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Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - HPSC (Haryana) MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Haryana Civil Services Mock Test Series - Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5

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Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Objective Resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru?

1. India is an independent, sovereign, republic.

2. The land would make a full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind.

3. The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards.

4. All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

Objective Resolutions:

  • India is an independent, sovereign, republic. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other parts outside British India and the Indian States as are willing to be a part of the Union.
  • Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in the Union.
  • All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
  • All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic, and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before the law; and fundamental freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association, and action subject to the law and public morality.
  • The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea, and air shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations.
  • The land would make a full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind. 

 

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following

Statements:

  1. They are fundamental in governance of the country.

  2. DPSP along with the Fundamental Rights aim at establishing socio-political democracy in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 2
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: DPSPs are fundamental in governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. They are fundamental because they provide a roadmap and vision for the country.They also help courts in determining the constitutional validity of a law despite them being non-Justiciable.

  • Statement 2 is correct: While fundamental rights aim to establish political democracy, Directive principles aim at establishing social and economic democracy. Thus, together they establish Socio-political democracy in the country.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

All citizens enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country. But citizens can be discriminated in which of the following cases?

  1. When Parliament prescribes residence within a state as a condition for employment.

  2. When a state provides for special benefits to its residents in relation to rights not given by the Constitution to the Indian citizen.

  3. To protect the interests of any scheduled tribe.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 3
  • In India, all citizens irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country and no discrimination is made between them.

  • However, this general rule of absence of discrimination is subject to some exceptions, viz,

    • The Parliament (under Article 16) can prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that state or union territory. Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Act, 1957. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    • The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means that the state can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that do not come withinthe purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens. For example, a state may offer concession in fees for education to its residents. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    • The freedom of movement and residence (under Article 19) is subjected to the protection of interests of any schedule tribe. In other words, the right of outsiders to enter, reside and settle in tribal areas is restricted. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    • In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the state legislature is empowered to define the persons who are permanent residents of the state and confer any special rights and privileges in matters of employment under the state government, acquisition of immovable property in the state etc

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

With reference to the Division of Powers, consider the following statements:

  1. There is a clear demarcation of subjects between the Union and the States in the Constitution.

  2. The economic and financial powers are centralized in the hands of the Central government by the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 4
There are two sets of government created by the Indian Constitution: one for the entire nation called the union government (central government) and one for each unit or State called the State government. Both of these have a constitutional status and clearly identified area of activity.

Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution clearly demarcates subjects, which are under the exclusive domain of the Union and those under the States. If there is any dispute about which powers come under the control of the union and which under the States, this can be resolved by the Judiciary on the basis of the constitutional provisions.

Statement 2 is correct. One of the important aspects of this division of powers is that economic and financial powers are centralized in the hands of the central government by the Constitution. The States have immense responsibilities but very meager revenue sources.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

  1.  

    Article 125(1) of the Constitution provides that the salaries and allowances of the Judges are not subjected to the Legislature's approval.

  2.  

    A Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of violation of the Constitution.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the salaries and allowances of the judges are determined by the Parliament. Article 125(1) of the Indian Constitution states that the salaries and allowances of the Judges shall be determined by the Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule.

Statement 2 is also incorrect because a Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity, not merely on the ground of violation of the Constitution. This is specified under Article 124(4) for Supreme Court judges and under Article 217(1)(b) for High Court judges. The removal process requires a special majority (two-thirds majority) in both houses of Parliament.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding SHREYAS scheme:

  1. It has been launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) in collaboration with the United Nations Development Program (UNDP).

  2. It aims to link the student community with employment efforts of the Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 6
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. SHREYAS – Scheme for Higher Education Youth for Apprenticeship and Skills was launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) in collaboration with the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Statement 2 is correct. It aims to:

(a) To improve the employability of students by introducing employment relevance into the learning process of the higher education system

(b) To forge a close functional link between education and industry/service sectors on a sustainable basis

(c)To provide skills which are in demand, to the students in a dynamic manner

(d) To establish an ‘earn while you learn’ system into higher education

(e) To help business/industry in securing good quality manpower and

(f) To link student community with employment facilitating efforts of the Government.

SHREYAS portal will enable educational institutions and industry to log in and provide their respective demand and supply of apprenticeship.

The State Governments are expected to play a major role in securing apprenticeship opportunities, apart from the Sector Skill Councils, so that general degree students passing out can gain the option of industry & service sector apprenticeship.

Sector Skill Councils are set up as autonomous industry-led bodies by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), which are responsible for defining the skilling needs, concept, processes, certification, and accreditation of their respective industry sectors in accordance with National Skill Qualification Framework.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency:

  1. Approval of parliament is necessary for the revocation of the National Emergency.

  2. Maximum time period for the operation of the National Emergency is three years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 7
  • A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.

  • If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

  • Additional Information:

    • National Emergency: National emergency can be declared on the basis of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. The Constitution employs the expression ‘proclamation of emergency’ to denote an emergency of this type.

    • Grounds of declaration: Under Article 352, the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

    • The President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or armed rebellion or external aggression

  • Parliamentary approval and duration

    • The proclamation of emergency must be approved by both the houses of parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the houses, the Emergency continues for 6 months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.

    • Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority.

  • Effects of national emergency

    • A proclamation of Emergency has drastic and wide-ranging effects on the political system. These consequences can be grouped into 3 categories:

    • Effects on the centre-state relations: While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of the Centre-State relations undergoes a basic change. this can be studied under three heads:

    • Executive: Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter

    • Legislative: The parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list, the president can issue ordinances on State subjects also, if the parliament is not in session. The laws made on state subjects by the parliament become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to be in operation.

    • Financial: the president can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states

  • Effect on the life of the Lok Sabha and State Assembly:

    • While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond the normal term for one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

    • Similarly, the Parliament may extend the normal tenure of a state Legislative Assembly by one year each time during a national emergency, subject to a maximum period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

    • Effect on fundamental rights: Articles 358 and 359 describes the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. These two provisions are explained below:

      (i) Suspension of Fundamental rights under Article 19: According to Article 358, when a proclamation of National Emergency is made, the six fundamental rights under article 19 are automatically suspended. Article 19 is automatically revived after the expiry of the emergency.

      (ii) The 44th Amendment Act laid out that Article 19 can only be suspended when the National Emergency is laid on the grounds of war or external aggression and not in the case of armed rebellion.

  • Suspension of other Fundamental Rights: Under Article 359, the President is authorised to suspend, by order, the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. Thus, remedial measures are suspended and not the Fundamental Rights.

  • The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order.

  • The suspension could be for the period during the operation of emergency or for a shorter period.

  • The Order should be laid before each House of Parliament for approval.

  • The 44 Amendment Act mandates that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 20 and 21.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. The governor of a state is required to constitute a State Finance Commission every five years.

  2. The office of the State Election Commissioner is under the control of the Election Commission of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 8
Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the governor of a state is required to constitute a Finance Commission every five years. This Commission would examine the financial position of the local governments in the State. It would also review the distribution of revenues between the State and local governments on the one hand and between rural and urban local governments on the other.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The office of the State Election Commissioner is autonomous like the Election Commission of India. It is an independent office and is not linked to nor is this office under the control of the Election Commission of India.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):

  1. It seeks to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities.

  2. It specifies the inclusion or exclusion of castes in the list of Scheduled Castes.

  3. It presents to the President an annual report on the working on safeguards for Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 9
National Commission for Scheduled castes (NCSC) is a Constitutional Body established by article 338 of the Constitution. The separate NCSC came into existence in 2004. 89th Constitutional amendment act of 2003 bifurcated it from National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. It consists of Chairperson, vice-chairperson and three other members. they are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand.
  • Statement 1 is correct: It provides safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities. It aims to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural interests provided in the Constitution. It also participates in the planning process of the socio-economic development of SCs and Anglo Indians.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: The President specifies what castes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs. But any inclusion or exclusion of any caste from presidential notification can be done by parliament only. NCSC has an advisory role only in this regard.

