven rows of the table, called periods, generally have metals on the left and nonmetals on the right. The columns, called groups, contain elements with similar chemical behaviours.

Statement 2 is correct. 1869 is considered as the year of discovery of the Periodic System by the Russian scientist, Dmitri Mendeleev.