  • Statement 3 is correct: It presents to the President, annually and at such other times as it may deem fit, reports upon safeguards of SCs and Anglo Indians. It also discharges such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and development of SCs as the President may specify.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding 123rd Constitutional Amendment bill:

  1. It grants the National Commission on Backward Classes (NCBC) constitutional status by inserting a new article 338 B in the Constitution.

  2. It states that the Governor may specify the socially and educationally backward classes in their respective states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 10
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Central government has proposed to constitute a new backward classes commission after the term of National Commission for Other Backward Classes (NCBC) ended.

Statement 1 is correct. Parliament has passed the Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill which grants the National Commission on Backward Classes (NCBC) constitutional status by inserting a new article 338 B in the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bill states that the President may specify the socially and educationally backward classes in the various states and union territories. He may do this in consultation with the Governor of the concerned state, however a law of Parliament will be required if the list of backward classes is to be amended.

The commission will have a chairperson, vice-chairperson and three other members and hear the grievances of socially and educationally backward classes, a function discharged so far by the National Commission of Scheduled Castes (NCSC).

The bill also provides NCBC with the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.

NCBC will also have the powers of a civil court while investigating or inquiring into any complaints.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

Which of the following statements in the context of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 11
  • The Preamble of the Constitution of India reveals four components.

  • It states that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India. Therefore it reveals the source of authority of the constitution.

  • It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, and republican polity. Therefore, it reveals the nature of the Indian State.

  • It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives of the constitution

  • It stipulates November 26, 1949, as the date of adoption of the constitution.

  • The preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislation.

  • Like Fundamental Duties and Directive Principle of State Policy, Preamble is also non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

The power of Judicial Review of the Supreme Court is derived from?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 12
Article 13 of the Indian Constitution prohibits the State from making a law that either takes away totally or abrogates in part a fundamental rights which are justifiable in nature. Article 13 provides for the judicial review of all legislations in india, past as well as future. This power has been conferred on the High courts and the Supreme court of India which can declare a law unconstitutional if it is inconsistent with any of the provisions of Part III of the Constitution.
Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

With reference to the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:

  1. The Election Commissioners enjoy the same status as available to the Chief Justice of the High Court.

  2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.

  3. The decisions of the ECI can be challenged only in the the Supreme Court of India by appropriate petitions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 13
Recently, the new Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), Rajiv Kumar has taken charge of the Election Commission of India (ECI).
  • Statement 1 is not correct: The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: The decisions of the Commission can be challenged in the High Court and the Supreme Court of India by appropriate petitions. By long standing convention and several judicial pronouncements, once the actual process of elections has started, the judiciary does not intervene in the actual conduct of the polls. Once the polls are completed and results declared, the Commission cannot review any result on its own. This can only be reviewed through the process of an election petition, which can be filed before the High Court, in respect of elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures. In respect of elections for the offices of the President and Vice President, such petitions can only be filed before the Supreme Court.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

With reference to the ‘Union Council of Ministers’, consider the following statements:

  1. The resignation of the Prime Minister (PM) causes the resignation of all the members of the Council.

  2. All the members of the Council resign by addressing a letter to the PM.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 14
Option (b) is the correct answer.

It is the Prime Minister who allocates portfolios to the other Ministers. The Prime Minister may call for the resignation of any Minister at any time. In case of refusal he may advise the President to dismiss the Minister.

Statement 1 is correct. Under the principle of collective responsibility, the resignation of PM results in resignation of the whole council.

Statement 2 is incorrect. As per Article 75, all the ministers are appointed by the President and they tender their resignation to him only.

All the members of the Council of Ministers do not belong to the same rank. The Constitution does not classify ministers into different ranks but in practice 4 ranks have come to be recognized.

I. Cabinet Ministers—He has a right to be present and participate in every meeting of the Cabinet. For proclamation of an emergency under Art. 352 the advice must come from the Prime Minister and other Ministers of cabinet rank.

II. Minister of State with independent charge—He is a Minister of State who does not work under a Cabinet Minister. When any matter concerning his Department is on the agenda of the Cabinet, he is invited to attend the meeting.

III. Minister of State—He is a Minister who does not have independent charge of any Department and works under a Cabinet Minister. The work to such Minister is allotted by his Cabinet Minister.

IV. Deputy Minister—He is a Minister who works under a Cabinet Minister or a Minister of State with independent charge. The work to him is allotted by the Minister under whom he is working. The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State with independent charge. The other Ministers are allocated work by their respective Cabinet Ministers. Ministers may be chosen from the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. A Minister who is a member of one House has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House. A Minister is allowed to vote only in the House of which he is a member. A person who is not a member of either House may also be appointed as a Minister. He can continue as a Minister only for six months.

Because that is the limit fixed by Art. 75(5). If he desires to continue as Minister he has to become a member of any one of the Houses of Parliament before the expiration of the period of 6 months. A person who is not qualified to become a member of a legislature cannot be appointed a minister under Art. 75(5). In this case minister would not include Prime Minister because non-election of Prime Minister would dissolve the Council

of Ministers after expiration of the period of 6 months.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Which of the following may be considered as the merits of the Presidential System?

  1. Wide representation

  2. Stable government

  3. Based on separation of powers

  4. Responsible government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 15
  • While the Prime Minister is the head of the government, the President is the head of the State. In our political system, the head of the State exercises only nominal powers. The President supervises the overall functioning of all the political institutions in the country so that they operate in harmony to achieve the objectives of the State.

  • Presidents all over the world are not always nominal executives like the President of India. In many countries of the world, the President is both the head of the state and the head of the government. The President of the United States of America is the most well-known example of this kind of President. The US President is directly elected by the people. He personally chooses and appoints all Ministers. The law- making is still done by the legislature (called the Congress in the US), but the president can veto any law.

  • Most importantly, the president does not need the support of the majority of members in Congress and neither is he answerable to them. He has a fixed tenure of four years and completes it even if his party does not have a majority in the Congress

  • Merits of Presidential System:

    • Stable government. Hence option 2 is correct.

    • Definiteness in policies.

    • Based on separation of powers. Hence option 3 is correct.

    • Government by experts.

  • Demerits of Presidential System:

    • The conflict between legislature and executive.

    • Non-responsible government. Hence option 4 is not correct.

    • May lead to autocracy.

    • Narrow representation. Hence option 1 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

With respect to the political organization in the Vedic period, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

1. The term Visu is synonymous with a village during the Vedic period.

2. Bharata was a tribal kingdom during the Vedic period.

3. Sabha was a general assembly of the entire population.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 16
The Vedic literature consists of the four Vedas – Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva. The Sama Veda is set to tune for the purpose of chanting during sacrifice. It is called the book of chants and the origins of Indian music are traced in it. Besides the Vedas, there are other sacred works, like the Brahmanas, the Upanishads, the Aranyakas and the epics Ramayana and Mahabharata. The Brahmanas are the treatises relating to prayer and sacrificialceremony. The Upanishads are philosophical texts dealing with topics like the soul, the absolute, the origin of the world and the mysteries of nature.

The Aranyakas are called forest books and they deal with mysticism, rites, rituals and sacrifices.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Arrange the following incidents in chronological order:

  1. British Government passes Limitation Law

  2. Santhal Rebellion

  3. Report by Deccan Riots Commission

  4. First revenue settlement is Deccan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 17
  • British Government passed the Limitation Law in 1859, to control the debts mounting on ryots in Deccan. In 1832, a large area of land was demarcated as Damin-i-Koh, on the slopes of Rajmahal hills and was given to the Santhals. But with time they found that their land was slipping away from their hands as state was levying heavy taxes and moneylenders were charging high rates of interest on them. Hence, Santhal Rebellion happened in 1855-56.

  • Deccan Riot Commission was assigned to make a report on the revolt by ryots in Deccan. The report was presented in British Parliament in 1878.

  • The first revenue settlement system in Bombay, Deccan was made in the 1820s. It was known as ‘Ryotwari settlement, where the revenue was directly settled with the ‘ryots’ (peasants).

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken From:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 18
Prime Minister unveiled the National Emblem cast on the roof of the new Parliament building.

Option d is correct: The national motto of India, Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from Mundaka Upanishad. This motto means Truth Alone Triumphs". It is written in Devanagari script.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

The first cotton textile mill in British India, was set up in:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 19
Option (a) is the correct answer The first cotton textile mill was set up in 1853 in Bombay by Cowasjee Nanabhoy and the first jute mill came up in 1855 in Rishra (Bengal).
Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding Mauryan Empire:

  1. They maintained a large standing army including Navy.

  2. Administration of important cities were carried out by committees consisting of 5 members each.

  3. Administration of armed forces was carried by Board of 30 members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 20
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Mauryan Empire maintained large standing army of Cavalry, Army, elephants, chariots, navy and transport.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Administration of important cities were carried out by six boards, each consist of 5 members.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Administration of army was carried by a board of 30 members divided into 6, each having 5 members- Army, Navy, Elephant, cavalry, chariots and transport.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

With reference to the Charter Act of 1833, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. All restrictions on European immigration and acquisition of property in India were lifted.

  2. A law member was added to the governor-eneral’s council.

  3. The administration was urged to take steps to improve the conditions of the slaves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 21
Option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: All restrictions on European immigration and acquisition of property in India were lifted. It opened the way for wholesale colonisation of India.

  • Statement 2 is correct: A law member was added to the governor-general’s council. It was added for professional advice on law making. Later, the law member was made the full member of the governor-general’s executive council by the Charter Act of 1853.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The administration was urged to take steps to improve the conditions of the slaves and to abolish slavery. Slavery was abolished in 1843.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

Consider the following statements with regard to the Harappan script:

  1. Harappan writing is found only on the Harappan seals.

  2. Harappan script was Boustrophedon and non-alphabetical.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 22
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Harappan seals are not the only items where we find Harappan writing. Harappan writing has been found on the variety of objects such as seals, copper tools, rims of jars, copper and terracotta tablets, jewellery, bone rods, even an ancient signboard. Harappan seals usually have a line of writing, probably containing the name and title of the owner. Most inscriptions are short, the longest containing about 26 signs.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Although the Harappan script remains undeciphered to date, it was evidently not alphabetical (where each sign stands for a vowel or a consonant) as it has just too many signs – somewhere between 375 and 400. It is apparent that the script was written from right to left as some seals show a wider spacing on the right and cramping on the left, as if the engraver began working from the right and then ran out of space.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to August Offer?

  1. It explicitly offered dominion status for India.

  2. A constituent assembly to be set up after the war where Indians would decide the Constitution.

  3. It provided for the majority of Indians in expanded Viceroy’s executive council.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Lord Linlithgow Viceroy of India announced the August Offer (August 1940) which proposed:

  • Dominion status as the objective for India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Expansion of Viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians (who would be drawn from major political parties). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • Setting up of a constituent assembly after the war where Indians would decide the Constitution according to their social, economic, and political conceptions, subject to fulfilment of the obligation of the government regarding defence, minority rights, treaties with States, all Indian services. No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the currency reforms of Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq?

1. Token currency was introduced for the first time ever in the history during his reign.

2. He introduced a bronze coin with the same value as the silver tanka.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 24
  • Another step which Muhammad-Bin- Tughlaq took at this time was the introduction of the ‘token currency’. Since money is merely a medium of exchange, all countries in the world today have token currencies - generally paper currency, so that they do not have to depend upon the supply of gold and silver. There was a shortage of silver in the world in the fourteenth century. Moreover, Qublai Khan of China had already successfully experimented with a token currency.

  • A Mongol ruler of Iran, Ghazan Khan, had also experimented with it. Muhammad Tughlaq decided to introduce a bronze coin which was to have the same value as the silver tanka. Specimen of this coin has been found in different parts of India, and can be seen in museums. The idea of a token currency was a new one in India and it was difficult to induce the traders, as well as the common man to accept it.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had called him the “Maker of Modern India”. He has been credited with raising interfaith awareness and bringing Hinduism to a global platform in the 19th century. He preached ‘neoVedanta’, an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens and believed in combining spirituality with material progress.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 25
  • Swami Vivekananda was born on 12th January 1863 in a Bengali family in Calcutta and was originally named Narendranath Datta.

    • In his honour, the Government of India in 1984 declared his birthday National Youth Day.

  • He was well-read in many subjects and would meditate in front of the images of Hindu Gods and Goddesses.

    • He met the religious leader Ramakrishna Paramhansa, who later became his Guru and he remained devoted to him until the latter died in 1886.

    • In 1893, he took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Maharaja Ajit Singh of the Khetri State requested him to do so, changing from ‘Sachidananda’ that he used before.

  • He was one of India’s greatest spiritual leaders and inspired the youth of India to become better, leading a life of purity and setting an example for the world.

    • Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had called him the “Maker of Modern India”.

  • He played an important role in introducing the philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the West.

    • He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens and believed in combining spirituality with material progress.

    • He is best known for his speech at the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago in 1893.

    • After coming back to India, he formed the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897.

    • In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

In the context of mural paintings in ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. Paintings at the Kanchipuram temple were patronised by the Pallavas.

2. Paintings at Jaina caves in Sittanavasal were patronised by the Pandyas.

3. Mural painting as an art declined during the reign of the Cholas.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 26
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. Paintings at the temple at Kanchipuram were patronised by the Pallava king Rajasimha. Painting of Somaskanda here – only traces remain – large, round face. Increased ornamentation was a notable feature of these paintings. Paintings at Jaina caves in Sittanavasal were patronised by the Pandyas. When the Pandyas came to power, they too patronised art.

Thirumalapuram caves and Jaina caves at Sittanavasal are some of the surviving examples. However, mural painting as an art did not decline during the reign of the Cholas. In fact, the Cholas were known for their patronage of the arts. They patronised both Hindu and Jain temples and these temples are renowned for their beautiful paintings and sculptures. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

With reference to labour legislations in British India, consider the following statements:

1. The First-ever demand for regulation of the condition of workers in factories in India came from the moderate leaders.

2. These laws did not apply to British-owned tea and coffee plantations.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 27
Option (b) is the correct answer Statement 1 is incorrect: the first-ever demand for regulation of the condition of workers in factories in India came from the Lancashire textile capitalist lobby. Apprehending the emergence of a competitive rival in the Indian textile industry under conditions of cheap and unregulated labour, they demanded the appointment of a commission for investigation into factory conditions Statement 2 is correct: These labour laws did not apply to British-owned tea and coffee plantations where the labour was exploited ruthlessly and treated like slaves.

The Government helped these planters by passing laws such as those which made it virtually impossible for a labourer to refuse to work once a contract was entered into. A breach of contract was a criminal offence, with a planter having the right to get the defaulting labourer arrested.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

Oommen V Oommen Report which was recently in the news is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

Eco Sensitive area:

The Madhav Gadgil Report:

  • The Madhav Gadgil Report had classified the whole of the Western Ghats, spread across six states and covering 44 districts and 142 talukas, as an EcoSensitive Zone (ESZ).

The Kasturirangan Committee:

  • The Kasturirangan Committee had reduced the ESZ to 37 per cent of the total area, covering about 60,000 sq km. It had recommended that 123 revenue villages be demarcated as ESA.

Oommen V Oommen Report:

  • To solve the conflict, Oommen Chandy, the former Chief Minister of Kerala in 2014 set up an expert committee to study the loopholes of the previous two committees.

  • According to the new committee, recommendations were made to the government to implement changes in clauses of the Environmentally Fragile Land (EFL) in the Western Ghats, stating the lapses occurring in determining the EFL areas.

  • Oommen V Oommen Report had recommended that plantations and inhabited areas in the Western Ghats be kept out of the ESA.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

The staple commodities of import by the English East India Company in the middle of the 18th century were

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 29
Option d is correct
  • Main items of import from different regions are Pearls, raw silk, wool dates, dried fruits, rose water, coffee, gold, drugs, and honey, ivory and drugs, raw silk and porcelain, tea, Main items of Export are Cotton textiles, raw silk, and silk fabrics, hardware, indigo, saltpetre, opium, rice, wheat, sugar, pepper etc

Main items of import from various regions were as under:

  • Persian Gulf region-Pearls, raw silk, wool dates, dried fruits, and rose water

  • Arabia-coffee, gold, drugs, and honey

  • China-tea, sugar, porcelain and silk

  • Tibet-gold, musk, and woolen cloth

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

With reference to the Sufi movement, consider the following statements:

  1. The khanqah was the centre of social life.

  2. Chishtis practised austerity by maintaining a distance from worldly power.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Statement 1 is correct. The khanqah was the centre of social life. For instance, Shaikh Nizamuddin’s hospice (c. fourteenth century) on the banks of the river Yamuna in Ghiyaspur, was located on the outskirts of what was then the city of Delhi. It comprised several small rooms and a big hall (jama’at khana) where the inmates and visitors lived and prayed. The inmates included family members of the Shaikh, his attendants and disciples. The Shaikh lived in a small room on the roof of the hall where he met visitors in the morning and evening. A veranda surrounded the courtyard, and a boundary wall ran around the complex.

Statement 2 is correct. A major feature of the Chishti tradition was austerity, including maintaining a distance from worldly power. However, this was by no means a situation of absolute isolation from political power.

Of the groups of sufis who migrated to India in the late twelfth century, the Chishtis were the most influential.

This was because they adapted successfully to the local environment and adopted several features of Indian devotional traditions.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 31

Consider the following statements with respect to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre:

  1. Large crowd gathered at Jallianwalla Bagh to protest against the arrest of Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal.

  2. After the incident, Mahatma Gandhi formed Satyagraha Sabha to organize an all-India hartal against the massacre.

  3. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest of the incident.

  4. After the Hunter Commission report, the House of Lords had voted against Dyer's action in Jallianwalla Bagh.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 31
  • In Amritsar, the arrest of two local leaders, Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal on 10 April led to an attack on the town hall and the post office; telegraph wires were cut and Europeans including women were attacked. The army was called in and the city handed over to General Dyer, who issued an order prohibiting public meetings and assemblies.

  • An unarmed but large crowd gathered on 13 April 1919 at Amritsar in the Jallianwalla Bagh, to protest against the arrest of the leaders Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal. Jallianwalla Bagh was a large open space that was enclosed on three sides by buildings and had only one exit. General Dyer surrounded the Bagh with his army unit, closed the exit with his troop, and then ordered his men to shoot into the trapped crowd with rifles and machine guns. Thousands were killed and wounded. After this massacre, martial law was proclaimed throughout Punjab and the people were submitted to the most uncivilized atrocities. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • A wave of horror ran through the country as the knowledge of the Punjab happenings spread. The popular shock was expressed by the great poet and humanist Rabindranath Tagore who renounced his knighthood in the protest. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • In February 1919, Mahatma Gandhi founded the Satyagraha Sabha who members took a pledge to disobey the Rowlatt Act and thus to court arrest and imprisonment. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Hunter Committee was appointed by the Government to enquire into the Punjab disturbances. It was just an eyewash that the House of Lords had voted in favour of General Dyer’s action and that the British public had demonstrated its support by helping the Morning Post collect 30,000 pounds for General Dyer. Hence statement 4 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 32

Devasnana purnima, chariot festival is related to which of the following temples?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 32
The Odisha government’s ambitious temple corridor project in Puri has become a subject of political controversy.

Jagannath Puri Temple:

  • Devasnana Purnima – The annual bathing ritual, where the holy trinity is brought out from their sanctum seated in a raised platform and bathed with purified water drawn from a well within thetemple premises.

  • Chariot Festival – This happens during the month of June/July. During the festival, the Lord comes out to the street to greet his devotees, people irrespective of caste, creed & colour can seek his blessings.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 33

Consider the following statements regarding Yugantar

  1. Barrah dacoity was organised by Dacca Anushilan under Yugantar.

  2. The Jugantar party arranged to import German arms and ammunition through sympathisers and revolutionaries abroad.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 33
  • In February 1909, the public prosecutor was shot dead in Calcutta and in February 1910, a deputy superintendent of police met the same fate while leaving the Calcutta High Court. In 1908, Barrah dacoity was organised by Dacca Anushilan under Pulin Das to raise funds for revolutionary activities.

  • Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal staged a spectacular bomb attack on Viceroy Hardinge while he was making his official entry into the new capital of Delhi in a procession through Chandni Chowk in December 1912. (Hardinge was injured, but not killed.)

  • The western Anushilan Samiti found a good leader in Jatindranath Mukherjee or Bagha Jatin and emerged as the Jugantar (or Yugantar). Jatin revitalised links between the central organisation in Calcutta and other places in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.

  • During the First World War, the Jugantar party arranged to import German arms and ammunition through sympathisers and revolutionaries abroad. Jatin asked Rashbehari Bose to take charge of Upper India, aiming to bring about an all-India insurrection in what has come to be called the ‘German Plot’ or the ‘Zimmerman Plan’. The Jugantar party raised funds through a series of dacoities which came to be known as taxicab dacoities and boat dacoities, so as to work out the Indo-German conspiracy.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 34

Consider the following statements:

1. In a market economy, all economic decisions are taken by the government in consultation with the private sector.

2. In a mixed economy, some important decisions are taken by the government and the economic activities are by and large conducted through the market.

3. In a centrally planned economy factors of production are owned and operated by government with an objective of social welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 34
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: In a market economy, all economic activities such as supply and demand interactions, individuals freely exchanging their products with each other etc. are organized through the market without any government interference. There may be some government intervention or planning, but usually it refers to an economy that is more market oriented in general. In this kind of an economy most economic decision making is done through voluntary transactions according to the laws of supply and demand. Hence the arrangement which allow people to buy and sell commodities freely are the defining features of a market economy.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Most of the economies are mixed economies, where some important decisions are taken by the government and the economic activities are by and large conducted by the market. The extent of government control varies, for example the United States of America the role of government is minimal whereas in China, the role of the government is much more interventionist. Statement 3 is also correct: in a centrally planned economy, the government or the central authority plans all the important activities in the economy. All important decisions regarding production, exchange, and consumption of goods and services are made by the government. Centrally-planned economic mandates surrounding the production of goods and services are often executed by state owned enterprises, which are government-created legal entities that engage in commercial activities on a government's behalf. The government may try to achieve a particular allocation of resources and distribution of final goods and services which is thought to be desirable for society as a whole.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 35

The establishment of payment banks is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

  1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment banks.

  2. Payment banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards

  3. Payment banks cannot undertake lending activities

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 35
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Those who can promote a Payments Bank can be non-bank PPIs, NBFCs, corporate mobile telephone companies, supermarket chains, real sector cooperative companies and public sector entities. Even banks can take equity in Payment Banks. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Payment banks can issue only debit cards. It cannot issue credit cards. Statement 3 is correct. No credit lending is allowed for payment banks. KB) Payment banks can accept demand deposits. They would initially be restricted to holding a maximum balance of rupees 1 lakh per customer. Based on performance, RBI could enhance this limit.

  • The banks can offer payments and remittance services, issuance of prepaid payment instruments, internet banking, functioning as business correspondent for other banks.

  • Payment banks cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake NBFC business.

  • As in the case of small banks, other financial and non-financial services activities of the promoters should be ring-fenced.

  • The objective of payment banks is to increase financial inclusion by providing small savings accounts, Payment /remittance services to migrant labour, low income households, small businesses, other unorganised sector entities etc.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 36

Which of the following have a bearing on the exchange rate of a currency of a country?

  1. Prevailing interest rates in the domestic economy.

  2. Speculation in the foreign currency market.

  3. Increase in the imports of a country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 36
  • Option 1 is correct: In the short run an important factor in determining exchange rate movements is the interest rate differential i.e. the difference between interest rates between countries. There are huge funds owned by banks, multinational corporations and wealthy individuals which move around the world in search of the highest interest rates. If we assume that government bonds in country A pay 8 percent rate of interest whereas equally safe bonds in country B yield 10 percent, the interest rate differential is 2 percent. Investors from country A will be attracted by the high interest rates in country B and will buy the currency of country B selling their own currency.

  • Option 2 is correct: Exchange rates in the market depend not only on the demand and supply of exports and imports, and investment in assets, but also on foreign exchange speculation where foreign exchange is demanded for the possible gains from appreciation of the currency. Money in any country is an asset. If Indians believe that the British pound is going to increase in value relative to the rupee, they will want to hold pounds. This expectation would increase the demand for pounds and cause the rupee-pound exchange rate to increase in the present, making the beliefs self-fulfilling.

  • Option 3 is correct: When income increases, consumer spending increases. Spending on imported goods is also likely to increase. When imports increase, the demand curve for foreign exchange shifts to the right (i.e. demand of foreign currency increases). There is a depreciation of the domestic currency. If there is an increase in income abroad as well, domestic exports will rise and the supply curve of foreign exchange shifts outward. On balance, the domestic currency may or may not depreciate. What happens will depend on whether exports are growing faster than imports. In general, other things remaining equal, a country whose aggregate demand grows faster than the rest of the world’s normally finds its currency depreciating because its imports grow faster than its exports. Its demand curve for foreign currency shifts faster than its supply curve.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 37

Which of the following characterize a situation of a 'liquidity trap' in an economy?

  1. Decline in bond prices

  2. Lower interest rates

  3. High savings rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 37
  • A liquidity trap is a contradictory economic situation in which interest rates are very low and savings rates are high, rendering monetary policy ineffective. Hence options 2 and 3 are correct.

  • It was first described by economist John Maynard Keynes.

  • During a liquidity trap, consumers choose to avoid bonds and keep their funds in cash savings because of the prevailing belief that interest rates could soon rise (which would push bond prices down and yields up). Because bonds have an inverse relationship to interest rates, many consumers do not want to hold an asset with a price that is expected to decline. Hence option 1 is correct.

  • At the same time, central bank efforts to spur economic activity are hampered as they are unable to lower interest rates further to incentivize investors and consumers.

  • While a liquidity trap is a function of economic conditions, it is also psychological since consumers are making a choice to hoard cash instead of choosing higher-paying investments because of a negative economic view.

  • A liquidity trap is not limited to bonds. It also affects other areas of the economy, as consumers are spending less on products which means businesses are less likely to hire.

  • Some ways to get out of a liquidity trap include raising interest rates, hoping the situation will regulate itself as prices fall to attractive levels, or increased government spending.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 38

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Mission Satyanishtha’

1. For sensitizing all central government employees about the need to adhere to good

ethics.

2. It is launched by Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 38
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The mission aims at sensitizing all railway employees (not all government employees) about the need to adhere to good ethics and to maintain high standards of integrity at work

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Launched by the Ministry of Railways launched on 27th July 2018 and not by the ministry of personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 39

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

  2. Under the scheme an income support of 12,000/- per year in three equal instalments will be provided.

  3. All landholder farmers' families are eligible to obtain the benefits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 39
Context :Recently, the PM of India released the 11th instalment of Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme.

Statement 1 and 2 are not correct : PM Kisan is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India.Under the scheme an income support of 6,000/- per year in three equal instalments will be provided.

Statement 3 is correct: Under this scheme, all landholder farmers' families are eligible to obtain the benefits. The landholder farmers' family is defined under the scheme guidelines as a family consisting of a husband, wife and minor children who own cultivable land as per the land records of the respective State or UT. Definition of family for the scheme is husband, wife and minor children.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 40

Tanzania with whom the Indian Navy conducted the first edition of India-Mozambique-Tanzania Trilateral Exercise (IMT TRILAT) is bordered by which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 40
Recently, the Indian Navy participated in the first edition of India-Mozambique-Tanzania Trilateral Exercise (IMT TRILAT), a Joint Maritime Exercise among the Indian, Mozambique and Tanzanian navies commenced at Dar Es Salaam, Tanzania.

Hence, option a is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 41

Consider the following statements with respect to the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN):

  1. ASEAN was established in 1967 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration by the ten ASEAN member states.

  2. The ASEAN Charter is a legally binding agreement on its member states.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 41
  • The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Brunei Darussalam then joined on 7 January 1984, Viet Nam on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar on 23 July 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999, making up what is today the ten Member States of ASEAN.

  • The ASEAN Charter entered into force on 15 December 2008. With the entry into force of the ASEAN Charter, ASEAN will henceforth operate under a new legal framework and establish a number of new organs to boost its community-building process. In effect, the ASEAN Charter has become a legally binding agreement among the 10 ASEAN Member States. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement was signed in 2009 and on ASEAN-India Trade-in-Services and Investments in 2015. With the signing of these Agreements, the ASEAN-India FTA is complete.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 42

If a commodity is provided free to the public by the government, then

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 42
If a commodity is provided free to the public by the government, the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumer of the product to the tax-paying public. Opportunity cost refers to the value of the next best alternative that is given up when a decision is made. In the case of a free public good provided by the government, the opportunity cost is the money that individuals would have been willing to pay for the good if it were not provided for free. Since the good is provided for free, the consumers do not incur this cost, but the cost is instead transferred to the tax-paying public, who must pay for the good through their taxes. Therefore, the correct answer is option (c).
Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 43

Consider the following statements about Non-Resident Indian Deposits:

  1. 1. Foreign Currency Non-resident (Bank) Accounts can be opened by NRIs and Overseas CorporateBodies(OCBs).

  2. When a resident becomes an NRI, his existing rupee accounts are designated as Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) Account.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 43
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Foreign Currency Non-resident (Bank) Account (FCNRA) can be opened by NRIs and Overseas CorporateBodies (OCBs) with an authorised dealer.The accounts can be opened in the form of term deposits. Deposits of funds are allowed in Pound Sterling, Japanese Yen, US Dollar and Euro.

Rate of interest Applicable to these accounts are in accordance with the directives issued by the RBI from time to time.

Statement 2 is incorrect. When a resident becomes an NRI, her existing rupee accounts are designated as Non- Resident Ordinary Rupee Account (NRO Account).

Non-Resident External Account (NRE) can be opened by NRIs and Overseas Corporate Bodies (OCBs) with an authorised dealer and with banks authorised by RBI. They can be in the form of savings, current, recurring or fixed deposit accounts. Also, the deposits are allowed in any permitted currency. Rate of interest Applicable to the accounts are in accordance with the directives issued by the RBI from time to time.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 44

Consider the following statements:

1. The Tea plant grows well in the subtropical and temperate climates.

2. The Tea plant requires heavy seasonal rainfall for its optimum growth.

3. India is the largest producer of Tea in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 44
  • Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. It is also an important beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British. Today, most of the tea plantations are owned by Indians.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labor-intensive industry. It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour. Tea is processed within the tea garden to restore its freshness. Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea- producing states in the country. Statement 3 is incorrect. India is the second largest producer of tea after China

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 45

Which of the following correctly describes a distinctly peculiar landform known as

‘Karewas’?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 45
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Karewa: Thick deposits of glacial clay famous for saffron cultivation.

  • Karewas are lacustrine deposits. According to geographers, the Karewa Formation are glacio- fluvial-lacustrine and aeolian loess of Plio-Pleistocene age.

  • In other words, these lacustrine deposits are witness to and treasure of many human civilizations and habitations. The Stone Age man has survived the harshest of the Pleistocene glaciations.

  • The artefacts left by him are still embedded in the deep soil horizons of the plateau lands.

  • Sediments kept coming in through rivers and kept on depositing in that lake, thus resulting in the formation of a lacustrine plain.

  • Over the time the water drained away leaving behind deposits viz. unconsolidated gravel and mud. These deposits are known as Karewas.

  • The Karewa deposits are composed of sand, silt, clay, shale, mud, lignite, gravel and loessic sediments. Therefore, it is extremely important for agricultural and horticultural practices in the valley.

  • The world-famous variety of saffron, which is locally known as zafron is cultivated on this deposits.

  • It also helps in the cultivation of almond, walnut, apple and orchards.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

  1. The average height of the troposphere is higher over the equator and lower over the poles.

  2. The temperature at the top of the tropopause is higher over the equator and is lower over the poles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 46
Troposphere:
  • The lowermost layer of the atmosphere is known as the troposphere and is the most important layer because almost all of the weather phenomena (e.g. fog, cloud, dew, frost, rainfall, hailstorm, storms, cloud thunder, lighting, etc.) occur in this layer. Thus, the troposphere is of utmost significance for all the life forms including man in the biosphere ecosystem because these are concentrated in the lowest part of the atmosphere.

  • Temperature decrease with increasing height at the rate of 6.5 degrees per 1000 m (This rate of decrease of temperature is called normal lapse rate). There is seasonal variation in the height of the troposphere. In the other words, the height of the troposphere changes from the equator towards the poles (decreases) and from one season of a year to other season (increases during summer while it decreases during winter). The average height of the troposphere is about 16 km over the equator and 6 km over the poles. The upper limit of the troposphere is called Tropopause which is 1.5 km thick. The height of the tropopause is 17 km over the equator and 9 to 10 km over the poles. Hence statement 1 is correct .

  • The temperature at the top of the tropopause is lowest over the equator (-70 degree celsius) and is relatively high over the poles. Since the temperature decreases upward at the rate of 6.5 degree Celsius per 1000m and hence it is natural that temperature at the height of 17 km over the equator becomes much lower than at the height of 9-10 km over the poles. The word troposphere literally means ‘zone or region of mixing’ whereas the word tropopause means ‘where mixing stops’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding mineral distribution in the Asian continent:

  1. The continent produces more than half of the world’s tin.

  2. Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie areas in Asia have the largest deposits of gold.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 47
  • The continent of Asia produces more than half of the world’s tin. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • China, Malaysia, and Indonesia are among the world’s leading tin producers. China also leads in the production of lead, antimony, and tungsten. Asia also has deposits of manganese, bauxite, nickel, zinc, and copper.

  • Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world. It is a leading producer of gold, diamond, iron ore, tin, and nickel. It is also rich in copper, lead, zinc, and manganese. Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie areas of western Australia have the largest deposits of gold. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 48

Consider the following statements regarding the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag:

1. It is established under the Patents Act, 1970.

2. They are covered under the WTO Agreement of TRIPS (Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 48
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: In December 1999, the Parliament had passed the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act,1999. This Act seeks to provide for the registration and better protection of geographical indications relating to goods in India. It confers legal protection to Geographical Indications in India and prevents unauthorised use of a Registered Geographical Indication by others.The Act would be administered by the ‘Controller General of Patents, Designs and TradeMarks’ - who is the Registrar of Geographical Indications.

  • Statement 2 is correct: GIs have been defined under Article 22(1) of the WTO Agreement of TRIPS (Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement as: "Indications which identify a good as originating in the territory of a member, or a region or a locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographic origin." Thus, GI tag is internationally recognised. Some recent GI tags are - Kandhamal Haldi (Odisha), Rasagola (Odisha), Sirsi Supari (Karnataka), Erode Turmeric (Tamil Nadu), Marayoor Jaggery (Tamil Nadu), Shahi Litchi (Bihar) etc.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 49

Consider the following statements:

  1. Khadar is a narrow, porous, northernmost stretch of Indo-Gangetic plain

  2. Bangar is the older alluvium along the river beds forming terraces higher than the

floodplain.

  1. Bhabhar is an ill-drained, damp (marshy) and thickly forested narrow tract to the south of Bhabar

  2. Terai is composed of newer alluvium and forms the flood plains along the river banks.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 49
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Geomorphological features of Indo – Gangetic – Brahmaputra Plain

The Bhabar

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. It is a narrow, porous, northernmost stretch of Indo-Gangetic plain.

  • It is about 8-16 km wide running in an east-west direction along the foothills (alluvial fans) of the Shiwaliks.

  • They show a remarkable continuity from the Indus to the Tista.

  • Rivers descending from the Himalayas deposit their load along the foothills in the form of alluvial fans.

  • These alluvial fans have merged together to build up the bhabar belt.

  • The porosity of bhabar is the most unique feature.

  • The porosity is due to deposition of huge number of pebbles and rock debris across the alluvial fans.

  • The streams disappear once they reach the bhabar region because of this porosity.

  • Therefore, the area is marked by dry river courses except in the rainy season.

  • The Bhabar belt is comparatively narrow in the east and extensive in the western and north-western hilly region.

  • The area is not suitable for agriculture and only big trees with large roots thrive in this belt.

The Terai

  • Statement 4 is incorrect. Terai is an ill-drained, damp (marshy) and thickly forested narrow tract to the south of Bhabar running parallel to it.

  • The Terai is about 15-30 km wide.

  • The underground streams of the Bhabar belt re-emerge in this belt.

  • This thickly forested region provides shelter to a variety of wildlife. [Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand and Kaziranga National Park in Assam lie in terai region]

  • The Terai is more marked in the eastern part than in the west because the eastern parts receive comparatively higher amount of rainfall.

  • Most of the Terai land, especially in Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand, has been turned into agricultural land which gives good crops of sugarcane, rice and wheat.

The Bhangar

  • Statement 2 is correct. The Bhangar is the older alluvium along the river beds forming terraces higher than the floodplain. It is in south of Tarai.

  • The terraces are often impregnated with calcareous concretions known as ‘KANKAR’.

  • ‘The Barind plains’ in the deltaic region of Bengal and the ‘bhur formations’ in the middle Ganga and Yamuna doab are regional variations of Bhangar.

  • [Bhur denotes an elevated piece of land situated along the banks of the Ganga river, especially in the upper Ganga-Yamuna Doab. This has been formed due to accumulation of wind-blown sands during the hot dry months of the year]

  • Bhangar contains fossils of animals like rhinoceros, hippopotamus, elephants, etc.

The Khadar

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The Khadar is composed of newer alluvium and forms the flood plains along the river banks. It is in south of bhangar.

  • A new layer of alluvium is deposited by river floods almost every year.

  • This makes them the most fertile soils of Ganges.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 50

Which of the following influences the salinity in the oceans?

  1. Precipitation

  2. Ocean currents

  3. Wind

  4. Freezing of water

Select the correct answer using code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 50
Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water. Salinity of 24.7 ppt has been considered as the upper limit to demarcate ‘brackish water’.

Factors affecting ocean salinity are mentioned below:

  • The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation.

  • Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and in polar regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice.

  • Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.

  • The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of water are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of an area.

Distribution of Salinity:

  • Salinity of the Open Seas:

    • Highest salinity is found near the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. This is due to active evaporation owing to clear skies, high temperature and steady trade winds.

    • Salinity is low at the equator. There is heavy rainfall and big rivers like Amazon and Zaire bring large quantities of fresh water to the ocean.

    • Salinity is very low in the polar areas. There is very little evaporation and this, coupled with the melting of ice yielding fresh water, leads to a decrease in salinity

  • Salinity of Partially Closed Seas:

    • Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and Persian Gulf have high salinity where it varies from 37 to 41 per thousand. This is due to high rate of evaporation and absence of large rivers which could provide fresh water to these seas.

    • Salinity in Baltic Sea is extremely low. Here evaporation is very low due to low temperature and In addition, several small streams bring large quantity of fresh water which is supplemented by snow melt in the Scandinavian mountains.

  • Salinity of Enclosed Seas and Lakes:

    • Enclosed seas and lakes have exceptionally high proportion of salinity. eg: Dead sea, Great Salt Lake etc.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 51

Which of the following tribes are desert inhabitants?

  1. Orang Asli

  2. Bushmen

  3. Bindibu

  4. Kikuyu

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 51
  • The Orang Asli:

    • Orang Asli is a collective term (which means original or first peoples in Malay) for some 18 ethnic groups of less than 150,000 in total who are widely regarded as comprising peninsular Malaysia’s original inhabitants (in the sense that they pre-date the arrival of Malays).

    • They are generally divided into three distinct groupings: the Negrito, Senoi and Proto-Malay.

    • In spite of differences in languages and physical appearances, all Orang Asli tribes share one thing in common, which is that they are the descendants of the earliest known inhabitants who occupied the Malay Peninsula.

    • They lived in West Malaysia long before the arrival of the other races, that is, the Malays, the Chinese, and the Indians.

    • They are not a desert inhabitant.

  • The Bushmen:

    • They are nomadic hunters and food gatherers, growing no crops and domesticating no animals.

    • They roam the Kalahari desert with their bows and poisoned arrows, spears, traps and snares.

    • They either wear a loin cloth or go virtually naked.

    • They travel in small family groups, and live together in open sherms.

    • They gather dew from leaves early in the morning and store in ostrich shells.

  • The Bindibu:

    • The Bindibu or Aborigines of Australia are desert inhabitants and live in very much same way the Bushman.

    • They are lean and dark but healthy.

    • They are nomadic hunters and food gatherers, growing no crops and domesticating no animals except dingo, a wild dog that assists them in tracking down kangaroos, rabbits and birds.

    • They always stay close to a water supply as they still have not devised a means of tapping and storing water.

    • They live in wurlies, simple shelters made of branches and tufts and grass.

  • The Kikuyu:

    • The Kikuyu (also known as Agikuyu) are a central Bantu community.

    • They share common ancestry with the Embu, Kamba, Tharaka, Meru and Mbeere.

    • Traditionally they inhabited the area around Mount Kenya and they are not a desert inhabitant.

    • They are among the Kenyan communities that championed the struggle for Kenya’s independence through the Mau Mau movement and the Kikuyu Central Association (KCA).

    • Originally hunters and gatherers, the Agikuyu later adopted agriculture as their main source of livelihood. Women did the farming and gathering of wild fruits using traditional tools (such as hoes, digging knives, etc) for domestic consumption, while men did the hunting.

    • Today, their main economic activities are trade, agriculture and livestock keeping. They grow many crops including potatoes, bananas, millet, maize, beans and vegetables. Other common cash crops grown include tea, coffee and rice.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 52

Consider the following statement regarding ‘Weather’ and ‘climate’.

1. Climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a

long period of time, while Weather refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time.

2. The elements of weather and climate differs according to latitudinal shift.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 52
  • Statement 1 is correct. Climate describes what the weather is like over a long period of time in a specific area. Different regions can have different climates. To describe the climate of a place, we might say what the temperatures are like during different seasons, how windy it usually is, or how much rain or snow typically falls. Weather refers to short-term changes in the atmosphere. Even though there’s only one atmosphere on Earth, the weather isn’t the same all around the world. Weather is different in different parts of the world and changes over minutes, hours, days, and weeks.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The elements of weather and climate are the same, i.e. temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind, humidity and precipitation. At any point of time, the elements to decide the weather and climate of the region does not change, but remains constant.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 53

Which of the following rivers is/are tributarie(s) of the Godavari?

  1. Indravati

  2. Bhima

  3. Sabari

  4. Hemavati

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 53
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Godavari River:

  • The Godavari basin extends over states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha in addition to smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union territory of Puducherry (Yanam) having a total area of ~ 3 lakh Sq.km.

  • The basin is bounded by Satmala hills, the Ajanta range and the Mahadeo hills on the north, by the Eastern Ghats on the south and the east and by the Western Ghats on the west.

  • The Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra about 80 km from the Arabian Sea at an elevation of 1,067 m.

  • The total length of Godavari from its origin to outfall into the Bay of Bengal is 1,465 km.

Tributaries of Godavari River

  • The left bank tributaries are more in number and larger in size than the right bank tributaries.

  • The Manjra (724 km) is the only important right bank tributary. It joins the Godavari after passing through the Nizam Sagar.

  • Left Bank Tributaries: Dharna, Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Pranahita [conveying the combined waters of Penganga, the Wardha and Wainganga], Pench, Kanhan, Sabari, Indravati etc.

  • Right Bank Tributaries: Pravara, Mula, Manjra, Peddavagu, Maner etc.

  • The delta of the Godavari is of lobate type with a round bulge and many distributaries.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 54

Al-Hilal, a weekly journal of 20th Century, was started by which of the following leaders?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 54
  • Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, originally named Muhiyuddin Ahmad, was born in 1888 in Mecca, Saudi-Arabia. He was a proponent of Hindu Muslim unity, opposed to Partition. In 1912, he started a weekly journal in Urdu called Al-Hilal which played an important role in forging Hindu-Muslim unity after the bad blood created between the two communities in the aftermath of Morley-Minto reforms (1909).

  • Under the 1909 reforms, the provision of separate electorates for Muslims was resented by Hindu. The government regarded Al- Hilal as a propagator of secessionist views and banned it in 1914. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad then started another weekly called Al-Balagh with the same mission of propagating Indian nationalism and revolutionary ideas based on Hindu-Muslim unity.

Hence, option C is correct.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 55

Which of the following tribes practice transhumance in India?

  1. Bakarwals

  2. Gaddis

  3. Bhotiyas

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 55
  • The process of migration from plain areas to pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters is known as transhumance.

    • In mountain regions, such as the Himalayas, Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis, and Bhotiyas migrate from plains to the mountains in summers and to the plains from the high altitude pastures in winters. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

    • Similarly, in the tundra regions, the nomadic herders move from south to north in summers and from north to south in winters.

  • Movement in search of pastures is undertaken either over vast horizontal distances or vertically from one elevation to another in the mountainous regions.

  • Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools, and transport.

    • They move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.

    • Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of tradition.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 56

With reference to Jog Falls , consider the following statements:

1. It is created by the Sharavathi River.

2. It is the second-highest plunge waterfall in India.

3. It is situated in Kerala.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 56

Jog Falls project suffers setback as Centre asks Karnataka about impact assessment.

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct : Jog Falls is created by the Sharavathi River falling from a height of 253 m (830 ft), making it the second-highest plunge waterfall in India.

    It is also called by alternative names of Gerusoppa falls, Gersoppa Falls and Jogada Gundi.

  • Statement 3 is not correct : Located near Sagara, Shimoga District of Karnataka state.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 57

Which of the following appropriately defines Reh, Kallar or Thur?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 57
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Reh, Kallar, Usar, Thur

  • It is saline soil found in bhangar plain of drier areas.

  • Composition: Rich in Chloride, calcium, and magnesium

  • Formation: Accumulation of soluble salt

  • Characteristics: Unproductive soil. In Punjab and Haryana gypsum is added to improve the soil

  • Distribution: Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan and Maharashtra

  • Crops: Berseem, Dhaincha and leguminous crops

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 58

The rotation of the Earth has an effect on which of the following?

  1. Formation of day and night

  2. Deflection of Ocean Currents

  3. Spheroidal shape of the Earth

  4. Formation of High tides and low tides

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 58
  • The earth rotates around its axis from west to east, i.e., in anticlockwise direction and completes one rotation in about 24 hours. The axis of the earth is an imaginary line passing through the centre of the earth and joining north and south poles. It is tilted at an angle of about 661⁄2° to the plane of the elliptic, i.e., at an angle of about 231⁄2° from the line perpendicular to that plane. The velocity of rotation decreases from equator to poles because the length of parallels also decreases as we move from the equator toward the poles.

  • The earth’s rotation has a large number of effects on our everyday life.

  • The main effects are:

    • Formation of day and night: The spinning of the Earth around its own axis causes day and night. The Earth completes one full rotation every 24 hours. This is why the Sun appears to rise in the East and set in the West. This motion creates day and night approximately every 12 hours.

    • Concept of time: Earth's rotation period (the time elapsed for one rotation) with respect to the stars is called a sidereal day. A sidereal day is 24 sidereal hours, or 23 hours and 56 minutes on a normal clock. Our clock time is based on the earth's rotation with respect to the sun from solar noon to solar noon.

    • Deflection of winds and ocean currents: Because the Earth rotates on its axis, circulating air is deflected toward the right in the Northern Hemisphere and toward the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This deflection is called the Coriolis effect. If the Earth did not rotate on its axis, the atmosphere would only circulate between the poles and the equator in a simple back-and-forth pattern.

    • Spheroidal shape of the earth: The rotation of the earth causes the earth to swell more at the equator, compared to at the poles. When the earth rotates, there is a strong outward force on the earth matter near the equator. This force causes the swelling, and gives the earth the oblate spheroid shape.

    • Regular intervals of tides: Earth's rotation and the gravitational pull of the sun and moon create tides on our planet.

    • Weight of a body is less at the equator than at the poles due to greater centrifugal force at the equator caused by the Earth’s rotation.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 59

Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the features of Jal Kranti Abhiyan?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 59
  • The Jal Kranti Abhiyan launched by the Government of India in 2015–16 with an aim to ensure water security through per capita availability of water in the country.

  • The Jal Kranti Abhiyan aims at involving local bodies, NGOs, and citizens, at large, in creating awareness regarding its objectives.

    The following activities have been proposed under the Jal Kranti Abhiyan:

    • Selection of one water-stressed village in every 672 districts of the country to create a ‘Jal Gram’. Hence option(a) is not correct.

    • Ídentification of the model command area of about 1000 hectares in different parts of the country, for example, UP, Haryana (North), Karnataka, Telangana, Tamil Nadu (South), Rajasthan, Gujarat (West), Odisha (East), Meghalaya (North-East).

    • Abatement of pollution:

      • Water conservation and artificial recharge.

      • Reducing groundwater pollution.

      • Construction of Arsenic-free wells in selected areas of the country

    • Creating mass awareness through social media, radio, TV, print media, poster and essay writing competitions in schools.

  • Jal Kranti Abhiyan is designed to provide livelihood and food security through water security.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 60

With reference to the function of blood in human body, consider the following statements:

1. It transports digested food from the small intestine to the other parts of the body.

2. It carries oxygen from the lungs to the cells of the body.

3. It transports waste for removal from the body.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 60
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Blood, fluid that transports oxygen and nutrients to the cells and carries away carbon dioxide and other waste products. Technically, blood is a transport liquid pumped by the heart (or an equivalent structure) to all parts of the body, after which it is returned to the heart to repeat the process. Blood is both a tissue and a fluid. It is a tissue because it is a collection of similar specialized cells that serve particular functions. These cells are suspended in a liquid matrix (plasma), which makes the blood a fluid. If blood flow ceases, death will occur within minutes because of the effects of an unfavourable environment on highly susceptible cells. So, all three statements are the functions of blood.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 61

Which of the following are the uses of DNA fingerprinting?

  1. For criminal identification

  2. To resolve disputes of maternity/ paternity

  3. To identify mutilated remains

  4. In cases of exchange of babies in hospital ward

  5. In forensic wildlife

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - Question 61
DNA fingerprinting is a chemical test that shows the genetic makeup of a person or other living things. It‘s used as evidence in courts, to identify bodies, track down blood relatives, and to look for cures for disease.

Uses:

DNA fingerprinting most often has been used in court cases and legal matters. It can:

  • Physically connect a piece of evidence to a person or rule out someone as a suspect.

  • Show who your parents, siblings, and other relatives may be.

  • Identify a dead body that‘s too old or damaged to be recognizable.

  • DNA fingerprinting is extremely accurate. Most countries now keep DNA records on file in much the same way police keep copies of actual fingerprints.

  • For criminal identification. Hence, option 1 is correct.

  • To resolve disputes of maternity/paternity. Hence, option 2 is correct.

  • To identify mutilated remains. Hence, option 3 is correct.

  • In cases of exchange of babies in a hospital ward. Hence, option 4 is correct.

  • In forensic wildlife. Hence, option 5 is correct.

It also has medical uses. It can:

  • Match tissues of organ donors with those of people who need transplants.

  • Identify diseases that are passed down through your family.

  • Help find cures for those diseases, called hereditary conditions.

Haryana Civil Services Mock Test -